chapter 8 questions I mess up Flashcards

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1
Q

Private debt

A

Capital extended to companies through a loan or other form of debt.

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2
Q

Real assets

A

Generally, these are tangible physical assets, such as real estate, infrastructure, and natural resources, but they also include such intangibles as patents, intellectual property, and goodwill. _____ generate current or expected future cash flows and/or are considered a store of value.

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3
Q

Infrastructure

A

A type of real asset that is intended for public use and provides essential services.

These assets are typically long-lived fixed assets, such as bridges and toll roads.

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4
Q

Public–private partnership (PPP)

A

An agreement between the public sector and the private sector to finance, build, and operate public infrastructure, such as hospitals and toll roads.

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5
Q

Concession agreement

A

A legal agreement in infrastructure investing that governs the investor’s obligations to construct and maintain infrastructure as well as the exclusive right to operate and earn fees for a pre-determined period.

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6
Q

Commodities

A

A product or service from a firm that is indistinguishable from products or services of competing firms, usually conforming to a common standard or grade imposed by convention or regulation.

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7
Q

Co-investing

A

In Co-investing, the investor invests in assets indirectly through the fund but also possesses rights (known as co-investment rights) to invest directly in the same assets. Through Co-investing, an investor is able to make an investment alongside a fund when the fund identifies deals.

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8
Q

Limited partnership agreement (LPA)

A

A legal document that outlines the rules of the partnership and establishes the framework that ultimately guides the fund’s operations throughout its life.

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9
Q

Master limited partnership (MLP)

A

Has similar features to limited partnerships but is usually a more liquid investment that is often publicly traded.

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10
Q

Carried interest

A

A performance fee (also referred to as an incentive fee, or carry) that is applied based on excess returns above a hurdle rate.

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11
Q

Commited capital

A

The amount that the limited partners have agreed to provide to the private equity fund.

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12
Q

High-water mark

A

The highest value, net of fees, that a fund has reached in history.

It reflects the highest cumulative return used to calculate an incentive fee.

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13
Q

Clawback

A

A requirement that the general partner return any funds distributed as incentive fees until the limited partners have received their initial investment and a percentage of the total profit.

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14
Q

From the following options, identify the most important reason that investors in alternative funds compensate managers using a performance-based fee structure. To:

a) penalize managers for poor or declining performance over time

b) better align manager and investor incentives over longer periods

c) protect themselves from paying managers twice for the same returns

A

b) better align manager and investor incentives over longer periods

Investors in alternative funds usually compensate managers using a performance-based, versus flat, fee structure to better align manager and investor incentives over longer periods

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15
Q

Prime broker

A

A broker that provides services that commonly include custody, administration, lending, short borrowing, and trading.

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16
Q

Margin financing

A

A financing arrangement whereby the prime broker lends shares, bonds, or derivatives and the hedge fund (or investment manager) deposits cash or other collateral into a margin account at the prime broker based on certain fractions of the investment positions.

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17
Q

Gate

A

A provision that when implemented limits or restricts redemptions for a period of time.

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18
Q

Founders class shares

A

A way to entice early participation in startup funds whereby managers offer incentives that entitle investors to a lower fee structure and/or other favorable terms.

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19
Q

Either/or fee

A

A custom fee arrangement whereby major investors are offered a structure where managers agree to charge either a lower management fee or a higher incentive fee, whichever is greater.

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20
Q

portfolio companies

A

The individual companies owned by a private equity firm.

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21
Q

Mezzanine-stage financing

A

Mezzanine venture capital that prepares a company to go public as it continues to expand capacity and enhance its growth trajectory.

It represents the bridge financing needed to fund a private firm until it can execute an IPO or be sold.

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22
Q

PIPE (private investment in public equity)

A

A private offering to select investors with fewer disclosures and lower transaction costs that allows the issuer to raise capital more quickly and cost effectively.

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23
Q

trade sale

A

A portion or division of a private company sold via either direct sale or auction to a strategic buyer interested in increasing the scale and scope of an existing business.

24
Q

Special purpose acquisition company

A

A “blank check” company that exists solely for the purpose of acquiring an unspecified private company within a predetermined period or return capital to investors.

25
Q

Stockholder overhang

A

The downward pressure on the share price of stock as large blocks of shares are being sold on the open market.

26
Q

Recapitalization

A

Recapitalization via private equity describes the steps a firm takes to increase or introduce leverage to its portfolio company and pay itself a dividend out of the new capital structure.

27
Q

Leveraged loan

A

Where private debt investor firms borrow money to make a direct loan to a borrower.

28
Q

Mezzanine debt

A

Refers to private credit subordinated to senior secured debt but senior to equity in the borrower’s capital structure.

29
Q

Vintage year

A

The year in which a private capital fund makes its first investment.

30
Q

secondary sale

A

Sale of a private company stake to another private equity firm or group of financial buyers.

31
Q

Which of the following is most likely to participate in early-stage financing?

A) Founders

B) Angel investors

C) Strategic investors

A

C) Strategic investors

C is correct. Strategic investors typically join in at early-stage to later-stage financing.

A is incorrect because founders are typically part of the investor group at the earliest, pre-seed stage.

B is incorrect because angel investors are typically involved in the beginning stages, either pre-seed or seed.

32
Q

Which of the following combinations of financial characteristics most likely would be associated with a venture debt transaction?

A) Positive revenues and cash flow

B) Declining revenues and cash flow

C) Low revenues and negative cash flow

A

C) Low revenues and negative cash flow

C is correct. These financial characteristics are typical of the start-up stage in the corporate life cycle, when it is suitable to rely on venture debt

33
Q

A feature that private debt and public debt share in the setting of their investment returns is their:

A) relationship to benchmark interest rates.

B) need for specialized investment knowledge.

C) opportunity for illiquidity premiums in market crises.

A

A) relationship to benchmark interest rates.

34
Q

The most likely effect on a portfolio’s diversification when exposure to direct lending commences is that it:

A) decreases.

B) remains the same.

C) increases.

A

A) decreases.

A is correct. While private capital can have overall positive contributions to diversification, direct lending can involve a large capital commitment to a single borrower, with increased concentration risk and reduced diversification. Investors attempt to protect against the risk of direct lending by having the debt itself classified as senior and secured with protective covenants in place to benefit from the associated higher interest rates while reducing non-diversifiable specific risk associated with a single borrower.

35
Q

Illiquidity is most likely a major concern when investing in:

A) real estate investment trusts.

B) private equity.

C) commodities.

A

B) private equity.

Once a commitment in a private equity fund has been made, the investor has very limited liquidity options.

36
Q

A direct private real estate investor can reduce taxable income using:

A) double taxation.

B) cash depreciation expenses.

C) tax-deductible interest expenses.

A

C) tax-deductible interest expenses.

Direct private real estate owners can reduce their taxable income using non-cash property depreciation expenses and tax-deducible interest expenses.

37
Q

Which of the following is true regarding infrastructure investments?

A) They cannot be made using publicly traded securities.

B) Master limited partnerships minimize double taxation for investors.

C) Large pension funds are frequent members of direct investment consortiums because of their preference for a short-term horizon.

A

B) Master limited partnerships minimize double taxation for investors.

Master limited partnerships trade on exchanges, are pass-through entities like REITs, and may also share with REITs taxation rules that minimize double taxation for investors.

38
Q

Which of the following types of infrastructure investments entails the lowest expected risk?

A) Greenfield

B) Brownfield

C) Secondary stage

A

C) Secondary stage

39
Q

Which of the following has the highest weighting to current yield?

A) Greenfield assets with limited construction and demand risk

B) Fully constructed brownfield assets with contracted revenues

C) Greenfield assets without guarantees of demand upon completion

A

B) Fully constructed brownfield assets with contracted revenues

Brownfield assets with mitigated risks (e.g., fully constructed with contracted/regulated revenues) that are located in the most stable OECD countries have a high weighting to current yield

40
Q

Which of the following is most likely a private real estate investment vehicle?

A) Real estate limited partnership

B) Real estate investment trust

C) Collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO)

A

A) Real estate limited partnership

because real estate limited partnerships are a form of private real estate investment.

41
Q

Which of the following best reflects an advantage of institutional ownership of physical farmland as opposed to buying exposure to crops through futures contracts?

A) Liquidity of physical farmland

B) Price transparency of farmland

C) Flexibility to gain price exposure to a wider variety of agricultural products

A

C is correct. Futures contracts are available on a very limited number of common crops (i.e., wheat, corn, etc.). Ownership of physical farmland opens up the possibilities of growing crops not traded on futures exchanges, thus providing a larger universe of agricultural product price exposures

42
Q

Which of the following is most consistent with backwardation in a commodity market?

A) The convenience yield is negative.

B) The benefit of holding the physical commodity exceeds the cost of carry.

C) The forward price is above the spot price.

A

B) The benefit of holding the physical commodity exceeds the cost of carry.

B is correct. Backwardation in a commodity market implies that forward prices are lower than spot prices. This can occur only if the total benefits of physical ownership of the commodity exceed the total costs

43
Q

Which of the following futures market price conditions would be most expected in a period of low commodity inventories?

A) Backwardation

B) Falling prices

C) Contango

A

A) Backwardation

A is correct. Low inventories of a specific commodity create incentives for market participants to own the physical commodity rather than a derivative contract. This incentive drives up spot prices relative to forward prices and can lead to spot prices being greater than forward prices (i.e., backwardation)

44
Q

Which of the following statements most correctly describes why commodity investments are thought to provide a hedge against inflation?

A) The returns on commodity investing are driven by commodity price changes, and inflation partially reflects these changes.

B) Commodity prices increase after inflation rates increase.

C) Expectations of higher inflation cause commodity prices to increase.

A

A) The returns on commodity investing are driven by commodity price changes, and inflation partially reflects these changes.

Commodity prices are a significant portion of consumer prices because commodities include aspects of everyday life, such as food and energy, and thus consumer price inflation will incorporate the effects of commodity price changes. By investing in commodities, an investor is, at least partially, hedged against the inflation that occurs with rising commodity prices

45
Q

Which of the following statements is most correct if you observe that the correlation between farmland and inflation is significantly lower than the correlation between commodities and inflation (and that both correlations are positive)?

A) Commodities are expected to provide a better inflation hedge than farmland.

B) Farmland is expected to provide a better inflation hedge than commodities.

C) Differences in correlation do not provide any information that is useful in assessing whether an asset class is an inflation hedge.

A

A) Commodities are expected to provide a better inflation hedge than farmland.

46
Q

The primary difference between investments in timberland and investments in farmland is most likely that:

A
farmland has less flexibility in harvesting.

B
investments in farmland are not used as inflation hedges.

C
commodity prices are not a primary driver of returns for investments in timberland.

A

A
farmland has less flexibility in harvesting.

Timberland is more flexible in harvesting, since timber can be stored easily by not harvesting, while farmland must be harvested when ripe.

47
Q

Which of the following is most consistent with backwardation in a commodity market?

A
The convenience yield is negative.

B
The benefit of holding the physical commodity exceeds the cost of carry.

C
The forward price is above the spot price.

A

B
The benefit of holding the physical commodity exceeds the cost of carry.

48
Q

Which of the following best explains why it is unlikely a poor-performing hedge fund would be added to an index?

A) Survivorship bias

B) Backfill bias

C) Selection bias

A

C) Selection bias

Selection bias refers to when the benchmark inclusion criteria cover only those funds that have good performance and hence report their performance to attract new investors

49
Q

Both event-driven and macro hedge fund strategies use:

A
long–short positions.

B
a top-down approach.

C
long-term market cycles.

A

A
long–short positions.

50
Q

An equity hedge fund following a fundamental growth strategy uses fundamental analysis to identify companies that are most likely to:

A
be undervalued.

B
be either undervalued or overvalued.

C
experience high growth and capital appreciation.

A

C
experience high growth and capital appreciation.

51
Q

Claire Sampson is a high-net-worth investor with a portfolio of 80% equities and 20% fixed-income securities. As she considers whether to alter her portfolio allocation to include hedge funds, which of the following is least likely to be a concern for Sampson? Hedge fund managers:

A
charge relatively high fees.

use leverage and take short positions.

C
face many restrictions on which investments they can make.

A

C
face many restrictions on which investments they can make.

52
Q

A benefit of distributed ledger technology (DLT) that increases its use by the investment industry is its:

A) scalability of underlying systems.

B) ease of integration with existing systems.

C) streamlining of current post-trade processes.

A

C) streamlining of current post-trade processes.

DLT has the potential to streamline the existing, often complex and labor-intensive post-trade processes in securities markets by providing close to real-time trade verification, reconciliation, and settlement, thereby reducing related complexity, time, and costs.

53
Q

What is a DLT application suited for physical assets?

A) Tokenization

B) Cryptocurrencies

C) Permissioned networks

A

A) Tokenization

through tokenization—the process of representing ownership rights to physical assets on a blockchain or distributed ledger—DLT has the potential to streamline this rights process by creating a single digital record of ownership with which to verify ownership title and authenticity, including all historical activity.

54
Q

A cryptocurrency miner can earn new digital assets by:

A) solving complex algorithm puzzles to validate blocks of transactions onto a blockchain network based on a PoS protocol.

B) staking his own cryptocurrencies to validate blocks of transactions onto a blockchain network based on a PoW protocol.

C) validating and locking transactions onto a blockchain irrespective of the consensus protocol adopted by the particular network.

A

C) validating and locking transactions onto a blockchain irrespective of the consensus protocol adopted by the particular network.

Under both PoW and PoS consensus protocols, the validation of the transactions, or “mining,” always comes with rewards. A successful miner that validates the transactions obtains new digital assets—either a cryptocurrency or a token. For blockchain networks based on the PoW protocol, the miner earns his digital assets by solving complex algorithm puzzles to validate blocks of transactions onto a blockchain network. For blockchain networks based on the PoS protocol, the miner earns his digital assets by staking his own to validate and attest to the new blocks of transactions.

55
Q

Asset-backed tokens have the potential of improving the liquidity of the underlying assets because:

A) they allow for fractional ownership of high-value assets.

B) costs of validating the transactions are reduced on the blockchains.

C) they make it easier to trade the underlying assets on centralized exchanges.

A

A) they allow for fractional ownership of high-value assets.

Asset-backed tokens can increase liquidity by allowing for fractional ownership of high-priced assets, such as houses, art, precious metals, and precious stones, which allows multiple investors to possess a fractional interest of the same asset.

56
Q

Which of the following is the least vulnerable to a computer security hack?

A) Cryptocurrency wallets

B) Centralized cryptocurrency exchanges

C) Decentralized cryptocurrency exchanges

A

C) Decentralized cryptocurrency exchanges

Decentralized exchanges operate on a distributed platform without central coordination or control. The benefit is that should one of the computers on the network be attacked, the exchange remains operational since there are numerous other computers that continue to operate on the network. For this reason, decentralized exchanges are substantially more difficult to hack, rendering such attacks almost certain to fail.

57
Q

An investor who wants to replicate the return on Bitcoins without the use of a digital wallet can best do so by:

A) investing in a cryptocurrency coin trust that holds Bitcoins.

B) investing in a listed cryptocurrency exchange stock.

C) buying Bitcoins from a centralized cryptocurrency exchange.

A

A) investing in a cryptocurrency coin trust that holds Bitcoins.