Test Questions Flashcards
You are conducting stakeholder interviews to elicit requirements for your new project. As the interviewees are talking, you are evaluating their body language and tone, asking relevant questions and seeking clarity. What are you doing?
Effective listening
System used for scheduling, critical path calculations and will assist with WBS, work authorization, resource tracking and reporting.
PMIS
Linear Programming, Integer Algorithms, Dynamic Programming and multi-objective programming are examples of?
Constrained Optimization Methods used to predict success on complex projects
Project Alpha has an expected IRR of 8% but is expected to take three years to complete. Project Beta has an expected IRR of 5% but will only take nine months to complete. Which project should your company decide to work on?
Project Alpha
*For IRR questions, always choose the project with the highest IRR.
<> signals there could be an issue, while <> tells us the severity of the issue?
WORK PERFORMANCE Information signals there is an inconsistency to plan, while PERFORMANCE MEASURES will tell us how that inconsistency is to the project
Your organization often groups together related projects into programs. Some projects, programs, and operations are also managed as portfolios to achieve strategic objectives. Which of the following is a framework in which the management of portfolios, programs, and projects are integrated with organizational enablers to achieve strategic objectives?
Organizational Project Management (OPM) is defined as a framework in which portfolio, program and project management are integrated with organizational enablers to achieve strategic objectives.
The centralized management of one or more portfolios to achieve strategic objectives.
Portfolio Management
A project comprises of activities A, B, C and D. The longest path includes activities A, C, and D which take two days, ten days and 20 days respectively. Activity B, on the other hand, takes eight days to complete. If activity D takes two extra days to complete, what is the shortest possible project duration?
34
The critical path for this project is A-C-D, and it, therefore, determines the shortest possible project duration as 2+10+20 = 32 days. As D needs two more days to complete, 32+2 = 34 days becomes the new project duration.
Treating others with conduct that may result in harm, fear, humiliation, manipulation, or exploitation. For example, berating a project team member because they’ve taken longer than expected to complete a project assignment may be considered humiliation.
Abusive manner
A situation where a project manager may have two competing duties of loyalty. For example, purchasing software from a relative may benefit the relative, but it may do harm to the performing organization.
Conflict of interest
A project manager’s responsibility to be loyal to another person, organization, or vendor. For example, a project manager has this to promote the best interests of an employer rather than the best interests of a vendor.
Duty of loyalty
A person who is serving in the capacity of a project manager or contributing to the management of a project, portfolio of projects, or program. For example, a program manager is considered to be a XXX under this definition.
Practitioner
6 Generally acknowledged techniques for resolving conflict
Withdrawal/Avoiding
Smoothing/accommodating
Forcing/directive
Compromising/reconcile
Confronting/problem solving
Collaborating
A process is Out of Control when ___ data points exceed Control Limits,
or ___ consecutive points are above or below the mean.
1 / 7
Control Chart
Continuous Delivery is facilitated by which Agile Framework
Kanban
Term for the duration to which an Agile Event must not exceed
Time box
Which process is used to implement approved change requests:
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
- note: the question refers to implementation of an approved change request. If the change request had not yet been approved, then the Perform Integrated Change Control would facilitate the process of obtaining approval.
The process Direct and Manage Project Work will produce the following as output (select 3)
Deliverables
Work Performance Data
Work Performance Reports
Change Requests
Schedule Forecasts
Deliverables
Work Performance Data
Change Requests
Which of the following are among the Tools and Techniques of the process Collect Requirements (select 3):
A. Observation/Conversation
B. Focus Groups
C. Inspection
D. Interviews
E. Decomposition
A
B
D
You are the project manager for your organization and your organization utilizes an agile approach to project management. The development team is rating the difficulty of completing the requirements in the current sprint. What term describes rating of the requirements to determine how many requirements can be completed in a sprint?
Story Points
Requirements are written as user stories. Story points score the difficulty of the tasks needed to complete a user story in a sprint.
Performance Baseline includes these 3:
Many projects use a combination of the three to get a fuller picture of the project’s performance during the execution phase
Scope, cost and schedule baseline
Once the make-or-buy analysis is completed, which document defines the project delivery method?
A. Procurement statement of work (SOW)
B. Procurement strategy
C. Terms of reference
D. Change request
B. Procurement strategy
A project manager is preparing to meet with three crucial project stakeholders on a new project. Which tools and techniques can the project manager use to capture stakeholder interest?
A. Review stakeholder register and meeting
B. Data analysis and communication skills
C. Data gathering and data analysis
D. Communication skills and cultural awareness
C. Data gathering and data analysis
*Preparing=planning/new project/capture
Which kind of communication should the project manager use when creating reports for government bodies?
A. Hierarchical
B. External
C. Formal
D. Official
D. Official
Official. Annual reports; reports to regulators or government bodies.
Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?
A. Verify Deliverables
B. Validate Deliverables
C. Review Deliverables
D. Analyze Deliverables
A. Verify Deliverables
Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?
A. Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project
B. Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met
C. Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner
D. Develops an appropriate and plan for communication of project activities
B. Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met
What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?
A. Expert judgment
B. Interpersonal skills
C. Team agreements
D. Communication skills
A. Expert judgment
Which is a major component of an agreement?
A. Change request handling
B. Risk register templates
C. Lessons learned register
D. Procurement management plan
A. Change request handling
The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should the project manager consult?
A. Risk management plan
B. Communications management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Stakeholder engagement plan
B. Communications management plan
A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Which format can a network diagram take?
A. Flow chart
B. Control chart
C. Affinity diagram
D. Cause-and-effect diagram
A. Flow chart
A project manager is assigned to a strategic project. Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.
Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?
A. The project and the organization
B. The organization and the industry
C. The subject matter experts and the project
D. The change control board and the organization
A. The project and the organization
Which of the following conditions should the project manager consider when working on the scheduling for an adaptive environment?
A. Defining, sequencing, estimating activity durations, and developing a schedule model are so tightly linked that they are viewed as a single process.
B. The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge.
C. An iterative scheduling and on-demand, pull-based scheduling will be required.
D. To address the full delivery schedule, a range of techniques may be needed and then need to be adapted.
B. The detailed project schedule should remain flexible throughout the project to accommodate newly gained knowledge.
The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?
A. Work performance information
B. Bidder conferences
C. Complexity of procurement
D. Procurement management plan
C. Complexity of procurement
Under which circumstances should multiple projects be grouped in a program?
A. When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization
B. When they have the same project manager and the same organizational unit
C. When they have the same scope, budget, and schedule
D. When they are from the same unit of the organization
A. When they are needed to accomplish a set of goals and objectives for an organization
How can a project manager maintain the engagement of stakeholders in a project with a high degree of change?
A. Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plans
B. Send all project documents to stakeholders each time they are modified
C. Schedule monthly meetings with the stakeholders, including team members
D. Engage only with the project sponsors
A. Monitor project stakeholder relationships using engaging strategies and plan
For which kind of quantitative risk analysis chart can a tornado diagram represent values?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Expected monetary value analysis
D. Decision tree analysis
A. Sensitivity analysis
Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?
A. Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills
B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings
C. Expert judgment, audits, and decision making
D. Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment
B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings
What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?
A. Cultural influences
B. Physical environmental elements
C. Commercial databases
D. Infrastructure
D. Infrastructure
A protect manager needs to request outside support for a statement of work (SOW) that is not precise. Which kind of contract does the project manager need to create?
A. Time and material (T&M)
B. Cost plus fixed fee (CPFF)
C. Fixed price
D. Cost plus award fee (CPAF)
A. Time and material (T&M)
Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?
A. Training and establishing ground rules
B. Networking activities and estimating team resources
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
D. Recruit new team members and training
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
Which of the following set of elements is part of an effective communications management plan?
A. Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
B. Phone book directory, stakeholder communication requirements, project charter, glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational chart, escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, project management plan, glossary of common terminology
D. Glossary of common terminology, constraints derived from specific legislation and regulation, person responsible for communicating information, project management plan, resource management plan
A. Escalation processes, person responsible for communicating the information, glossary of common terminology, methods or technologies used to convey the information
What does earned value (EV) measure?
A. Budgeted work that has been completed
B. Total costs incurred while accomplishing work
C. Budget associated with planned work
D. Cost efficiency of budgeted resources
A. Budgeted work that has been completed
Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes EXECUTING the scope?
A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
B. Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.
C. Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.
D. Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.
A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
Which are the main objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks.
C. Increase the probability of positive risks and eliminate all negative risks.
D. Identify positive and negative risks.
A. Increase the probability of positive risks and decrease the probability of negative risks.
A project using the agile/adaptive approach has reached the Project Integration Management phase. What is the project manager’s key responsibility during this phase?
A. Defining the scope of the project
B. Building a collaborative environment
C. Creating a detailed project management plan
D. Directing the delivery of the project
B. Building a collaborative environment
Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control Quality process?
A. Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
B. Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
C. Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same.
D. Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control Quality is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group.
A. Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and procedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.
A project Manager is addressing risks and potential concerns related to stakeholder management and is clarifying and resolving previously identified issues. Is this manage or monitor stakeholder engagement?
Manage
Manage stakeholder engagement involves making certain communication needs and expectations are met, managing any issues they might raise that could become future issues and resolving previously identified issues.
Monitor is keeping stakeholders informed and engaged throughout the project.
During which process of project cost management does a PM produce the cost baseline?
Determine Budget
The cost baseline is the approved version o the time phased project budget.
Statistical Sampling is one of the tools and techniques used in which process of Quality Management?
Plan Quality
Perform Quality Response
Control Quality
Manage Quality
Statistical Sampling, Control Chart, Pareto Chart, Run Chart etc tools and techniques used in Control Quality.
All of the followings are true regarding Contract Change Control system EXCEPT:
It should include contract dispute resolution procedures
It should be defined in the contract
It is used in Control Procurements Process
It is part of the Integrated Change Control system
It should be defined in the contract
Float of activities in critical paths is:
0
1
2
Can not be said and depends on the activity duration, dependencies with others
Float for critical activity is zero. A is correct.
Initial Cost Management Plan is available in which of the following knowledge area?
Integration Management
Cost Management
Scope Management
Schedule Management
Initial cost management plan is prepared in Integration Management. It is done in Develop Project Plan process area.
The value 3 Sigma stands for how many defects per million opportunities?
1,700
2,700
3.4
1.5
3 sigma stands for 99.73% of standard deviation, which means the defects are: 100 – 99.73 = 00.27% = 2,700 defect per million opportunities
You are in the middle of a bidding of a huge project by an international conglomerate. This project is expected to bring a huge revenue stream down the line for your organization. You have prepared the plan for a long time with your team and have submitted the proposal. Recently, the buyer came up with certain new deadlines which will be difficult to adhere to. However, the buyer is insisting on those deadlines. You review the whole plan and came to the conclusion that there is no way this can be done with the new deadlines. Your boss is however not convinced and is concerned that if you do not agree to the new dates you will loose the contract. What should you do?
a. Ask your boss to make the commitment on behalf of the team
b. Appeal to the buyer for additional time for the work
c. Adhere to the estimates your team has made
d. Agree to the date the customer has required
Estimates made should be accurate and that should be presented to the customer. As you have rechecked the plan and found out that no way the new deadlines can be addressed, you should inform the estimate as developed by your team. Hence, Choice – C is the correct answer.
All of the following tools are used in Quality Control EXCEPT:
Pareto Chart
Statistical Sampling
Histograms
Benchmarking
Benchmarking is not used in Perform Quality Control
Which of the following best describes a project plan?
A formal and approved document which is used to guide project execution, control and closure
The document that outlines all of the work and only the work that must be performed
The scope management plan, schedule management plan, cost management plan and quality management plan
The aggregate of all the work performed during planning
A project plan is a formal and approved document which is used to guide project execution, control and closure.
A defect has been brought to your attention. As the manager of the team, you reviewed the defect with the concerned team member and asked her to submit a change request. Now the team is engaged in fixing the issue. Which project management process are you in?
Monitor and Control Project Work
Direct and Manage Project Execution
Perform Quality Control
Perform Integrated Change Control
Please note the last sentence The team is now fixing (which is working on) the issue. Hence they are in Direct and Manage Project Execution process area. Choice B is correct.
You have been appointed as the Project manager of an upcoming internal project. Who will provide you with the Statement of work (SOW)?
a) Customer
b) Project Sponsor
c) Project Manager provides SOW
d) None of the above
Solution: SOW is one of the inputs for Develop Project Charter process. If the project is external, the SOW is provided by the customer. However, if the project is internal, the SOW is provided by the Project Sponsor or Project Initiator.
Incremental Delivery is facilitated by which Agile Framework
A. Kanban
B. Scrum
C Predictive Life Cycle
D. Passive Life Cycle
B. Scrum
Incremental delivery is used to accomplish all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Reduce Risk
B. Reduce Cost of Changes
C. Reduce Time to Market
D. Reduce Transparency
D. Reduce Transparency
It is a common practice for projects in an Agile environment to have a Daily Standup meeting. What is the purpose of this meeting?
A. To provide status reporting on a daily basis.
B. To solve problems as soon as they become apparent.
C. To engage the project sponsor and stakeholders in decision making and commitment towards project objectives.
Incorrect
D. To commit to near-term goals, uncover problems, and ensure that work flows smoothly through the team.
D. To commit to near-term goals, uncover problems, and ensure that work flows smoothly through the team.
A Time Box refers to
A. The starting time for an Agile Event
B. The minimum duration for an Agile Event
C. the duration to which an Agile Event must not exceed
D. the total duration of all Agile events for a given increment
C. the duration to which an Agile Event must not exceed
The project team has successfully delivered the final component of a year long project on-budget and ahead of schedule. The final product has been transitioned into operations and all necessary support requirements have been completed. As part of project closure, what would be done next?
A. Release all project resources
B. Validate Scope
C. Complete project closure documents
D. Close out all project accounts
C. Complete project closure documents
Approved changes are implemented during:
A. Direct and manage project work
B. Perform Integrated Change Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Close Project or Phase
A. Direct and manage project work
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate things to do in the initiating process group?
A. Ensure the product Scope is as final as practical
B. Ensure continued understanding of the work
C. Remove Roadblocks
D. Review Bids and select sellers
A. Ensure the product Scope is as final as practical
B, C and D are completed during Execuction
Which of the following is a ‘Data Representation’ tool used in the process Monitor Stakeholder Engagement?
A. Resource Breakdown Structure
B. Organizational Breakdown Structure
C. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
D. Tornado Diagram
C. Stakeholder Engagement Assessment Matrix
Monitor Stakeholder Engagement is primarily concerned with which of the following:
A. Identify people, groups and organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project.
Incorrect
B. Communicate and work with the stakeholders to satisfy their needs and expectations
C. Develop appropriate strategies and an actionable plan to effectively involve stakeholders based on their needs, expectations, and potential impact on the project.
D. Evaluating stakeholders impact on project performance and taking appropriate actions as the project evolves and its environment changes
B. Communicate and work with the stakeholders to satisfy their needs and expectations
This Tool/Technique of Manage Stakeholder Engagement may be used to visually represent the stakeholders and their relationships to each other and the organization:
Your Answer:
A. Mind Mapping
B. Benchmarking
C. Stakeholder Engagement Matrix
D. Stakeholder Assessment Matrix
A. Mind Mapping
A project kickoff meeting is scheduled by the project manager to occur during which project management process group:
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
B. Planning
Which of the following is regarded as the most important aspect of Knowledge Management
A. Ensuring thorough documentation so that knowledge can be shared.
B. Creating an atmosphere of trust, so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.
C. Obtaining lessons learned at the end of the project, in order for it to be used in future projects.
D. Emphasize codified explicit knowledge, since it is not subject to different interpretations.
B. Creating an atmosphere of trust, so that people are motivated to share their knowledge.
The Quality Management process used to identify ineffective processes and causes of poor quality is known as:
A. Control Quality
B. Manage Quality
C. Attribute Sampling
D. Variables Sampling
B. Manage Quality
The Process Group that provides feedback to implement corrective action is:
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Monitoring and Controlling
The Scope Baseline refers to:
A. What is currently known and approved by project sponsor and stakeholders.
B. The working assumptions of the subject matter experts responsible for completing the work.
C. The scope as it was defined in the Project Charter.
D. The scope value as it was presented in the Business Case.
A. What is currently known and approved by project sponsor and stakeholders.
The Cost of Non-Conformance includes:
A. Prevention and Appraisal costs.
B. Money spent during the project to avoid failures.
C. Internal and External Failure Costs.
D. Cost of Inspection and Destructive Testing Loss
C. Internal and External Failure Costs.
In which Project Procurement Management process does Negotiation occur:
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
Organizational culture, structure and governance are examples of:
A. Enterprise Environmental Factors
B. Stakeholder Engagement Factors
C. Organizational Process Assets
D. Organizational Matrix Structures
A. Enterprise Environmental Factors
A Finish-to-Start relationship is an activity relationship that requires the:
A. successor be completed before the predecessor may begin.
B. successor be completed before the predecessor can finish.
C. predecessor be completed before the successor may begin.
D. predecessor begins before the successor may begin.
C. predecessor be completed before the successor may begin.
0 / 1 point
Project-X has an approved budget of $10,000. Activity-A has a planned value of $500, Activity-B has a planned value of $900, and Activity-C has a planned value of $800. Activities A and B are both complete, but Activity-C is only 75% complete. The actual costs thus far equal $2,500.
The Schedule Variance is _____ , and the schedule status is ______.
A. +200 / ahead of schedule
B. -200 / behind schedule
C. +300 / ahead of schedule
D. -300 / behind schedule
B. -200 / behind schedule
PV = $500 + $900 + $800 = $2,200
EV = $500 + $900 +($800*.75) = $2,000
SV = 2,000 - 2,200 = (-200)
Project-X has an approved budget of $10,000. Activity-A has a planned value of $500, Activity-B has a planned value of $900, and Activity-C has a planned value of $800. Activities A and B are both complete, but Activity-C is only 75% complete. The actual costs thus far equal $2,500.
What is the Estimate at Completion (EAC), assuming that all remaining work is completed according to original estimates:
A. $8,900
B. $10,200
C. $10,500
D. $12,500
C. $10,500
Budget at Completion (BAC) = $10,000
Earned Value (EV) = $500 + $900 +($800*.75) = $2,000
Actual Cost (AC) = $2,500
ETC = $10,000 - $2,000 = $8,000
EAC = $2,500 + $8,000 = $10,500
External Failure Costs include the following, EXCEPT:
A. Liabilities
B. Warranty Work
C. Loss of Business
D. Destructive Testing Loss
D. Destructive Testing Loss
Perform Manage Quality differs from Control Quality in that:
A. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with acceptance of deliverables and meeting product requirements, while Control Quality is concerned with correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements.
B. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with the correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements, while Control Quality is concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used.
C. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used, while Control Quality is concerned with acceptance of deliverables and meeting product requirements.
D. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used, while Control Quality is concerned with the correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements.
D. Manage Quality is primarily concerned with ensuring that appropriate quality standards are used, while Control Quality is concerned with the correctness of deliverables and meeting quality requirements.
Deliverables are _______ of the Control Quality process.
A. Inputs
B. Outputs
C. Tools
D. Techniques
A. Inputs
A Bidder Conference is a Tool/Technique of which Procurement process:
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Manage Procurements
D. Control Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
The ability for stakeholders to influence a project is:
A. highest during the initial stages and gets progressively lower as the project progresses.
B. A. lowest during the initial stages and gets progressively higher as the project progresses.
C. remains constant throughout the project life cycle.
D. is driven by the number of influencing stakeholders involved in the project
A. highest during the initial stages and gets progressively lower as the project progresses.
Which is likely to be part of operations:
A. Designing a new engine
B. Building a new plant
C. Performing scheduled maintenance on a vehicle
D. Making updates to reflect changes made to engine specifications
C. Performing scheduled maintenance on a vehicle
A project is 75% complete, but has only expended 50% of its approved budget. The Cost Performance Index (CPI) equals:
A. 0.67
B. 1.25
C. 1.50
D. 1.75
C. 1.50
Physical Resource Assignments and Project Team Assignments are outputs of which Project Resource Management process?
A. Plan Resource Management
B. Estimate Resources
C. Acquire Resources
D. Control Resources
C. Acquire Resources
A project can add specialized expertise without incurring travel or relocation costs when utilizing this type of team:
A. Logistical
B. Circus
C. Virtual
D. Co-located
C. Virtual
Activities designed to enhance the skills, knowledge, and capabilities of the project team is called:
A. Roles and Responsibilities
B. Ground Rules
C. Reward and Recognition
D. Training
D. Training
An opportunity is identified to have a 40% chance of earning $200,000, but there is a 20% chance that it can lose $40,000. What is the total Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of the risk:
A. $160,000
B. $80,000
C. $72,000
D. $40,000
C. $72,000
Opportunity EVM = 40% * $200,000 = + $80,000
Threat EVM = 20% * $40,000 = - $8,000
$80,000 - $8,000 = $72, 000
A Bidder Conference is among the Tools & Techniques of which Project Procurement Management process
A. Plan Procurement Management
B. Conduct Procurements
C. Manage Procurements
D. Control Procurements
B. Conduct Procurements
In an Agile environment, the project manager will have an inherent need to communicate
A. work performance data
B. evolving and emerging details
C. budget variance
D. fixed and total float
B. evolving and emerging details
How can a project manager evaluate project team development?
A. Produce team performance assessments
B. Hold weekly meetings to engage every member
C. Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member
D. Provide recognition awards to team members
A. Produce team performance assessments
Which project documents can determine the budget?
A. Procurement documents, contracts, requirements documentation, and basis of estimates
B. Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register
C. Business case, project charter, statement of work, and cost estimates
D. Scope baseline, resource management plan, activity list, and assumption log
B. Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register
After defining activities in project schedule management, which processes should a project manager follow?
A. Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations
B. Estimate Activity Durations and Control Schedule
C. Develop Schedule and Control Schedule
D. Review Activities and Develop Schedule
A. Sequence Activities and Estimate Activity Durations
A company must implement sales software because it is opening a new branch in a foreign market. Although this software is used in every domestic branch, multiple changes are expected during the implementation because it is a foreign location.
Which type of life cycle would the project manager use in this case?
A. Predictive life cycle
B. Waterfall life cycle
C. Hybrid life cycle
D. Product life cycle
C. Hybrid life cycle
Which factors should be considered for cross-cultural communication?
A. Background, personality, and communications management plan
B. Personality, background, and escalation process
C. Sponsor relationship, personality, and background
D. Current emotional state, personality, and background
D. Current emotional state, personality, and background
Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:
A. requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.
B. WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.
C. business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.
D. issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, verified deliverables, and quality reports.
A. requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.
Which of the following is a category of organizational process assets?
A. Government standards
B. Organizational culture
C. Employee capabilities
D. Organizational knowledge bases
D. Organizational knowledge bases
Which of the following can a project manager use to represent defined team member roles in a group of tasks?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
D. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Due to today’s competitive global market, organizations require more than technical project management skills. Which of the following skills can support long- range strategic objectives that contribute to the bottom line?
A. Planning and risk management skills
B. Communication and time management skills
C. Business intelligence and leadership skills
D. Strategic and business management skills
C. Business intelligence and leadership skills
The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan. Which elements may be included in this plan?
A. Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process
B. Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules
C. Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan
D. Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments
C. Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan
Which tools and techniques should a project manager use to monitor risks?
A. Expert judgment, data analysis, and interpersonal and team skills
B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings
C. Expert judgment, audits, and decision making
D. Meetings, data gathering, and expert judgment
B. Data analysis, audits, and meetings
Which set of activities should a project manager use as part of the Develop Team process?
A. Training and establishing ground rules
B. Networking activities and estimating team resources
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
D. Recruit new team members and training
C. Conflict management activities and tracking team performance
Which action should the project manager take after the team finishes executing the scope?
A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
B. Accept all the deliverables and deliver them to the customer for final acceptance.
C. Conduct a joint session with the customer, change the deliverables, and then request approval.
D. Check that all change requests were implemented and release deliverables to the customer.
A. Verify the deliverables to ensure that they are correct and meet the customer’s satisfaction.
What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?
A. Works with the sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the team
B. Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives
C. Ensures that the project’s business operations are efficient
D. Provides management oversight tor a project’s functional or business units
B. Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives
The features and functions that characterize a result product, or service can refer to:
A. project scope
B. product scope
C. service scope
D. product breakdown structure
B. product scope
What should a project manager do to prepare a risk management plan in a project with a lot of technical uncertainty?
A. Get expert judgment
B. Count on personal experience
C. Ask project sponsors
D. Delay the project until technical uncertainty is clarified
A. Get expert judgment
Which term refers to work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?
A. Project Scope
B. Product Scope
C. Change request
D. Acceptance criteria
A. Project Scope.
During which process of Cost Management does a PM produce the cost baseline?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Schedule
C. Determine Budget
D. Develop Project Charter
C. Determine Budget
Recognition and rewards are tools and techniques of which process?
A. Develop Team
B. Manage Team
C. Control Resources
D. Plan Resource Management
A. Develop Team
Which task will a project manager undertake while conducting Project Resource Management?
A. Identify the different aspects of the team to manage and control physical resources efficiently
B. Procure equipment, materials, facilities, and infrastructure for the project
C. Train the team members in project skill sets
D. Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member
D. Define the roles and responsibilities of each team member
Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?
A. Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources
B. Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system
C. Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements
D. Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge
C. Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements
After an internal deliverable review session with the team, the project manager identifies some issues that need to be fixed before submitting the deliverable for formal approval. The project manager will need to manage the additional costs and time for the required rework.
How would the project manager define these extra costs?
A. Appraisal costs
B. Management reserves
C. Cost of nonconformance
D. Cost of conformance
A. Appraisal costs
The project manager is using co-location and providing training to the project team. On which of the following Project Resource Management processes is the project manager working?
A. Acquire Resources
B. Control Resources
C. Manage Team
D. Develop Team
D. Develop Team
Resource Requirements and a Resource Breakdown Structure are outputs of which Project Resource Management process?
A. Plan Resource Management
B. Estimate Activity Resource
C. Acquire Resources
D. Control Resources
B. Estimate Activity Resource
A User Story is tool used in Agile software development
A. to define the length of the team’s development cycle, from start to finish, needed to create a potentially releasable increment.
B. to capture the description of a software feature from an end-user perspective, describing the type of user, what they want, and why.
C. to visualize work, limit work-in-progress, and maximize efficiency and flow.
D. to summarize the vision and direction of a product offering over time.
B. to capture the description of a software feature from an end-user perspective, describing the type of user, what they want, and why.
Project documents should be distributed to
A. All people identified in the Resource Breakdown Structure
B. All people identified in the Communications Management Plan
C. All people identified in the Stakeholder Register
D. All people identified in the RACI chart as accountable
B. All people identified in the Communications Management Plan
Project Communications are :
A. An Output of Manage Communications, and Input to Monitor Communications
B. An Output of Plan Communication Management, and Input to Monitor Communications
C. An Output of Plan Communication Management, and Input to Manage Communications
D. B. An Output of Monitor Communications and Input to Manage Communications
A. An Output of Manage Communications, and Input to Monitor Communications
Video-conferencing is an example of which communication method:
A. Virtual
B. Technology
C. Interactive
D. Channel
C. Interactive
The Cost Performance Index (CPI) is used to adjust estimated costs for remaining work in a forecast when:
A. Original estimates are found to be unreliable and unpredictable
B. Original estimates are found to be accurate, but took longer than expected to complete
C. Current Variances are viewed as typical of future variances
D. Current Variances are viewed as atypical and isolated to past activities that have already completed
C. Current Variances are viewed as typical of future variances
Parametric estimating involves:
A. Using Optimistic, Pessimistic and Most Likely estimates.
B. Calculating individual cost estimates for each work package to obtain the total cost of the project.
C. Using a prescribed rate and other variables to calculate an estimate.
D. Using the actual cost of a previous similar project to estimate the cost of the current project.
C. Using a prescribed rate and other variables to calculate an estimate.
Given a project with a Budget at Completion (BAC) equal to $100,000, and Estimate to Completion (EAC) calculated as $80,000. What is the Cost Performance Index (CPI)?
A. 0.80
B. 1.25
C. 1.45
D. 1.80
B. 1.25
CPI = BAC / EAC, or 100,000 / 80,000 = 1.25
