test 4 Flashcards

1
Q

fluid portion of the blood with dissolved solutes and plasma proteins

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

determine the blood colloid osmotic pressure which is very important in the exchange of nutrients and wastes between the blood and tissue cells

A

plasma proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

most abundant in the makeup of blood; transport proteins

A

albumin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

in the makeup of blood, some transport, some are immunoglobulins (antibodies) that play a significant role in defense and immunity; alpha, beta, and gamma types

A

globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in the makeup of blood and is important for clot formation

A

fibrinogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

“cells” of the blood (some are not actually cells); formed by hemopoiesis (AKA hematopoiesis)

A

formed elements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

red blood cells; contain hemoglobin; do not have a nucleus; have a biconcave shape

A

erythrocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the lifespan of erythrocytes

A

120 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

the percentage of erythrocytes in whole blood; affected by: dehydration (increases hematocrit), sex (male hematocrit greater than female), blood doping (increases hematocrit), bleeding (lowers hematocrit), and altitude (eventually increased hematocrit)

A

hematocrit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

low blood oxygen level, low hemoglobin levels, and/or low red blood cell count triggers the release of EPO that stimulates erythrocyte production

A

erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

determined by antigen present on erythrocytes and antibodies present in plasma

A

blood typing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what happens in blood transfusions when blood types are incompatible

A

causes agglutination and hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

clumping of RBCs

A

agglutination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

rupturing of RBCs

A

hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

blood type that has A surface antigens on RBC and anti-B antibodies in plasma

A

type A blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

blood type that has B surface antigens on RBC and antibodies in plasma

A

type B blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

blood type that has A and B surface antigens on RBS and neither of the antibodies “universal receiver”

A

type AB blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

blood type that has neither surface antigen and anti-a and anti-b antibodies in plasma “universal donor”

A

type O blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

if Rh factor is present on red blood cells what does that mean?

A

it means the blood type is + (positive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

if Rh factor is not present on red blood cells what does that mean?

A

it means the bloody type is - (negative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

white blood cells; important in defense and immunity; smaller and less numerous than red blood cells and have a nucleus; formed through leukopoiesis; have ameboid movements and can migrate out of blood vessels

A

leukocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are known collectively as what?

A

granulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

most abundant of white blood cells; first responders to injury of infection; high numbers in bacterial infections

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

type of granulocyte whose numbers increase in allergic reactions and parasitic infections

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
type of granulocyte that release histamine and heparin to promote inflammation
basophils
26
lymphocytes and monocytes are collectively known as
agranulocytes
27
type of agranulocyte that is very important in defense and immunity against pathogens and abnormal body cells
lymphocytes
28
type of agranulocyte that migrates out of the blood to become macrophages in tissues
monocytes
29
cell fragments formed through thrombopoiesis
platelets
30
what is the lifespan of platelets
8 days
31
what are the stages of hemostasis
vascular spasm (constriction of vessel), platelet plug (platelets stick to collagen fibers at injury site), coagulation (process of clot formation)
32
initiated by tissue damage within the vessel
intrinsic pathway
33
initiated by trauma outside the vessel that causes blood to escape the vessel
extrinsic pathway
34
what is needed for proper function of clotting factors
vitamin k
35
blood flow between the heart and lungs; sends deoxygenated blood to lungs to pick up oxygen and then returns oxygenated blood to the heart
pulmonary circuit
36
blood flow between the hearth and the rest of the body cells; sends oxygenated blood to tissue cells and brings deoxygenated blood back to the heart
systemic circuit
37
pacemaker of the hearth; sets the rhythm for contraction - electrical signals start here and travel tot he AV node
SA node
38
at the AV node the atria contract before the ventricles where the signal passes to the _________
AV bundle
39
what is the conducting system of the heart regulated by
the cardiac control center in medulla oblongata
40
sodium ions (Na+) rush into the cardiac muscle through fast voltage-gated sodium ion channels
depolarization
41
potassium (K+ ions leave the cardiac muscle cell through voltage-gated channels; calcium ions (Ca2+) slowly enter the muscle cell through slow voltage gated calcium ion channels
plateau phase
42
calcium ion channels close, but potassium ion channels remain open
repolarization
43
the period of time that another action potential cannot be produced no matter how strong the stimulus is; much longer in the cardiac muscle than the skeletal muscle
absolute refractory period
44
can tetany occur in cardiac muscle?
no
45
how can electrical events of the heart be recorded
using an ECG
46
electrical event in an ECG that indicate atrial depolarization
P wave
47
electrical event in an ECG that indicates ventricular depolarization; atrial repolarization occurs within this wave as well
QRS complex
48
electrical event in an ECG that indicates ventricular repolarization
T wave
49
during ventricular relaxation when ventricles continue to relax and both sets of valves are closed
isovolumetric relaxation
50
the amount of blood pumped from the lest ventricle per beat
stroke volume
51
the amount of blood in the ventricle immediately after ventricular systole (contraction)
end systolic volume (ESV)
52
the amount of blood in the ventricles at the end of atrial systole or immediately after ventricular diastole is known as
end diastolic volume (EDV)
53
arteries found close to the heart and can accommodate pressure peaks an valleys associated with heartbeat
elastic arteries
54
known as distribution arteries
muscular arteries
55
arterioles that can dilate or constrict to regulate blood flow
resistance vessels
56
capillaries where gases, nutrients, wastes, etc. can pass between blood and cells
exchange vessels
57
endothelial cells of capillary are close together
continuous capillaries
58
capillaries that have pores that allow larger substances to pass trhough
fenestrated capillaries
59
capillaries that have large gaps between cells to allow proteins and formed elements through
sinuoids
60
connect capillaries to veins
venules
61
reduction in blood flow that causes inadequate tissue O2 levels
ischemia
62
resting heart rate less than 60 bpm
bradycardia
63
resting heart rate more than 100 bpm
tachycardia
64
uncoordinated contractions of the heart
fibrillation
65
damage to AV node
AV node block
66
present from birth and block or attack any invading agent; not specific for any particular antigen
innate immunity AKA nonspecific defense AKA non specific immunity
67
first line of cellular defense
phagocytes
68
example of a phagocyte; is the most numerous of the white blood cells and the first to respond to an injury site or inflammatory response
neutrophils
69
example of a phagocyte; resides in issues and engulfs pathogens
macrophages
70
responsible for immune surveillance which releases cytotoxic chemicals that destroy unwanted cells
natural kill t-cells
71
type of white blood cell that destroys parasites
eosinophils
72
a type of cytokine that is released from virus-infected cells-stimulate healthy cells to produce anti-viral proteins to inhibit viral replication and division`
interferons
73
assist antibodies in destroying pathogens; integrates innate and adaptive immune responses
complement system
74
occurs in vascularized tissue to limit the spread of injury or infection
inflammation
75
beneficial phenomenon that raises body temperature to stimulate cell repair and fight infection
fever
76
specific immunity - develops after birth in response to exposure to antigens
adaptive immunity
77
primarily combats virally infected cells, transplants, and cancer cells
T lymphocytes
78
primarily combats bacterial infections through antibodies
B lymphocytes
79
ability of antibodies and complements to enhance phagocytosis
opsonization
80
requires exposure to the antigen
active immunity
81
receiving antibodies against an antigen from another source
passive immunity
82
the first time a person is exposed to a pathogen
primary response
83
the second time a person is exposed to the same antigen
secondary response
84
lymphocytes fail to recognize normal, self antigens an attack body tissues
autoimmune
85
the amount of blood ejected by the ventricle per minute
cardiac output
86
how to calculate cardiac output
CO = HR * SV
87
bulk flow of liquid out of the blood into the interstitial fluid; occurs on the arterial end of the capillary
filtration
88
bulk flow of fluid back into the blood from interstitial fluid; occurs on venous end of capillary
reabsoroption
89
force exerted by blood on the wall of the capillary; promotes filtration (forces fluid out of the capillary); highest on the arterial end of the capillary, lowest on venous end; large influence on net hydrostatic pressure
blood hydrostatic pressure
90
force exerted by fluid in interstitial space; opposes filtration
interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure
91
excessive accumulation of interstitial fluid
edema
92
force per unit area of blood against vessel wall
blood pressure
93
what is blood pressure affected by?
cardiac output, cardiac rate, vasocontriciton
94
how to measure arterial blood pressure
cardiac output * total peripheral resistance
95
blood pressure is ______ in the arteries and the _______ in the veins
highest, lowest
96
how to measure pulse pressure
systolic pressure - diastolic pressure
97
how to measure mean arterial pressure
diastolic pressure +1/3 pulse pressure
98
which type of hypertension do most people have
essential hypertension
99
what type of hypertension is a symptom of another disease
secondary hypertension
100
circulatory shock from low blood volume due to injury, burn, or dehydration
hypovolemic
101
circulatory shock from low blood pressure resulting from infection
septic
102
circulatory shock from myocardial infarction
cardiogenic
103
circulatory shock from severe allergic reaction
anaphylactic
104
circulatory shock from loss of sympathetic activity from spinal cord injury
neurogenic
105
cardiac output is too low to maintain blood flow to tissues
congestive heart failure