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AT Course_NE > Test 8 - Theory of Design > Flashcards

Test 8 - Theory of Design Flashcards

1
Q

4 Principles of RCL?

A
  • If two equal weights can be fired in the opposite directions at equal velocity the weapon will be recoilless
  • possible to use a counter shot of half the weight if it can be fired at twice the velocity
  • counter shot replaced by stream of very light gas
  • obturated breech is replaced by the venturi
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2
Q

3 Advantages of RCL Systems?

A
  • No Recoil
  • Low Weight
  • Man Portable (84mm)
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3
Q

3 Disadvantages of RCL Systems?

A
  • Low Velocity
  • Flash / Dust Signature
  • Large propelling charge
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4
Q

What replaces the breech obturator in RCL systems?

A
  • Venturi
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5
Q

2 + 1 Sections of FFRs?

A
  • Motor (including combustion chamber, fins and nozzle)
  • Warhead (including fuze)
  • Launcher
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6
Q

6 Components of an FFR rocket motor?

A 
C - Casing
P - Propellant
C - Combustion Chamber
F - Fins (if not spin stabilised)
I - Igniter
N - Nozzle (s)
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7
Q

6 Types of Warheads for FFRs?

A
  • Nuclear
  • HE
  • Chem (incl smoke)
  • Sub Munitions
  • Terminally Guided Munitions
  • Prac
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8
Q

4 Characteristics of FFRs?

A

C - Casing strong to withstand the pressure/temp of combustion
O - Only use boost motors
M - Made of various steels
D - De Laval nozzles normally used (convergent - Divergent)

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9
Q

What 3 factors affect the accuracy of FFRs?

A
  • Surface Cross Winds
  • Burning Rate of Propellant
  • Launcher induced Errors
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10
Q

What is the main type of propellant used in FFRs?

A

Solid Propellant

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11
Q

4 Ways to overcome thrust misalignment in FFRs?

A
  • Manufacturing to closer tolerances
  • Impart a slower rate of spin
  • Reduced rocket motor burning time
  • Addition of fins
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12
Q

What is the type of Nozzle used in FFRs and how does it work?

A
  • De Laval Nozzle

- High pressure sub sonic gas is transferred into low pressure super sonic gas.

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13
Q

Define Grenade?

A
  • Small explosive store designed for projection by hand or from a personal weapon.
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14
Q

3 Design Categories for Grenades?

A
  • Hand Thrown
  • Projected - Rifle launched/gun fired
  • Discharger - weapon/vehicle launched
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15
Q

8 Types of Payload/filling for Grenades?

A
  • HE Anti Pers
  • HEAT
  • Smk
  • Chem
  • Flash
  • Incendiary
  • Prac
  • Illum
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16
Q

5 Components of a Grenade?

A
  • Body
  • Filling
  • Frag
  • Fuze Cavity
  • Fuze
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17
Q

6 Components of a Grenade Fuze?

A 
S - Safety Pin
S - Striker / Percussion Cap
S - Spring
F - Fly off lever
D - Detonator
D - Delay Pellet
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18
Q

2 Types of HE Grenades?

A
  • Offensive (Blast)

- Defensive (Blast and Frag)

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19
Q

2 Types of Smk Grenades?

A
  • Signalling

- Screening

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20
Q

Define SAA?

A

Ammunition for weapons such as pistols, rifles and machine guns below 20mm in calibre.

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21
Q

** 4 Components / Main Parts of SAA

A
  • CC
  • Ignition System
  • Propellant Charge
  • Projectile
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22
Q

** 4 Influences/ contour factors for SAA CC?

A
  • Role of the ammo
  • Type of weapon
  • Projectile design
  • Ignition system
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23
Q

A SAA CC must HAVE THE FOLLOWING REQUIREMENTS? (4)

A

R - Resist corrosion
C - Contract to allow extraction
B - Be sufficiently expandable to provide obturation
S - Strong enough to withstand transportation and handling

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24
Q

How are large propellant charges accommodated in SAA CC’s?

A
  • Made larger than the diameter of the proj

- Necked down at the forward end

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25
Q

What ideal combination of attributes does Brass provide? (4)

A
  • Strength
  • Hardness
  • Elasticity
  • Resistance
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26
Q

How is Brass CC manufactured?

A
  • Drawn from a disc, stamped from a sheet

- Deep drawing done in several stages

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27
Q

Why is a soft mouth necessary for SAA CC? (3)

A
  • Expand as soon as pressure rises in chamber?
  • Establishes an early seal
  • Prevents gas leakage
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28
Q

Why is a hard base necessary for SAA CC? (2)

A
  • Withstand internal pressure and rearward thrust from propellant gases
  • Stresses applied by extractors
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29
Q

The projectile must be secured to the mouth of the CC to provide what? (3)

A
  • Seal against moisture
  • Prevent accidental removal
  • Retention by the CC to allow gas pressure build up.
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30
Q

6 Methods of attaching SAA Projectiles to CCs?

A 
P - Press fit
I - Indenting
S - Stabbing
C - Coning
C - Crimping
C - Canneluring
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31
Q

** 4 Types of Bases to be used in SAA?

A
  • Rimmed
  • Rimless
  • Semi-Rimmed
  • Belted
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32
Q

** Method of ignition for SAA?

A
  • Relies on a striker impinging on a cap containing sensitive composition
  • Flame passes through flash holes to ignite propellant.
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33
Q

** 3 Types of ignition used for SAA?

A

I - Integral Anvil / Berdan
S - Separate Anvil / Boxer
R - Rimfire

34
Q

Design Considerations/requirements for SAA projectiles? (5)

A
  • Target Characteristics
  • Effect required on the target
  • Maximum effective range
  • Ballistics
  • Type of weapon
35
Q

4 Design Considerations/requirements for Short Range SAA projectiles?

A
  • Fired at LV
  • Not required to maintain stability over long ranges
  • Ballistic shape is relatively unimportant
  • 9mm Parabellum, short and snub nosed
36
Q

3 Design Considerations/requirements for long Range SAA projectiles?

A
  • Long and narrow with pointed tips and long ogives to reduce nose drag
  • streamlined or boattailed bases, CoG affects flight.
  • improved stability and reduced drag retain velocity and accuracy
37
Q

What is SAA accuracy/consistency influenced by? (4)

A

L - Loading exact quantities of propellant
S - Separation of the proj from the CC at correct pressure
A - Achieving efficient obturation
C - Consistent burning of the propellant

38
Q

** What are the 4 base markings found on SAA?

A
  • Manufactures symbol
  • Year of manufacture
  • Calibre
  • Model Number
39
Q 
Colour coding of SAA projectile tips?
Black - 
Silver - 
Blue - 
Yellow - 
Red - 
Uncoloured -
A 
Black - AP
Silver - API
Blue - I
Yellow - Observing 
Red - Tracer
Uncoloured - Ball
40
Q

What are the 3 materials SAA CC are made from and their make up percentage?

A
  • Brass = 70/30 Copper/Zinc
  • Cupro Nickel = 80/20 copper/nickel alloy
  • Gilding Metal = 90/10 copper/zinc alloy
41
Q

Why are working stresses in SAA CC required to be removed? (2)

A

To Prevent:

  • Season cracking
  • Stress corrosion
42
Q

When do spin stabilised SAA projectiles become unstable in flight?

A

When their length exceeds the width by 6 calibres

43
Q

What are solid SAA projectiles made up of? (2)

A
  • Solid core

- envelope

44
Q

Different types/categories of SAA projectiles?

A
  • Solid (ball/AP) (with or without envelope)

- Filled (tracer/incdy)

45
Q

4 Methods to influence break-up of SAA?

A
  • longtudinal scoring of envelope
  • cutting off the envelope tip
  • leaving hollow section at envelope tip
  • leaving unjacketed hollow at nose of proj
46
Q

What does SRTA consist of? (4)

A
  • used in places where large safety traces not avail
  • accurate plastic projectiles at short range
  • plastic CC may be used
  • metal rims for extraction.
47
Q

** 4 methods of securing percussion primers to SAA CC?

A

P - Punch Stabbing
P - Push fit
B - Burring
R - Ringing

48
Q

Methods of countermeausre/Breaching Mines? (3)

A
  • Hand Breaching
  • Mechanical Breaching
  • Explosive Breaching
49
Q

Methods of Laying Mines: (3)

A
  • Laid by hand
  • Mechanical means
  • Scattering - vehicle, artillery, aircraft
50
Q

Groups of AT Mines? (4)

A

P - Pattern
S - Scatterable
S - Side Attack
A - Area Defence

51
Q

Categories of Anti Pers Mines? (3)

A
  • Pressure Activated/Direct Contact (blast, lower limb)
  • Omni-Directional Frag (stake mounted/bounding)
  • Directional Frag (tgt or cmd detonated (claymore))
52
Q

** Components of Mines? (5)

A
  • Warhead: He blast, Shrapnel, Shaped Charges/EFPs
  • Sensor and Fuze: Mech (press/contact, Elec (disrim)
  • Safety and Arming Unit
  • Power Source
  • Case
53
Q

What are the Operational Characteristics of Mines? (8)

A 
R - Resistance to Countermeasures
R - Remote Control (RC)
R - Recording and Marking
E - Ease of Laying
D - Delay arming
S - Self-Sterilsation
S - Self Destruct
S - Sensitivity
54
Q

Actuation weights for Mines? A/pers and AT.

A
  • A/pers - 8-50kg

- AT - 200-250kg

55
Q

Effects/Type of obstacles presented to enemy of Mines?

A
  • Disrupt
  • Turn
  • Fix
  • Block
56
Q

Characteristics of Mines? (5)

A
  • All weather, 24hr capability
  • Psychological effect
  • Contribution to the destruction of the enemy
  • CBRN resistant
  • Cost effective
57
Q

Define Mine:

A
  • An explosive or other material, normally encased.
  • designed to destroy or damage vehicles, boats or aircraft
  • designed to wound, kill or incapacitate personnel.
  • detonated by victim, time or controlled means.
58
Q

How may WP wedges are in the 155mm

WP M825A1?

59
Q

Types of Propellant + Primer for Artillery?

A
  • M232A1 Modular Artillery Charge System (MACS): Tan / Double based
  • M231 MACS - Green / Single based
  • Reducer Flash M2
  • M3A1 Green
  • M4A2 White
  • Primer Percussion M82
60
Q

Types of Projectiles for Artillery? (6)

A
  • HE M107: PD, MT, Prox
  • HE M795: PD, MT, ET, MOFA
  • SMART DM702A1: ET
  • HE XM982 Excalibur: PD, Prox
  • Illuminating M485A2:MTSQ, ET
  • WP M825A1
61
Q

What is the inservice Artillery and what is the Ordnance of it?

A

Howitzer M777A2

M776 Cannon

62
Q

** 4 Types of 81mm and 60mm Ammunition?

A
  • HE
  • Smoke WP and RP
  • Illumination VL and IR
  • Training
63
Q

4 Characteristics of a Mortar?

A
  • Smooth Bore
  • No Recoil Mechanism
  • Restricted to use at elevations above 800 mils
  • Muzzle loaded
64
Q

Types of Mortar Fire? (7)

A
  • preparation fire
  • covering fire
  • defensive fire
  • counter battery fire
  • harrassing fire
  • smoke
  • illuminating
65
Q

.50cal/12.7mm Natures? (4)

A
  • .50cal 4B1T
  • .50cal Blank F3
  • .50cal M962 SLAP-T
  • 12.7mm 1MN140/1NM173/1MN160 Lnk
66
Q

25mm Natures? (5)

A
  • 25mm APDS-T M791
  • 25mm TPDS-T M910
  • 25mm MPT-SD mk2
  • 25mm TP-T M793
  • 25mm Dummy M794
67
Q

120mm Natures? (6)

A
  • 120mm APFSDS-T KE-W A2
  • 120mm TPCSDS-T M865
  • 120mm Cannister M1028
  • 120mm HEAT-MP-T M830A1
  • 120mm TP-T M831A1
  • 120mm TPMP-T M1002
  • .50cal SLAP-T
68
Q

4 Principles of armour employment?

A
  • Mission Command
  • Combined Arms
  • Sustainment
  • Manoeuvre Space
69
Q

3 General characteristics of armour?

A
  • Shock action
  • versatility
  • adapatability
70
Q

Characteristics of AShM? (4)

A
  • Sea-skimming
  • Inertial guidance & active homing - rader/IR (heat)
  • Turbojet & Rockets
  • Long ranges: 300-550 km
71
Q

Role os SSGW / SSM? (4)

A
  • Supersede or Augment Strategic Bomber Aircraft
  • Augment Tac Bomber Aircraft
  • Augment Conventional Artillery
  • To Attack Pin Point Targets
  • To Conduct Recon
72
Q

SAGW / SAM must be? (3)

A

M - More manoeuvrable than target
F - Faster than target
C - Capable of quick reaction and launch

73
Q

6 Disadvantages of GW?

A 
R - Reliability
R - Response Time
C - Cost
M - Minimum Range
F - Flight Time
S - Support Requirements
74
Q

4 Advantages of GW?

A

W - Weight of Fire
I/A - Increased hit probability / Accuracy
R - Range
C - Ceiling

75
Q

Define GW?

A

WEAPON SYSTEM IN WHICH THE WARHEAD IS DELIVERED BY AN UNMANNED GUIDED VEHICLE.

76
Q

4 Common Components of 120mm?

A
  • CCC
  • Case Base and Seal Assembly (CBSA)
  • Electric Primer M129 or M125
  • Main Charge Propellant JA-2 or M14
77
Q

When using/handling Tank Ammo what must you use?

A

Dry Cotton gloves.

78
Q

How is Excalibur guided?

79
Q

What does CCC mean?

A

Combustible Cart Case

80
Q

PD is one type of fuze for arty what is one other?

A
  • MT
  • Prox
  • ET
  • MOFA

AT Course_NE (23 decks)

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