Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BECOM FINAL > Test Block 2 > Flashcards

Test Block 2 Flashcards

1
Q

secondary messenger signals are an example of what kind of signal

A

intracrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

many of the effects of calcium are mediated by

A

calmodulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does GEF do

A

exchange GDP for GTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does GAP do

A

speeds up GTP hydrolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

lipophillic hormones ______ pass through the cell membrane

A

can

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

T/F Insulin is already dimerized

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

NF-kappa B leads to

A

cell proliferation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the philadelphia chromosome

A

when part of chromosome 9 is translocated to chromosome 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

rheumatoid arthritis occurs when you present too much

A

TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is the key feature of an action potential

A

it is all or nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the speed of a signal is dependant upon

A

diameter of axon, myelination, and resistance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the two types of synapses

A

chemical and electrical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

blocks Ach release from presynaptic terminals

A

botulinus toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

competes with Ach for receptors on motor end plate

A

curare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

AchE inhibitor

A

neostigmine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

blocks reuptatke of choline into presynaptic terminal

A

hemicholinium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

examples of inhibitory signals

A

GABA and Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the net sum of inputs per unit of time

A

temporal summation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

acidosis _____ neuronal activity

A

depresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

alkalosis ______ neuronal activity

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

acidosis/alkalosis is thought to occur because of the

A

NA/H exchanger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

manages body fluid balance, temperature, and hunger

A

hypothalmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

manages respiration and urination

A

pons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

manages respiration, cardiac, visceral, and vascular

A

medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what part of the nervous system is cranial sacral

A

parasympathetics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

under sympathetic innervation only

A
  • kidneys
  • arteriolar smooth muscle
  • sweat glands
  • clotting
  • sweat glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which part of the axons are myelinated

A

preganglionic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what do alpha 1 receptors do

A

smooth muscle contraction NE>EPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what do alpha 2 receptors do

A

inhibit NE release; NE>EPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what do Beta 1 receptors do

A

heart, kidney, lipolysis EPI=NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what do beta 2 receptors

A

smooth muscle relaxation EPI»>NE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what do beta 3 recept

A

thermogenesis NE>EPI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what physiological effects might electrical stimulation of vagus nerve produce

A

brachicardia, low BP, constricts lungs, increase digestive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what do organophosphates inhibit

A

acetylcholinesterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

if you inhibit parasympathetics, what happens to heart rate

A

increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

final effect depends on

A

dose, affinity, and number of receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what happens to BP with a low dose of EPI? a high dose?

A

decrease; increase

38
Q

what enzyme does glucagon use

A

Adenyly cyclase

39
Q

what enzyme does EPI use

A

phospholipase C

40
Q

what receptor and enzyme does insulin use

A

RTK; PI-3-kinase

41
Q

what does insulin remove a phosphate on

A

glycogen phosphorylase (to inactivate), protein kinase (to inactivate), glycogen synthase (to activate)

42
Q

T/F EPI inhibits insulin, even if blood glucose is high

A

T

43
Q

hormone sensitive lipase is activated when

A

phosphorylated

44
Q

FA production is regulated by what enzyme

A

Acetyl CoA carboxylase (directly influenced by glucagon/epinephrine)

45
Q

how insulin released by beta cells

A
  1. High ATP closes K+ channels
  2. the cell depolarizes and allows entry of Ca2+
  3. Ca2+ triggers release of insulin
46
Q

where does the TCA take place

A

mito matrix

47
Q

what is the purpose of the TCA cycle

A

generate NADH or FADH2

48
Q

is NADH oxidized or reduced

A

reduced

49
Q

what is another name for coQ

A

ubiquinone

50
Q

what does rotenone, MPP+, and barbituates inhibit

A

complex I

51
Q

what does nitropropionic acid and malonate inhibit

A

complex II

52
Q

what does CN-, N3-, H2S, and CO inhibit

A

complex IV

53
Q

what does antimycin A inhibit

A

complex III

54
Q

what moves electrons from complex III to complex IV

A

cytochrome C

55
Q

what moves electrons from complex I to III

A

CoQ

56
Q

What explains the high fever experienced from an OD of asprin

A

acts as an uncoupler

57
Q

are any radicals formed from complex IV

A

no

58
Q

what is the pathway of oxygen radicals

A

O2r, H2O2, OHr

59
Q

what is the the most reactive free radical

A

OHr

60
Q

can H2O2 pass through membranes

A

yes

61
Q

what expresses NOX 2

A

neutrophils, macrophages

62
Q

what are the three major cellular reducing agents

A

NAD, NADPH, GSH

63
Q

what enzyme turns H2O2 to HoCl and OH-

A

MPO

64
Q

what is the difference of where NOX1 and NOX 2 are expressd

A

NOX 1 on cell surface, NOX 2 inside cell

65
Q

what does viagra inhibit

A

phosphodiesterase for cGMP

66
Q

which vitamins are radical scavengers

A

vitamin E

67
Q

what cofactors are critical for GSH

A

B6 and B12

68
Q

what is the transulfuration pathway

A

homocystein->cystathionine->cysteine

69
Q

what are the antioxidant enzymes in order

A

SOD, CAT, GPx (GR reverse)

70
Q

what enzyme turns H202 and H2O2 to H2O

A

Cat

71
Q

what enzyme converts GSSG to GSH

A

GR

72
Q

what enzyme converts GSH to GSSG

A

GPx

73
Q

what does one glucose yield

A

2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate

74
Q

what result does myelination have on capitance

A

decreases

75
Q

what are the major anapleurotic rxns in TCA

A
  1. pyruvate to OAA
  2. Aspartate to OAA
  3. Glutamate to alpha-ketoglutarate
  4. odd chain FA beta oxidation to succinyl CoA
  5. adenylosuccinate to fumarate
76
Q

what is vitamin B3

A

niacin NAD

77
Q

what is vitamin B2

A

riboflavin FAD

78
Q

what is vitamin B6

A

pyridoxal phosphate

79
Q

beri-beri and wernicke korsakoff is associated with what vitamin deficiency

A

B1

80
Q

pelagra is associated with what vitamin deficincy

A

B3

81
Q

hexokinase has a _____ Km. pyruvate kinase has a _____ Km

A

low; high

82
Q

what are the four fates of pyruvate

A
  1. alanine
  2. lactate
  3. acetyl coA
  4. OAA
83
Q

what does one mole of glucose yield under aerobic conditions

A 
2 atp
2 nadh (5 atp)
2 pyruvate (25 atp)
84
Q

what cofactors are used in PDC

A

TPP, lipoate, FAD, NAD+, CoA

85
Q

What happens to PDC activity when oxygen is lacking

A

it is turned off

86
Q

which AA are ketogenic

A

leucine and lysine

87
Q

How do you convert pyruvate to PEP

A

PC (B7) (addition of CO2)(ATP) and then PEPCK (uses 2 GTP)

88
Q

can OAA cross mito membrane?

A

no, it must be converted to malate

89
Q

in pyruvate carboxylase deficiency, what builds up in the blood

A

lactate

90
Q

what is the effect of alcohol DH

A

produces ample NADH, leaving few NAD and the body starts converting pyruvate to lactate (shifts away from gluconeogenesis)

91
Q

How quickly are glycogen stores depleted

A

12-24 hours

BECOM FINAL (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions