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BECOM FINAL > Test Block 3 > Flashcards

Test Block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what kind of chromatin is actively dividing

A

euchromatin

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2
Q

what does PCNA do

A

help to keep the polymerase bound

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3
Q

proof reading ability of DNA is duect to a _________

A

3’ to 5’ exonuclease activity

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4
Q

endonuclease occurs at the ________. exoonuclease occurs at the ______

A

middle; end

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5
Q

Explain the steps of BER

A
  1. DNA cleaved by DNA MYH glycosylase
  2. recognized by AP endonuclease
  3. PARP binds
  4. Pol fills and ligase seals
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6
Q

Explain steps of MMR

A
  1. MSH proteins detect mismatch
  2. MLH proteins recruit exonuclease
  3. pol fills, ligase seals
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7
Q

lynch syndrome is associated with which repair mechanism

A

MMR

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8
Q

lack of MLH1 leads to degradations of ____, lack of MSH2 leads to loss of ____

A

PMS2;MSH6 (MMR)

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9
Q

how are thymine dimers repaired

A

NER

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10
Q

explain steps of NHEJ

A
  1. ku70 and ku80 bind to broken ends
  2. nuclease artemis is recruited
  3. pol fills, ligase seals
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11
Q

which repair mechanism uses sister chromatid as a template for repair?

A

homologous recombination repair (BRCA1, BRCA2, PALB). Loss of heterozygosity

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12
Q

what is the order of repair mechanisms by length

A

BER, MMR, NER, HRR, NHEJ

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13
Q

removes a postitive charge from lysine, making DNA easier to unwind and become transcriptionally active

A

HAT

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14
Q

how does methyl groups encourage the packaging of DNA

A

by physically blocking the binding of transcription factors

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15
Q

where does methylation of DNA occur

A

the 5’ carbon on cysteine

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16
Q

antibodies contain _____ light and _____ heavy chains

A

two; two

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17
Q

DNA elements that act at a distance to repress transcription

A

silencers

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18
Q

how do steroid receptors work

A

HSP bind receptors in cytosol
ligand (cortisol) displaces HSP
GR dimerizes and enters nucleus

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19
Q

what are the stop codons

A

UGA, UAA, UAG

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20
Q

what is the start codon

A

AUG

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21
Q

what does eIF3 do

A

prevents premature binding of ribosomal subunit

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22
Q

what does EF1 do

A

Blocks the A site

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23
Q

what does EF2 do

A

attach to charged tRNA

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24
Q

How is EF2 regulated

A

when phosphorylated, it is inactive

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25
Q

How is EIF4 regulated

A

insulin binds, phosphorylates to activatew EIF4

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26
Q

what blocks the binding of aminoacyl tRNA by blocking the A site

A

tetracyclins

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27
Q

what binds to the 30s subunit to prevent intitation

A

aminoglyside (streptomycin)

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28
Q

what does erythromycin do

A

blocks 50s subunit

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29
Q

what inhibits peptides transferase

A

lincomycin and lindamycin

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30
Q

what activates EEF2

A

Diptheria Toxin

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31
Q

what antibiotics wrecks your teeth

A

tetracyclin and deoxycyclin

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32
Q

what enzyme catalyzes peptide bond formation

A

peptidyl transferase

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33
Q

how does tetracyclin prevent bacterial translation

A

blocks the A site

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34
Q

what was given to Dr. Rees son

A

clindamycin

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35
Q

to enter G1 cells must have

A

high concentration of growth factors
sense adhesion
have sufficient nutrients

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36
Q

what does increased cyclin D lead to

A

increased CDK4 and CDK6, increases CDK1/2 and Cyclins A, B, E

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37
Q

Bad is active when it is _________

A

nonpohosphorylated (AKT regulates)

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38
Q

what does MAP Kinase activate

A

AP-1 (jun and fos) and induction of myc and fos

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39
Q

what is guardian of the genome

A

p53

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40
Q

Familial adenomatous polposis is associated with

A

APC

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41
Q

Lynch syndrome is associated with which genes

A

MLH1, MSH2

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42
Q

describe cell proliferation of retinoblastoma

A

GF, Cyclin D, CDK4/CDK6, phosphorylates RB/E2F complex, E2F breaks away and enters nucleus to begin proliferation

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43
Q

DNA damage triggers an _______ in p53

A

increase

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44
Q

what does p53 stimulate

A

transcription of p21

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45
Q

what is MDM2

A

how p53 downregulates itslef

46
Q

what happens when there is a loss of APC function

A

B catenin is not degraded, leads to cell prolifersation

47
Q

how to identify autosomal recessive inheritance

A

if both parents have the disorder, all kids will have it

not seen in every genration

48
Q

what type of disease is xeropderma pigmentosum

A

auto recessive

49
Q

what are indications for auto dominant

A

two affected parents may ahve unaffected offspring

approx half of children will have disease w/ one affected parent

50
Q

huntingtons disease is an example of

A

auto dom

51
Q

X linked recessive is more commonly displayed in ______. an example

A

males; hemophilia A

52
Q

An indication for X linked dominatn. example

A

father cannot pass to sons, but all daughters are affected. congenital hypertrichosis

53
Q

how many repeats puts you at risk for huntingtons

A

40

54
Q

HOXD13 mutations lead to

A

syndactyly

55
Q

limb buds arise deep to

A

apical epidermal ridges

56
Q

limb buds grow by proliferation of

A

mesenchyme

57
Q

muscles of head, SKM, skeleton (exceot cranium), dermis and connective tissue arise from

A

praraxial mesoderm

58
Q

epidermis, hair, skin,nails arise from

A

ectoderm

59
Q

AER forms at site of

A

FGF10

60
Q

AER secrets

A

FGF8, FGF4

61
Q

WNT mutations cause

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

62
Q

what is responsible for separating webbing

A

apoptosis

63
Q

limb development occurs weeks

A

4-8

64
Q

upper limbs rotate _______, lower limbs rotate ______

A

dorsally, ventrally

65
Q

what is ectrodactyly

A

lobster claw

66
Q

another name for phocomelia

A

flapper babies

67
Q

what does NMJ include

A

motor end plate, axon terminals, synaptic cleft

68
Q

what are another name for vSNARE

A

synaptobrevin and synaptotagmin (calcium sensor)

69
Q

what is another name for mSNARE

A

syntaxin 1A, SNAP-25

70
Q

what is the difference between end plate potential and action potential

A

ligand gated vs voltage gated

71
Q

where is RYR1, RYR2, and RYR3 found

A

SKM, cardiac muscle, SKM

72
Q

what does DHPR do

A

senses voltage change

73
Q

what does troponin I do

A

inhibits the binding of myosin

74
Q

what does troponin T do

A

binds to tropomyosin

75
Q

what does troponin C do

A

binds calcium

76
Q

which potential is all or non

A

action (voltage gated)

77
Q

which potential is a graded potential

A

motor end plate (ligand gated)

78
Q

a single contraction with increasing force with each subsequent twitch

A

treppe

79
Q

hypocalcemia leads to _______

A

tetany (increases excitabiity)

80
Q

a muscle with longer length =

A

greater velo, less force

81
Q

a muscle with shorter length =

A

greater force, less velo

82
Q

a fusiform muscle has a ______ length

A

greater

83
Q

a pennate muscle has a _______ length

A

shorter

84
Q

what is the order muscle fibers are recruited

A

type 1, type 2a, type x, type 2 B

85
Q

power output =

A

force x velocity

86
Q

main causes of fatigue (4)

A
  1. CNS fatigue
  2. Anaerobic metabolites
  3. depletion of ATP/glycolysis
  4. electrolyte loss
87
Q

what are the two types of smooth muscle

A

unitary (single) or multiunit

88
Q

in smooth muscle, calcium binds to ________ to activate _________

A

calmodulin, myosin light chain kinase

89
Q

what are the sources of Calcium in smooth muscle

A
  1. ECF
  2. Ca induced Ca release
  3. second messenger release from SR
90
Q

what causes relaxation in smooth muscle

A

myosin light chain phosphatase

91
Q

does smooth muscle contain sarcomere

A

no

92
Q

Type I keratins are _______, type II keratins are _______

A

acidic, basic

93
Q

the lowest energy radiation is

A

UVA

94
Q

what is the steps p53 takes to produce melanin

A

p53, POMC, MC1R, cAMP, MITF, pigment

95
Q

what are the types of barriers of the skin

A

physical, chemical, biological

96
Q

what is the pH of the skin

A

4.7

97
Q

what is the average weight of the skin

A

3.3 kg

98
Q

what are the layers of the dermis

A

papillary and rheticular

99
Q

what kind of tissue is in the papillary layer

A

aerolar connective tissue

100
Q

what kind of barrier protects against bacterial growth and UV radiation

A

chemical

101
Q

where are the thermoreceptors for body temp

A

hypothalmus

102
Q

eccrine sweat glands function is

A

thermoregulation

103
Q

vernix caseosa contains ______

A

sebum

104
Q

melanocytes are usually found in the

A

basal layer

105
Q

the dermis develops from _________ , which is derived from

A

mesenchyme, mesoderm

106
Q

a clown patterned skin condition

A

harlequin ichthyosis

107
Q

a lack of melanin in patches of the skin

A

piebaldism

108
Q

T/F cardiac muscle does not divide

A

true

109
Q

what provides electrical connection in cardiac muscle

A

gap junctions

110
Q

increasing length of sarcomere affects

A

preload

111
Q

NE/EPI increases Ca avalibity, which leads to

A

increased contractility

112
Q

Ach leads to _______ contractility

A

decreased

BECOM FINAL (13 decks)

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