test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

fluid portion of the blood with dissolved solutes and plasma proteins

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

determine the blood colloid osmotic pressure which is very important in the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells

A

plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

most abundant in the makeup of blood; transport proteins

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in the makeup of blood, some transport, some are immunoglobulins (antibodies) that play a significant role in defense and immunity; alpha, beta, and gamma types

A

globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in the makeup of blood and is important for clot formation

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

“cells” of the blood (some are not actually cells); formed by hemopoiesis (AKA hematopoiesis)

A

formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

red blood cells; contain hemoglobin; do not have a nucleus; have a biconcave shape

A

erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the lifespan of erythrocytes

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the percentage of erythrocytes in whole blood; affected by: dehydration (increases hematocrit), sex (male hematocrit greater than female), blood doping (increases hematocrit), bleeding (lowers hematocrit), and altitude (eventually increased hematocrit)

A

hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

low blood oxygen level, low hemoglobin levels, and/or low red blood cell count triggers the release of EPO that stimulates erythrocyte production

A

erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

determined by antigen present on erythrocytes and antibodies present in plasma

A

blood typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what happens in blood transfusions when blood types are incompatible

A

causes agglutination and hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

clumping of RBCs

A

agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rupturing of RBCs

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

blood type that has A surface antigens on RBC and anti-B antibodies in plasma

A

type A blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

blood type that has B surface antigens on RBC and antibodies in plasma

A

type B blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

blood type that has A and B surface antigens on RBS and neither of the antibodies “universal receiver”

A

type AB blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

blood type that has neither surface antigen and anti-a and anti-b antibodies in plasma “universal donor”

A

type O blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if Rh factor is present on red blood cells what does that mean?

A

it means the blood type is + (positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

if Rh factor is not present on red blood cells what does that mean?

A

it means the bloody type is - (negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

white blood cells; important in defense and immunity; smaller and less numerous than red blood cells and have a nucleus; formed through leukopoiesis; have ameboid movements and can migrate out of blood vessels

A

leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are known collectively as what?

A

granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most abundant of white blood cells; first responders to injury of infection; high numbers in bacterial infections

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

type of granulocyte whose numbers increase in allergic reactions and parasitic infections

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

type of granulocyte that release histamine and heparin to promote inflammation

A

basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lymphocytes and monocytes are collectively known as

A

agranulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

type of agranulocyte that is very important in defense and immunity against pathogens and abnormal body cells

A

lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

type of agranulocyte that migrates out of the blood to become macrophages in tissues

A

monocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

cell fragments formed through thrombopoiesis

A

platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the lifespan of platelets

A

8 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the stages of hemostasis

A

vascular spasm (constriction of vessel), platelet plug (platelets stick to collagen fibers at injury site), coagulation (process of clot formation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

initiated by tissue damage within the vessel

A

intrinsic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

initiated by trauma outside the vessel that causes blood to escape the vessel

A

extrinsic pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is needed for proper function of clotting factors

A

vitamin k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

blood flow between the heart and lungs; sends deoxygenated blood to lungs to pick up oxygen and then returns oxygenated blood to the heart

A

pulmonary circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

blood flow between the hearth and the rest of the body cells; sends oxygenated blood to tissue cells and brings deoxygenated blood back to the heart

A

systemic circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

pacemaker of the hearth; sets the rhythm for contraction - electrical signals start here and travel tot he AV node

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

at the AV node the atria contract before the ventricles where the signal passes to the _________

A

AV bundle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the conducting system of the heart regulated by

A

the cardiac control center in medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

sodium ions (Na+) rush into the cardiac muscle through fast voltage-gated sodium ion channels

A

depolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

potassium (K+ ions leave the cardiac muscle cell through voltage-gated channels; calcium ions (Ca2+) slowly enter the muscle cell through slow voltage gated calcium ion channels

A

plateau phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

calcium ion channels close, but potassium ion channels remain open

A

repolarization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

the period of time that another action potential cannot be produced no matter how strong the stimulus is; much longer in the cardiac muscle than the skeletal muscle

A

absolute refractory period

44
Q

can tetany occur in cardiac muscle?

A

no

45
Q

how can electrical events of the heart be recorded

A

using an ECG

46
Q

electrical event in an ECG that indicate atrial depolarization

A

P wave

47
Q

electrical event in an ECG that indicates ventricular depolarization; atrial repolarization occurs within this wave as well

A

QRS complex

48
Q

electrical event in an ECG that indicates ventricular repolarization

A

T wave

49
Q

during ventricular relaxation when ventricles continue to relax and both sets of valves are closed

A

isovolumetric relaxation

50
Q

the amount of blood pumped from the lest ventricle per beat

A

stroke volume

51
Q

the amount of blood in the ventricle immediately after ventricular systole (contraction)

A

end systolic volume (ESV)

52
Q

the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of atrial systole or immediately after ventricular diastole is known as

A

end diastolic volume (EDV)

53
Q

arteries found close to the heart and can accommodate pressure peaks an valleys associated with heartbeat

A

elastic arteries

54
Q

known as distribution arteries

A

muscular arteries

55
Q

arterioles that can dilate or constrict to regulate blood flow

A

resistance vessels

56
Q

capillaries where gases, nutrients, wastes, etc. can pass between blood and cells

A

exchange vessels

57
Q

endothelial cells of capillary are close together

A

continuous capillaries

58
Q

capillaries that have pores that allow larger substances to pass trhough

A

fenestrated capillaries

59
Q

capillaries that have large gaps between cells to allow proteins and formed elements through

A

sinuoids

60
Q

connect capillaries to veins

A

venules

61
Q

reduction in blood flow that causes inadequate tissue O2 levels

A

ischemia

62
Q

resting heart rate less than 60 bpm

A

bradycardia

63
Q

resting heart rate more than 100 bpm

A

tachycardia

64
Q

uncoordinated contractions of the heart

A

fibrillation

65
Q

damage to AV node

A

AV node block

66
Q

present from birth and block or attack any invading agent; not specific for any particular antigen

A

innate immunity AKA nonspecific defense AKA non specific immunity

67
Q

first line of cellular defense

A

phagocytes

68
Q

example of a phagocyte; is the most numerous of the white blood cells and the first to respond to an injury site or inflammatory response

A

neutrophils

69
Q

example of a phagocyte; resides in issues and engulfs pathogens

A

macrophages

70
Q

responsible for immune surveillance which releases cytotoxic chemicals that destroy unwanted cells

A

natural kill t-cells

71
Q

type of white blood cell that destroys parasites

A

eosinophils

72
Q

a type of cytokine that is released from virus-infected cells-stimulate healthy cells to produce anti-viral proteins to inhibit viral replication and division`

A

interferons

73
Q

assist antibodies in destroying pathogens; integrates innate and adaptive immune responses

A

complement system

74
Q

occurs in vascularized tissue to limit the spread of injury or infection

A

inflammation

75
Q

beneficial phenomenon that raises body temperature to stimulate cell repair and fight infection

A

fever

76
Q

specific immunity - develops after birth in response to exposure to antigens

A

adaptive immunity

77
Q

primarily combats virally infected cells, transplants, and cancer cells

A

T lymphocytes

78
Q

primarily combats bacterial infections through antibodies

A

B lymphocytes

79
Q

ability of antibodies and complements to enhance phagocytosis

A

opsonization

80
Q

requires exposure to the antigen

A

active immunity

81
Q

receiving antibodies against an antigen from another source

A

passive immunity

82
Q

the first time a person is exposed to a pathogen

A

primary response

83
Q

the second time a person is exposed to the same antigen

A

secondary response

84
Q

lymphocytes fail to recognize normal, self antigens an attack body tissues

A

autoimmune

85
Q

the amount of blood ejected by the ventricle per minute

A

cardiac output

86
Q

how to calculate cardiac output

A

CO = HR * SV

87
Q

bulk flow of liquid out of the blood into the interstitial fluid; occurs on the arterial end of the capillary

A

filtration

88
Q

bulk flow of fluid back into the blood from interstitial fluid; occurs on venous end of capillary

A

reabsoroption

89
Q

force exerted by blood on the wall of the capillary; promotes filtration (forces fluid out of the capillary); highest on the arterial end of the capillary, lowest on venous end; large influence on net hydrostatic pressure

A

blood hydrostatic pressure

90
Q

force exerted by fluid in interstitial space; opposes filtration

A

interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure

91
Q

excessive accumulation of interstitial fluid

A

edema

92
Q

force per unit area of blood against vessel wall

A

blood pressure

93
Q

what is blood pressure affected by?

A

cardiac output, cardiac rate, vasocontriciton

94
Q

how to measure arterial blood pressure

A

cardiac output * total peripheral resistance

95
Q

blood pressure is ______ in the arteries and the _______ in the veins

A

highest, lowest

96
Q

how to measure pulse pressure

A

systolic pressure - diastolic pressure

97
Q

how to measure mean arterial pressure

A

diastolic pressure +1/3 pulse pressure

98
Q

which type of hypertension do most people have

A

essential hypertension

99
Q

what type of hypertension is a symptom of another disease

A

secondary hypertension

100
Q

circulatory shock from low blood volume due to injury, burn, or dehydration

A

hypovolemic

101
Q

circulatory shock from low blood pressure resulting from infection

A

septic

102
Q

circulatory shock from myocardial infarction

A

cardiogenic

103
Q

circulatory shock from severe allergic reaction

A

anaphylactic

104
Q

circulatory shock from loss of sympathetic activity from spinal cord injury

A

neurogenic

105
Q

cardiac output is too low to maintain blood flow to tissues

A

congestive heart failure