The Fetal Genitourinary System Flashcards

1
Q

During an 18-week sonogram, multiple cysts of varying sizes are noted
within the renal fossa of a male fetus. The other kidney appears to be
normal. Which of the following would be an associated finding?
A. Megacystis
B. Ovarian dysgenesis
C. Hypospadias
D. Normal amniotic fluid level

A

D. Normal amniotic fluid level

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2
Q

The most common malignant adrenal pediatric tumor is the:
A. Nephroblastoma
B. Pheochromocytoma
C. Hepatoblastoma
D. Neuroblastoma

A

D. Neuroblastoma

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3
Q

The “keyhole” sign would be seen in all of the following situations
except:
A. Urethral atresia
B. Prune belly syndrome
C. Autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease
D. Posterior urethral valves

A

C. Autosomal dominant polycystic renal disease

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4
Q

What is the most common fetal abnormality noted during an obstetric
sonogram?
A. Anencaphaly
B. Spina bifida
C. Cleft lip
D. Hydronephrosis

A

D. Hydronephrosis

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5
Q

The “lying down” adrenal sign would be seen in all of the following
situations except:
A. Unilateral renal agenesis
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Potter syndrome
D. Pyelectesis

A

D. Pyelectesis

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6
Q

The birth defect in which the sex of the fetus cannot be determined
defines:
A. Renal agenesis
B. Ovarian dysgenesis
C. Clitorimegaly
D. Ambiguous genitalia

A

D. Ambiguous genitalia

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7
Q

What measurement should the renal pelvis not exceed prior to 20 weeks’
gestation?
A. 2 mm
B. 10 mm
C. 7 mm
D. 1.2 cm

A

C. 7 mm

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8
Q

Cloacal exstrophy is associated with all of the following except:
A. Omphalocele
B. Spina bifida
C. Encephalocele
D. Imperforate anus

A

C. Encephalocele

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9
Q

The renal cystic disease that results in the development of cysts late in
adulthood is:
A. Multicystic dysplastic renal disease
B. Autosomal dominant polycystic disease
C. Autosomal recessive polycystic disease
D. Obstructive cystic dysplasia

A

B. Autosomal dominant polycystic disease

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10
Q

What is the most common cause of hydronephrosis in the neonate and the
most common form of fetal renal obstruction?
A. UVJ obstruction
B. UPJ obstruction
C. Vesicoureteral reflux
D. Urethral atresia

A

B. UPJ obstruction

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11
Q

Bladder exstrophy describes:
A. Absence of the cloaca
B. Protrusion of the bladder into the umbilicus
C. External position of the bladder
D. Enlargement of the bladder

A

C. External position of the bladder

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12
Q

Which of the following would result in compensatory hypertrophy?
A. Unilateral renal agenesis
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Pelvic kidney
D. Horseshoe kidneys

A

A. Unilateral renal agenesis

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13
Q

Which of the following would cause a bladder outlet obstruction?
A. Posterior urethral valves
B. Fetal ovarian cyst
C. Pelviectasis
D. Pelvocaliectasis

A

A. Posterior urethral valves

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14
Q

Which of the following is associated with enlarged echogenic kidneys
and microscopic renal cysts?
A. MCDK disease
B. Obstructive cystic dysplasia
C. Hydronephrotic syndrome
D. ARPKD

A

D. ARPKD

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15
Q

The “lying down” adrenal sign describes the sonographic findings of:
A. Enlarged bladder and urethra
B. Renal agenesis
C. MCDK disease
D. Posterior urethral valves

A

B. Renal agenesis

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16
Q

The “I” in OEIS complex stands for:
A. Imperforate anus
B. Ilial dysfunction
C. Irregular bladder enlargement
D. Iniencephaly

A

A. Imperforate anus

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17
Q

Another name for pelvocaliectasis is:
A. Caliectasis
B. Hydrocele
C. Hydronephrosis
D. Pyonephrosis

A

C. Hydronephrosis

18
Q

Which of the following best describes hypospadias?
A. OEIS complex in the presence of a hydrocele
B. The chronic obstruction of the renal pelvis and urethra
C. The underdevelopment of the scrotum in the presence of a hydrocele
D. An abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

A

D. An abnormal ventral curvature of the penis

19
Q

The “keyhole” sign describes the sonographic findings of a(n):
A. Enlarged bladder and dilated urethra
B. Bilateral renal agenesis
C. Unilateral renal agenesis
D. Dilation of the renal pelvis and proximal ureter

A

A. Enlarged bladder and dilated urethra

20
Q

What is the term for enlargement of the urinary bladder?
A. Posterior urethral valves
B. Urethral atresia
C. Prune belly syndrome
D. Megacystis

A

D. Megacystis

21
Q

Numerous noncommunicating anechoic masses are noted within the left
renal fossa of a fetus at 20 weeks’ gestation. What is the most likely
etiology of these masses?
A. ARPKD
B. ADPKD
C. MCDK disease
D. Hydronephrosis

A

C. MCDK disease

22
Q

Fluid surrounding the fetal testicle is referred to as:
A. Hydroureter
B. Hydronephrosis
C. Hydrocele
D. Hydroscrotum

A

C. Hydrocele

23
Q

Fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys describes:
A. Renal agenesis
B. Horseshoe kidneys
C. Moiety
D. Meckel–Gruber syndrome

A

B. Horseshoe kidneys

24
Q

The syndrome associated with an occipital cephalocele, cystic renal
disease, and polydactyly is:
A. Meckel–Gruber syndrome
B. Potter syndrome
C. VACTERL association
D. Sirenomelia syndrome

A

A. Meckel–Gruber syndrome

25
Q

Which of the following is not a component of prune belly syndrome?
A. Megacystis
B. Undescended testis
C. Dilated urinary bladder and urethra
D. Abdominal muscle hypertrophy

A

D. Abdominal muscle hypertrophy

26
Q

OEIS complex is also referred to as:
A. Bladder exstrophy
B. Omphalocele
C. Potter syndrome
D. Cloacal exstrophy

A

D. Cloacal exstrophy

27
Q

Obstruction at the level of the UPJ would lead to dilation of the:
A. Renal pelvis and bladder
B. Bladder and ureter
C. Ureter and renal pelvis
D. Renal pelvis and calices

A

D. Renal pelvis and calices

28
Q

The most common location of an ectopic kidney is within the:
A. Lower abdomen
B. Pelvis
C. Chest
D. Contralateral quadrant

A

B. Pelvis

29
Q

Pyelectasis refers to:
A. Enlargement of the urinary bladder, ureter, and renal calices
B. Dilation of the ureter
C. Dilation of the renal pelvis
D. Enlargement of the ureter only

A

C. Dilation of the renal pelvis

30
Q

Prune belly syndrome is caused by:
A. An enlarged bladder
B. Unilateral renal agenesis
C. Bilateral renal agenesis
D. Hypospadias

A

A. An enlarged bladder

31
Q

All of the following would be associated with oligohydramnios except:
A. Bilateral MCDK disease
B. Unilateral renal agenesis
C. Bilateral renal agenesis
D. ARPKD

A

B. Unilateral renal agenesis

32
Q

What is the most common fetal renal tumor?
A. Neuroblastoma
B. Nephroblastoma
C. Mesoblastic nephroma
D. Wilms tumor

A

C. Mesoblastic nephroma

33
Q

The type of renal cystic disease associated with adult liver and pancreatic
cysts is:
A. MCDK
B. ARPKD
C. ADPKD
D. VATER

A

C. ADPKD

34
Q

Having more than the normal number of digits is:
A. Polydactyly
B. Clinodactyly
C. Multidigitopia
D. Sirenomelia

A

A. Polydactyly

35
Q

Cryptorchidism describes:
A. Bilateral pelvic kidneys
B. Urethral atresia
C. Undescended testicles
D. dysgenesis

A

C. Undescended testicles

36
Q

An obstruction at the ureterovesicular junction would lead to dilation of
the:
A. Bladder and urethra
B. Bladder, urethra, and ureters
C. Bladder, urethra, ureters, and renal collecting system
D. Ureter and renal collecting system

A

D. Ureter and renal collecting system

37
Q

Before 9 weeks, the fetal kidneys are located within the:
A. Renal fossae
B. Pelvis
C. Chest
D. Umbilical cord

A

B. Pelvis

38
Q

Which of the following is the most common renal anomaly?
A. Horseshoe kidneys
B. Pelvic kidneys
C. Renal agenesis
D. Duplex collecting system

A

D. Duplex collecting system

39
Q

Failure of the kidneys to form is called:
A. Hydronephrosis
B. Renal dysplasia
C. Renal agenesis
D. Renal ectopia

A

C. Renal agenesis

40
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely cause of bilateral, enlarged echogenic fetal kidneys and oligohydramnios?
A. ARPKD
B. MCKD
C. Renal cystic dysplasia
D. ADPKD

A

A. ARPKD