Tactical SOP Flashcards

1
Q

The term indicating a search has been completed and no victims have been located:

A

All Clear

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2
Q

Indicates that a unit has arrived at a location that is NOT an emergency scene:

A

Arrival

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3
Q

A pre-determined response arrangement between agencies:

A

Automatic Aid

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4
Q

Indicates that a unit is able to respond to an incident:

A

Available

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5
Q

A pre-printed passport that is a different color and construction than the primary passport:

A

Back-Up Passport

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6
Q

A remote resource pool of units at a designated location:

A

Base

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7
Q

The ____ at a high rise incident resembles a ground level staging area early in the incident:

A

Base

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8
Q

Chief Officer responsible for a given geographical area:

A

Battalion Chief (B/C)

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9
Q

BNICE:

A
Biological
Nuclear
Incendiary
Chemical, or
Explosive
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10
Q

A unit which is capable of traversing rough terrain and carries its own water supply:

A

Brush

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11
Q

A situational report consisting of the current Conditions, Actions, and Needs of the incident:

A

C.A.N. Report

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12
Q

Pre-determined location at which patients are collected, triaged, and provided with initial medical care:

A

CCP

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13
Q

Use of common terminology understandable by all:

A

Clear Text

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14
Q

On the quiet response with no emergency lights and/or sirens:

A

Code 1

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15
Q

Emergency response utilizing emergency lights and sirens:

A

Code 3

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16
Q

The area outside the warm zone where there exists no hazards to victims or other personnel and where vehicle staging and treatment areas are located:

A

Cold Zone

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17
Q

Any piece of equipment having a full complement of personnel:

A

Company

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18
Q

Firefighters from more than one company operating in a specific GEOGRAPHIC AREA under the direction of a division supervisor:

A

Division

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19
Q

Emergency Breathing Support System. A ___ foot long Buddy Breathing hose stored on the LEFT side of the waist belt of the SCBA:

A

EBSS, 3

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20
Q

On any “Working Fire” the dispatcher will transmit an ______ notification:

A

elapsed time notification

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21
Q

Elapsed Time Notifications will be done every ____ minutes with the time starting at the call received time:

A

10

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22
Q

Firefighters from more than one company assigned to perform a specific task, but not necessarily in a specific location under the direction of a group supervisor:

A

Group

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23
Q

Consists of E-2, R-2, and HM-2:

A

Haz-Mat Assignment

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24
Q

The area immediately surrounding an incident that extends far enough to prevent the adverse effects form fire, hazardous materials release, or other dangers to personnel outside this zone:

A

Hot Zone

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25
Q

The location at which the primary command functions are executed:

A

Incident Command Post (ICP)

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26
Q

Two members who remain outside the hazard area during the initial stages of an incident:

A

IRIC

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27
Q

The ISO if part of ____ staff and reports directly to the IC.

A

command

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28
Q

The assigned function performed at a motor vehicle crash to determine the number & condition of patients, any hazards in the in the vicinity of the vehicle, stability of the vehicle, if extrication is needed, status of airbags, and if it’s a hybrid:

A

Inner Circle Survey

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29
Q

Any roadway which has restricted or limited points of entry and exit:

A

Limited Access Highway

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30
Q

The term which indicates that damage caused by fire and the efforts of firefighting including salvage and overhaul have stopped:

A

Loss Stopped

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31
Q

The level of Accountability which begins at the START of each day with the placement PATs on the UIP of the apparatus to which they are assigned:

A

Level I

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32
Q

The level of Accountability when multiple companies are operating in a hazardous area simultaneously:

A

Level II

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33
Q

The level of Accountability which will be implemented at hazardous material incidents, hight-rise fires, below grade rescue ops, and large or complex emergency incidents where LARGE NUMBERS OF PERSONNEL are operating with SCBA in a hazardous environment:

A

Level III

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34
Q

Assistance rendered or given between agencies through a legal reciprocal agreement:

A

Mutual Aid

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35
Q

Indicates that a unit has arrived at an EMERGENCY scene:

A

On Scene

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36
Q

A point of entry accountability system of helmet shields, name tags, passports, and status boards to account for companies and individual team members:

A

PASSPORT Accountability System (PAS)

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37
Q

There are two different types of passports distinguished by ____ and/or _____.

A

color , construction

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38
Q

Damage to property by the products of combustion:

A

Primary Fire Damage

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39
Q

A RIC shall be a minimum of ____ members, adequately dressed with appropriate tools and equipment:

A

3

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40
Q

Damage caused by rescue, firefighting, salvage and overhaul, and/or other property conservation activities:

A

Secondary Fire Damage

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41
Q

The secondary search shall be conducted by a different group of firefighters.

A

True

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42
Q

A non-emergency call requiring a suppression unit for power lines down, elevator rescue, public assist, wash down, etc:

A

Service Call

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43
Q

A size-up includes a 360 of the incident.

A

True

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44
Q

A 13 point size-up includes: COAL WAS WEALTH:

A
C - Construction
O - Occupancy
A - Apparatus & Personnel
L - Life Hazard
W - Water Supply
A - Auxiliary appliances
S - Street conditions
W - Weather
E - Exposures
A - Area
L - Location & extent of fire
T - Time of day
H - Height
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45
Q

The Span of Control is typically ___ to ___ individuals or companies, with ___ being the optimum.

A

3 to 7 , 5

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46
Q

This unit also responds to technical rescue incidents that require specific and advanced training and specialized tools and equipment:

A

Squad

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47
Q

In high-rise fires, staging is the area generally located ____ floors below the fire floor.

A

2

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48
Q

A group of the SAME KIND and TYPE OF RESOURCES working as a team:

A

Strike Team

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49
Q

The Talk Permit Tone is available only on the portable radios.

A

True

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50
Q

A combination of resources working together assembled for a specific assignment:

A

Task Force

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51
Q

The term which indicates that CONSIDERABLE progress has been made at extinguishing the fire:

A

Under Control

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52
Q

Call ID for portable radios are assigned to the individual positions on the apparatus excluding the ____ position.

A

officer

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53
Q

Where no immediate hazards are present and where medical and tool staging can be established:

A

Warm Zone

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54
Q

____ Command is an expansion of the incident command function primarily designed to manage a very large incident that has multiple incident management teams assigned.

A

Area

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55
Q

The organizational level having functional, geographical, or jurisdictional responsibility for major parts of the incident operations:

A

Branch

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56
Q

The Branch level is organizationally between _____ and _____ in the Operations Section.

A

Section [BRANCH] Division/Group

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57
Q

The act of directing, ordering, and/or controlling resources by virtue of explicit legal, agency, or delegated authority:

A

Command

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58
Q

The ____ Staff consists of the PIO, Safety Officer, and Liaison Officer who report directly to the IC.

A

Command

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59
Q

That organization level having responsibility for operations within a defined GEOGRAPHIC area:

A

Division

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60
Q

The Division Level is organizationally between the _____ and the _____.

A

Strike Team [DIVISION] Branch

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61
Q

The group of incident management personnel comprised of the Operations Section Chief, Planning Section Chief, Logistics Section Chief, and Finance/Administration Section Chief:

A

General Staff

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62
Q

Groups are located between _____ and _____ in the Operations Section.

A

Branches [GROUPS] Resources

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63
Q

S.M.A.R.T. objectives:

A
S - Specific
M - Measurable
A - Attainable
R - Results oriented
T - Timely
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64
Q

The combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications operating within a common organizational structure:

A

ICS

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65
Q

The organization level having functional responsibility for primary segments of incident management:

A

Section

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66
Q

The Sections level is organizationally between Branch and Incident Commander.

A

True

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67
Q

A set number of resources of the SAME KIND and type, which have an established minimum number of personnel:

A

Strike Team

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68
Q

Deploying and directing resources on an incident to accomplish the objectives designated by a current incident strategy:

A

Tactics

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69
Q

The ICS is used to facilitate the completion of the incident objectives.

A

True

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70
Q

Incident Priorities are as follows:

A
  • Life Safety
  • Incident Stabilization
  • Property Conservation
  • Safety
  • Environmental
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71
Q

Large scale and complex incidents =

A

large command organization

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72
Q

Small scale and “simple” incidents =

A

small command organization

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73
Q

The basic configuration of command includes three levels:

A
  • Strategic level
  • Tactical level
  • Task level
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74
Q

The _____ level involves the overall command of the incident.

A

strategic

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75
Q

The ____ is responsible for the strategic level of the command structure.

A

IC

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76
Q

The ____ level directs activities toward specific objectives.

A

tactical

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77
Q

The accumulated achievements of tactical objectives should accomplish the strategic level goals.

A

True

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78
Q

The ____ level refers to those activities normally accomplished by single resources.

A

task

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79
Q

The ____ level is where the WORK is actually done.

A

task

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80
Q

The basic structure for a routine incident, involving a small number of companies, requires only ___ levels of the command structure.

A

2

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81
Q

Functions of COMMAND: First five must be addressed immediately from the initial establishment of command:

A
  • Establish and announce command
  • Establish an effective operating position (Command Post)
  • Rapidly evaluate the situation (Size-up)
  • Initiate, maintain, and control the communication process.
  • Identify the overall strategy, develop an IAP, and assign companies and personnel.
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82
Q

The _____ mode is used by initial arriving resource while resources stand by.

A

investigative

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83
Q

The _____ level involves the overall command of the incident.

A

strategic

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84
Q

The ____ is responsible for the strategic level of the command structure.

A

IC

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85
Q

The ____ level directs activities toward specific objectives.

A

tactical

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86
Q

At least ____ employees are located outside the IDLH atmosphere.

A

2

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87
Q

The ____ level refers to those activities normally accomplished by single resources.

A

task

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88
Q

The ____ level is where the WORK is actually done.

A

task

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89
Q

The basic structure for a routine incident, involving a small number of companies, requires only ___ levels of the command structure.

A

2

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90
Q

Individuals, Company Officers, Divisions/Group Supervisors, and Branch Directors will only communicate with ____ when taking arrivals and/or making emergency radio transmissions.

A

Dispatch

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91
Q

____ mode is used during situations that require immediate action, the company officer’s assistance and direct involvement in the attack.

A

Fast Attack

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92
Q

When Command takes the fast attack mode, the second officer arriving on scene will make radio contact with command for the purpose of transferring Command.

A

True

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93
Q

At least ___ employees enter the IDLH atmosphere and remain in visual and voice contact with one another at all times.

A

2

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94
Q

At least ____ employees are located outside the IDLH atmosphere.

A

2

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95
Q

_____ is the preferred method to transfer Command and should be applied to Chief to Chief transfers of command.

A

Face to face

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96
Q

The _____ mode is designed to allow a first-in Company Officer the flexibility to assist the crew during firefighting operations.

A

fast attack

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97
Q

As an incident escalates to major operations, the command post will be at the ______ vehicle if possible.

A

B/C

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98
Q

Individuals, Company Officers, Divisions/Group Supervisors, and Branch Directors will only communicate with ____ when taking arrivals and/or making emergency radio transmissions.

A

Dispatch

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99
Q

Initial Radio Report: Offensive attack is ____, but defensive strategy must be declared

A

assumed

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100
Q

For a single company fire response, or an EMS response not involving multiple companies or a Chief Officer, formal declaration of command is NOT necessary.

A

True

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101
Q

Dispatch will automatically give Command the incident time every ___ minutes.

A

10

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102
Q

To transfer Command, the Officer assuming Command will communicate with the person being relieved by ___ or ___ to ___.

A

radio, face to face

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103
Q

_____ is the preferred method to transfer Command and should be applied to Chief to Chief transfers of command.

A

Face to face

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104
Q

The transfer of command must be transferred on the radio, and the person assuming command must confirm it.

A

True

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105
Q

All personnel will be responsible for utilizing risk management principles in both ____ and _____ situations.

A

emergency, non-emergency

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106
Q

The concept of risk management for Fire Rescue will be utilized on the basis of the following principles:

A
  • We will risk our lives to save savable lives.
  • We wil risk our lives a little and in a calculated manner to save savable property.
  • We will NOT risk our lives al all to save lives and property that have already been lost.
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107
Q

At significant incidents, the IC will assign an ______.

A

ISO

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108
Q

The ______ System will be the standard system of accountability to identify individual members of a company and their assignment.

A

Passport Accountability

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109
Q

Company members must always be in contact with each other by _____ (not radio), ____, or ____.

A

voice, vision, touch

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110
Q

At the beginning of a shift and at all personnel changes during a shift, officers and firefighters are responsible for maintaining:

A
  • The correct company helmet shield
  • Their name tags on the passports
  • Name tags for all positions will be upright. I/C will adjust the tags for those operating away from their company
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111
Q

_____ will check accountability hardware daily as part of apparatus inventory check.

A

D/E

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112
Q

The _____ passport is kept under the brim of the officer’s helmet.

A

primary

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113
Q

The _____ passport is kept on the dashboard of the apparatus.

A

back-up

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114
Q

The remaining name tags will be kept under the brim of the _____ helmet.

A

member’s

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115
Q

The IC will conduct an emergency incident Roll Call using the PAS when:

A
  • A firefighter or company is presumed to be or has been reported as missing.
  • A significant incident event occurs
  • The mode changes from offensive to defensive
  • The IC determines a need
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116
Q

Temporary two-person RIC team assigned at the outset of an incident to allow teams to enter an IDLH condition:

A

IRIC

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117
Q

One IRIC member must be solely dedicated to tracking interior personnel. This position requires the following:

A
  • charged hose line
  • radio
  • PPE
  • SCBA
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118
Q

RIC Equipment:

A
  • RIC Pak
  • Irons
  • Hand light(s)
  • Thermal Imager
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119
Q

Standard exceptions to the IRIC Requirement at Structure Fires:

A
  • When there is a life hazard where immediate action could prevent the loss of life.
  • When the fire is in an incipient stage that could be controlled by a portable fire extinguisher.
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120
Q

After equipment has been staged, the RIC should perform a ____ of the building to get a general layout of the structure.

A

360

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121
Q

RICs will be formed with at lest ____ members.

A

3

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122
Q

At MINIMUM the RIC will take in:

A
  • Irons
  • RIC-Pak
  • Stream lights
  • TIC
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123
Q

The IC is the only one that can clear the “Emergency Traffic” mode.

A

True

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124
Q

The IC shall advise Dispatch to contact the Fire Marshall under the following circumstances:

A
  • Any fire related death or serious burn injury (potentially lethal)
  • Any explosion or deflagration that causes damage
  • Any circumstance that would require the Fire Marshal’s immediate knowledge
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125
Q

Vehicle Fires: If a cause cannot be determined during NORMAL BUSINESS HOURS, the company officer will request the response of an Investigator through _____.

A

Dispatch

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126
Q

Vehicle Fires: If a cause cannot be determined AFTER NORMAL BUSINESS HOURS, weekends, or holidays the _____ will be notified prior to the end of the shift so the Fire Marshal can be notified in a timely manner.

A

B/C

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127
Q

The IC or BC may elect to contact the On-Call Investigator by telephone.

A

True

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128
Q

At incidents where a formal ISO has not been assigned, the ____ will assume the duties of the ISO.

A

IC

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129
Q

The ISO can recommend incidents for PIA.

A

True

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130
Q

Members will operate in teams of at least ___ when utilizing SCBA.

A

2

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131
Q

D/E may elect to respond in station uniform, but will don appropriate gear as soon as possible.

A

True

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132
Q

Where visible by-products of fire are evident on protective clothing, gross devon with ____ and ____ will be performed, prior to leaving the scene.

A

water, Versitol

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133
Q

Automobile Crash PPE will be:

A
Bunker Coat
Bunker Pants
Boots
Hood
Helmet
Gloves (medical gloves)
SAFETY VEST
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134
Q

Drivers of Fire Rescue apparatus and vehicles shall not move the apparatus or vehicle until all persons on the vehicle are ________.

A

secured with seat belts

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135
Q

Exceptions to moving vehicles without wearing seat belts:

A
  • When EMS procedures need to be performed and being secured with a seat belt would prevent caring for the patient.
  • During hose-loading procedures as described in this guideline.
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136
Q

Drivers of Fire Rescue vehicles will bring their vehicle to a full and complete stop for the following:

A
  • When directed by law enforcement
  • Red traffic lights
  • Stop signs
  • Negative right-of-way situations
  • Blind intersections
  • When the driver cannot account for all lanes at intersection
  • School bus with flashing red warning lights
  • Unguarded railroad crossings
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137
Q

During emergency response the maximum apparatus speed will be no more than ____ MPH over the posted speed limit - conditions permitting.

A

10

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138
Q

The ______ will confirm that all personnel are seated and secured.

A

company officer

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139
Q

In cases where the driver is the only person assigned to a vehicle, a ____ walk around will be conducted prior to backing.

A

360 degree

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140
Q

Backing will be done ONLY as a last resort.

A

True

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141
Q

The _____ will act as a spotter while the apparatus EXITS or ENTERS the fire station.

A

company officer

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142
Q

Hose-loading Procedures: The apparatus can only be driven forward and at no greater than ___ MPH.

A

5

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143
Q

If personnel are working in roadways, the apparatus will be placed between the _____ and the scene.

A

oncoming traffic

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144
Q

All incidents on I-95 will have a minimum response of:

A

1 Engine OR 1 Ladder OR 1 Squad and 1 Rescue

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145
Q

The requirements for medical response are based on _______.

A

Emergency Medical Dispatch

146
Q

MCI’s are not ______ as in a structure fire.

A

progressive responses

147
Q

If normal Haz-Mat response units are not available, the _____ and/or ____ will be dispatched to fill the assignment.

A

SQD-4, R-4

148
Q

A _____ is a request for the dispatch of any combination of additional unit types, unit capabilities or specific units.

A

Special Call

149
Q

Alarm Assignments: Residential Structure Fire:

A

2E, 1L, 1SQD, 2R, 1DC, 1EMS, HM-2

150
Q

Alarm Assignments: Commercial Fire:

A

3E, 2L, 1SQD, 2R, 1DC, 1EMS, HM-2

151
Q

Alarm Assignments: High Rise Fire:

A

3E, 2L, 1SQD, 2R, 1DC, 1EMS, HM-2

152
Q

Alarm Assignments: Additional alarms for structure fires will equal the 2nd alarm response.

A

True

153
Q

Alarm Assignments: Boat Fire:

A

Commercial Fire Alarm Assignment

154
Q

Calls for Fire Rescue usually originate from the City of West Palm Beach ______ as they are the Primary Public Safety Access Point (PSAP)

A

Police Department

155
Q

Incidents will also be simulcast on TAC ___.

A

6A

156
Q

Units are to announce when they are “In Quarters” on ______.

A

Fire Main

157
Q

Stations 7 and 8 will operate on TAC channel ___.

A

3

158
Q

All Communications at emergency incidents will be conducted using _____ communication.

A

two-way

159
Q

Standard practice will be to use the English language in “_____” for all radio communications.

A

clear text

160
Q

Assignments should indicate an objective to the action.

A

True

161
Q

Only the ___ can release companies from an incident.

A

IC

162
Q

The first progress report should be given after initial ____ has been implemented.

A

action

163
Q

Dispatch will contact units for status checks in the following situations:

A
  • The unit fails to go “en-route” within two minutes
  • Extended on-scene times
  • After 12 minutes following arrival at a hospital
164
Q

When making a request for Law Enforcement use ______, not a code or signal.

A

Plain English

165
Q

If it is not possible for a crew member to remove themselves from the area briefly or if time is of the essence, then a Code -12 or a 10-24 may be transmitted to the Fire Dispatch.

A

True

166
Q

Apparatus _____ should regulate placement.

A

function

167
Q

Apparatus should generally be positioned at least ____ feet away from involved buildings, even with nothing showing.

A

30

168
Q

If apparatus does become endangered, operate hose lines between it and the fire while you reposition it.

A

True

169
Q

The B/C may elect not to take command, but is still responsible for the incident by virtue of rank.

A

True

170
Q

The _____ and the _____ may respond directly to the Command Post.

A

Fire Chief, Assistant Chief of Ops

171
Q

The _____ officer will advise Command of staff personnel available for assignment.

A

Staging/Base

172
Q

The ______ is still responsible for Command functions until properly transferred.

A

first arriving Company

173
Q

In Commercial Structure Fires the RIC will Assist Ventilation on side ____

A

A

174
Q

In Commercial Structure Fires Outside Truck will report to side ____.

A

C

175
Q

In Commercial Structure Fires, Fire Attack will consider a _____ attack line.

A

2 1/2”

176
Q

Estimating Required Fire Flow:

A

Square Footage divided by 3 = Necessary GPM

177
Q

Companies operating in the interior of structures will relay routine progress reports preferably at intervals of ____ minutes.

A

10

178
Q

Consider the use of ______ Devices to direct fire control efforts.

A

Thermal Imaging

179
Q

Fire Attack - Defensive: Place first stream on _________.

A

most threatened exposures

180
Q

If the mode has changed from offensive to defensive during the incident, a _____ will be held prior to ordering exterior streams into operation.

A

Roll Call

181
Q

Control of ______ is the key to successful PPV.

A

exit openings

182
Q

The following are essential considerations for use of PPV:

A
  • Life Safety - Will PPV adversely affect the occupants, firefighters or rescuers
  • Where is the fire located?
  • Where is the inlet opening? (Align with the wind)
  • Where is the exhaust opening? Should be leeward side
  • What is the smoke and heat path to opening?
  • Will it push the fire into unburned space?
  • Is the fire burning in a concealed space?
183
Q

Inlet and exhaust openings must be remote from each other to prevent ______.

A

churning

184
Q

To vent for life:

A

Take all glass and open all doors

185
Q

To vent for fire:

A

Locate fire room and coordinate with fire attack to remove glass as they extinguish

186
Q

For Vertical Ventilation, ____ methods of egress are preferred.

A

two

187
Q

For Horizontal Ventilation, consider ____ ventilation.

A

natural

188
Q

The following benchmarks will be broadcast to Dispatch for structure fires:

A
  • All Clear
  • Under control
  • Loss Stopped
189
Q

Garden Apartment: if the fire is contained within a single unit, hoist hose _______.

A

directly to the fire floor

190
Q

Advancing a charged hose line up stairs requires ___ companies (six firefighters)

A

two

191
Q

Secondary searches are not complete until all floors/areas have been monitored for ______.

A

carbon monoxide

192
Q

The operational plan for a High-Rise Fire should consist of five basic points:

A
  • Determine the fire floor
  • Verify the fire floor
  • Control the occupants
  • Control the building systems
  • Confie and extinguish the fire
193
Q

High-Rise Fire: Search & Evacuation priorities:

A
  • Fire floor
  • Floor(s) above the fire
  • Floor(s) below the fire
  • Shelter in place if applicable
194
Q

High-Rise Fire staging area is ___ floors below the fire if possible.

A

2

195
Q

When the size-up indicates the possibility of a fire in a high-rise, Command will:

A

B.C.S.

  • Request a SECOND alarm
  • Identify a BASE Location
  • Maintain a COMMAND position
196
Q

Fire Attack in a High-Rise Structure should form a ____ person attack group with the next arriving engine and rescue prior to ascending to the fire floor.

A

6

197
Q

High Rise Fire: Unless otherwise directed by Command, units will report to the _____ Area.

A

Base

198
Q

Elevators: _____ is when the system has been activated to recall the elevators to the lobby level.

A

Phase 1

199
Q

Elevators: If a smoke detector has activated on the lobby level, the car(s) will stop at an alternate floor.

A

True

200
Q

_____ is when the fire department has taken possession and operates the elevator.

A

Phase 2

201
Q

Elevators: Once the fire service key switch is turned “ON”, the key may be ______.

A

removed

202
Q

Elevators: If the fire is believed to be on the 7th floor or below, elevators WILL NOT BE USED for initial fire attack.

A

True

203
Q

If the fire is on the 8th floor or above, elevators may be used at the discretion of the company officer, under the following conditions:

A
  • An ECF will be assigned to operate the elevator manually.
  • Personnel will go no higher than two floors below the fire.
  • All personnel in the elevator will have SCBA
  • Multiple lighting sources
  • A pressurized water extinguisher
  • No more than 7 personnel per elevator car
204
Q

All elevator use will terminate at the floor level of _____.

A

Staging

205
Q

Units due to arrive first at automatic fire alarms will respond with all visual and audible warning devices (Code 3).

A

True

206
Q

The alarm system may be “silenced” by Fire Rescue personnel.

A

True

207
Q

Fire Rescue personnel will NOT reset systems in the event of a fire alarm malfunction.

A

True

208
Q

In the event of an _____ fire alarm activation and the cause if readily apparent, the IC may assist in resetting the system.

A

ACCIDENTAL

209
Q

Someone who has a vested interest in the building must be present.

A

True

210
Q

Vehicle Fires: The appratus wil be spotted at least ____ feet away from the vehicle and upwind if possible.

A

50

211
Q

Except for incipient fires, the minimum size hose line for vehicle fire attack will be a _____ line.

A

1 3/4”

212
Q

In the event of a vehicle fire with _____ based fuels foam ops or dry chemical extinguishers should be considered for extinguishment.

A

Ethanol

213
Q

Vehicle Fires: The battery cables WILL BE disconnected or cut from the battery, both positive and negative.

A

True

214
Q

The name of the towing company and the location of the impound lot will be included in the Fire Incident Report.

A

True

215
Q

Ground Cover Fires: A ____ water attack is the fastest method available to counteract fire spread.

A

direct

216
Q

A fire watch team should consist of at least _____ firefighters with adequate equipment for such as well as water for drinking.

A

2

217
Q

Fire flows that are anticipated to exceed ____ GPM should have supply lines pumped (relay pumping ops) to maintain adequate residual pressure.

A

600

218
Q

Fire Stream - Basic Hoseline Priorities:

A
  • Fire stream between fire and person(s) endangered by the fire.
  • Fire stream between fire and most threatened exposure (if no life endangered)
219
Q

On-the-ground or aerial master streams for all purposes, are immobile and require ___ to ___ firefighters to manage.

A

2 to 3

220
Q

Ground master streams CAN be left unattended if in a collapse zone.

A

True

221
Q

The use of _______ devices is encouraged to check for fire extension and streamline the overhaul and property conservation process.

A

thermal imaging

222
Q

______ of fire cause will determine the extent of operations prior to the arrival of the fire investigator.

A

Preservation

223
Q

MVC Response: Units will proceed in the opposite direction of travel at the request of:

A
  • another unit
  • PD
  • discretion of the company officer
224
Q

MVC Response: The first arriving unit should spot the apparatus between the ____ and ____, if possible.

A

incident, oncoming traffic

225
Q

MVC Response: Units will not be canceled prior to the completion of the ____ and ____ circle.

A

inner, outer

226
Q

A _____ is an expedited removal of a patient that has a life threatening injury or exhibits signs that the injuries may be life threatening.

A

Rapid Extrication

227
Q

The standard order of priority for extrications will be to stabilize the:

A
  • Scene
  • Vehicle
  • Patient
228
Q

If extrication is needed, a ____ inch hose line will be deployed and charged.

A

1 3/4’

229
Q

MVC Response: Tool staging will be in the ____ zone.

A

warm

230
Q

MVC Response: If the patient will be taken out over the hood or trunk, add a ___ point of stabilization.

A

5th

231
Q

For a Rapid Extrication remove ONLY the glass affecting in access to patient, and are immediately affected by cutting/spreading.

A

True

232
Q

Standard ___ Minute Extrication.

A

20

233
Q

Civil Disturbance: ____ and _____ are priorities.

A

Control, confinement

234
Q

Civil Disturbance: Fire streams WILL NOT be used for crowd control or dispersal.

A

True

235
Q

The Evacuation Signal will consist of repeated short blasts of the air horn for approx. ____ seconds, followed by ___ sec of silence. The sequence will be done three times;

A

10, 10

236
Q

Total air horn evacuation signal including periods of silence will last ___ seconds.

A

50

237
Q

Evacuation Signal should be done in conduction with the radio announcement of ________.

A

EMERGENCY TRAFFIC

238
Q

Civil Disturbance: Fires in 1 or 2 story buildings: Water Supply: 2nd Engine/Ladder stays at a hydrant and waits orders to open it.

A

True

239
Q

WPBFR will break the glass of vehicles for purposes _____ only, not to gain access for key retrieval.

A

rescue

240
Q

Entry to Occupied Vehicle - Owner NOT Present:

A

Request PD
Include PD Case # on the Fire Report
Use a spring loaded punch in the LOWER corner of the window

241
Q

Animals Locked in Vehicles - Animal in Distress: Have the dispatcher contact Animal Control if the owner is not present.

A

True

242
Q

Elevators: Any personnel entering the hoist-way will wear ____ and ____.

A

helmet, gloves

243
Q

Elevators: If civilians (victims) are to enter the hoist-way, they will also be provided with a _____ and secured by a ladder belt and rope.

A

helmet

244
Q

Elevators: Extend a ladder from the landing to the top of the elevator car with sufficient length to extend ___ feet above the landing.

A

3

245
Q

MCI: Level I

A

5-10 patients

246
Q

MCI: Leve II

A

11-20 patients

247
Q

MCI: Level III

A

21-100 patients

248
Q

MCI: Level IV

A

101-1000 patients

249
Q

MCI: Level V

A

over 1000 patients

250
Q

MCI assignments are NOT progressive as with a structure fire.

A

True

251
Q

MCI: As other units are on scene, assign other functional groups such as:

A
  • Treatment
  • Transport
  • Landing Zone
  • Extrication
  • Haz Mat
  • Rehab
252
Q

MCI: Transportation Group will communicate with ____ and advise information.

A

Med-Com

253
Q

An evacuation order can be given via the SEMS unit.

A

True

254
Q

If member(s) are missing, the dispatcher will be notified by _____.

A

phone

255
Q

Any member may use “MAYDAY” to report a lost firefighter.

A

True

256
Q

Command response to a missing firefighter, the first five actions must be accomplished very rapidly:

A
  1. Emergency Traffic
  2. Change Plan to a High Priority Rescue Effort
  3. Immediately request additional alarms
  4. Fireground Accountability (ROLL CALL)
  5. Commit the Rescue Group/Division
257
Q

At least ____ additional alarm should be immediately requested for a response to a missing firefighter.

A

one

258
Q

The only practical method to obtain an accurate count for a Roll Call may be to ___________

A

withdraw crews to the exterior

259
Q

Each rescue team should enter the building with at least ____ RIC-Pak SCBA Rescue Kit for each reported lost/trapped firefighter.

A

one

260
Q

AHB: Once disturbed, colonies may remain agitated for ___ hours and attack people and animals within a range of a ____ mile from the hive.

A

24, quarter

261
Q

AHB will reproduce (swarm) ___ to ___ times per year, as compared to native honey bees (1-2 times per year.)

A

4 to 8

262
Q

The best method for escaping a bee attack is to cover your head and run for shelter.

A

True

263
Q

When the Dispatch Center receives a call for AHB attack, the response assignment will be:

A

1 Rescue
1 Suppression
EMS Captain
B/C

264
Q

AHB: Is the incident in close proximity (____ feet or less) to a school, daycare, nursing home, etc.

A

200

265
Q

AHB: Staging should be a minimum of ____ feet from the colony.

A

150

266
Q

AHB: The IC should consider staging transport units ___ yards away to prevent bees entering the transport vehicle.

A

300

267
Q

AHB: If available, a ____ truck is preferred to remove a patient from the hazard area.

A

pick-up

268
Q

AHB: The foam application shall be continued into the air and on the firefighters and victims during the retreat to a minimum safe distance of ___ feet.

A

150

269
Q

AHB: Foam or wetting agents will kill the AHB within approx. ___ seconds of contact.

A

60

270
Q

Upon deciding to establish the “Rehab” group, the IC will request an additional paramedic unit for the purpose of staffing the Rehab area.

A

True

271
Q

The single most important activity at Rehab is the replacement of _____.

A

fluids

272
Q

At a minimum, ___ ounces of water should be consumed with each SCBA bottle change.

A

8

273
Q

Each person should drink at least ___ of water or activity beverage per hour during extended ops.

A

one quart

274
Q

Reassessment should be done every ____ minutes while the person is in Rehab.

A

5

275
Q

Rehab: Any person with a pulse rate over ____ and a temperature greater than ___ degrees Fahrenheit should remain in Rehab until both pulse and temp have fallen below these levels to minimize the risk of heat exhaustion and/or heat stroke.

A

110, 100

276
Q

Rehab: SpCO > ____ administer O2

A

105

277
Q

Rehab: SpCO > ___% is an emergency and patient should be transported for evaluation to the nearest appropriate facility.

A

40

278
Q

WMD: Approach cautiously, from uphill/upwind if possible and avoid congested areas.

A

True

279
Q

WMD: Staging Areas should be _____ selected to prevent the possibility of secondary devices.

A

randomly

280
Q

WMD: Proper PPE (Units are equipped with ___ sets of PPE in black utility bags)

A

3

281
Q

WMD: Contaminated patients MAY NOT be transported by Trauma Hawk.

A

True

282
Q

Commercial Structure Fires: Water supply should consider a _____ lay.

A

reverse

283
Q

Used for incident priorities during structure fires:

A
RECEOVS
Rescue
Exposure
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
Ventilation
Salvage
284
Q

Allows all agencies with responsibility for the incident to establish a common set of incident objectives and strategies:

A

Unified Command

285
Q

The Command Staff consists of the :

A

P.S.L
Public Information Officer
Safety Officer
Liaison Officer

286
Q

The General Staff consists of the :

A
F.L.O.P
Finance/Administration Section Chief
Logistics Section Chief
Operations Section Chief
Planning Section Chief
287
Q

S.M.A.R.T. acronym:

A
Smart
Measurable
Attainable
Results oriented
Timely
288
Q

The tactical objectives the IC is responsible for in ICS:

A
S.L.I.P.E.
Safety
Life Safety
Incident Stabilization
Property Conservation
Environmental
289
Q

Tactical level officers include:

A

Section Chiefs
Branch Directors and/or
Division/Group supervisors

290
Q

Face to Face is the preferred method to transfer command and should be applied to Chief to Chief transfers of command.

A

True

291
Q

Whether it is by oral or written means, every transfer of command wil communicate the four (4) aspects of the ICS 201 form:

A

D.A.S.R.

  1. Drawing or verbal description of the scene
  2. Actions taken
  3. Scene organization
  4. Resource report
292
Q

In most cases, ____ single resources represent the MAXIMUM span of control for a Division/Group supervisor.

A

5

293
Q

The four ICS Sections are:

A

O.P.L.A.

  1. Operations
  2. Planning
  3. Logistics
  4. Admin/Finance
294
Q

The _____ Officer’s function is to be the point of contact for representatives from assisting and cooperating agencies.

A

Liaison

295
Q

The ____ will be used to compliment the ICS and is expandable to include multiple alarms, make up companies, and mutual aid companies:

A

PAS

296
Q

Priorities of the RIC:

A

L.U.P.E.S

  1. Locating missing/trapped FFs
  2. Using audible alarms for PASS devices and communication via portable radio if possible
  3. Provide air support
  4. Ensure trapped members protected with hose line
  5. Size-up Rescue needs and call for extrication if needed
297
Q

A Chief Officer will contact the Fire Chief or his/her designee under the following circumstances:

A
  1. On-duty injury of a firefighter requiring hospital admission
  2. Any firefighter fatality, on or off duty. Only the Fire Chief or Assistant Fire Chiefs will contact family members.
  3. Any circumstance which would require the Fire Chief’s immediate knowledge.
298
Q

The Company Officer, Group Supervisor, and Division Supervisor have the responsibility to maintain compliance with the firefighter personal protective equipment policy.

A

True

299
Q

If the incident is received while the apparatus is returning from an incident, training, pre fire planning, etc. the _____ will determine whether to stop apparatus and don gear or wait until arriving at the incident.

A

Company Officer

300
Q

The ____ of a Fire Rescue apparatus or vehicle has the legal responsibility for its safe and prudent operation at all times.

A

driver

301
Q

The _____ will confirm that the overhead door is open completely.

A

company officer

302
Q

The Fire Dispatcher will contact the appropriate law enforcement agency and inform them using “Plain English”, that an emergency response is needed, regardless of a reference being available or not.

A

True

303
Q

Ladder officers must consider these in spotting the apparatus:

A
  1. Extent and location of fire
  2. Most dangerous direction of spread
  3. Confinement
  4. Exposure conditions
  5. Overhead obstructions
  6. Structural conditions
304
Q

____ alarms are defined in the National Fire Alarm Code as any alarm caused by mechanical failure, improper installation, lack of proper maintenance, or any alarm activated by a cause that cannot be determined.

A

Nuisance

305
Q

The following should be considered when developing a strategy:

A
  1. Location of fastest moving portion of the fire
  2. Burning conditions
  3. Type of fuel - light/heavy
  4. Exposures
  5. Size of the fire
  6. STAFFING NEEDS
  7. Accessibility to the fire area
  8. Water Supply
  9. LINES OF RETREAT
  10. LOCATION OF COMMAND POST
  11. Weather
    * **NOT Time of Day***
306
Q

Civil Disturbance: Task Forces will remain intact.

A

True

307
Q

Civil Distrubance: Water Supply: All vehicle STOP at a hydrant. The hydrant will be flowed to ensure a valid water supply and to clear debris from the barrel of the hydrant.

A

True

308
Q

Elevator Emergencies: Activity Sequence:

A

L.C.A.P.

  1. Determine LOCATION of stalled elevator
  2. Establish and maintain COMMUNICATION with the passengers
  3. ASSESS passengers
  4. Secure the POWER supply
309
Q

Attempt to recall elevators to ground floor using elevator control keys.

A

True

310
Q

Utilize, with caution, the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook if placards are present. If no placards are present or they are unreadable, use Guide ____ for Unknown products.

A

111

311
Q

MCI: Red Ribbon:

A

First Priority

312
Q

MCI: Yellow Ribbon:

A

Second Priority - Delayed

313
Q

MCI: Green Ribbon:

A

Third Priority - Ambulatory

314
Q

MCI: Black Ribbon:

A

Deceased

315
Q

MCI: Blue Ribbon:

A

Contaminated - Decon Required

316
Q

START: Respirations

A

RED ribbon

317
Q

START: Radial Pulse present or cap refill 2 seconds or less

A

GO to MENTAL

318
Q

If any personnel are not accounted for, all unnecessary operations will be suspended and the ____ will be advised of last known location and objective of missing members.

A

RIC

319
Q

The term ______ shall be used to clear radio traffic.

A

Emergency Traffic

320
Q

Command Response To A Missing Firefighter: First five must be accomplished very rapidly:

A

E.P.A.A.R

  1. EMERGENCY Traffic
  2. Change PLAN to high priority rescue effort
  3. Immediately request ADDITIONAL ALARMS
  4. Fireground ACCOUNTABILITY
  5. Commit the RESCUE Group/Division
321
Q

More than ____ percent of all fatalities associated with confide space operations are the “rescuers”

A

60

322
Q

Those areas which are not intended for continual occupancy, have limited means of ingress and egress, and have the potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment:

A

Confined Space

323
Q

Phases in Confined Space Rescue:

A
S.E.A.E.S.T
I. SCENE Preparation
II. ENTRY preparation
III. ATMOSPHERIC preparation
IV. ENTRY
V. SAFETY considerations
VI. TERMINATION
324
Q

A minimum of ___ Special Ops personnel are required for Con Space rescue.

A

10

325
Q

If you must remove your SCBA to fit in the opening or move in the space, DO NOT ENTER! If you enter with standard SCBA, go no more than ___ feet from entrance.

A

25

326
Q

Confined Space: The following will be considered IDLH environment:

A

F.O.O.T.
1. Flammability reading of 10% of the LEL
2. Oxygen reading less than 19.5%
3. Oxygen reading greater than 23.5%
4. Toxicity: CO reading of 35 ppm or more.
Hydrogen Sulfide reading of 10 ppm or more

327
Q

Confined Space: Time in any space will be limited to ___ minutes for the entry team.

A

20

328
Q

All equipment necessary for a confined space rescue will be checked for operability and defects every SATURDAY, as per Special Ops equipment checkout procedures.

A

True

329
Q

All high angle rescue equipment will be checked WEEKLY.

A

True

330
Q

Those evacuations that are, generally speaking, LESS THAN 40 degrees inclination:

A

Non-Technical Evacuations

331
Q

Those evacuations that are GREATER THAN 40 degrees inclination or on such rough terrain that the evacuation requires specific tech rescue training.

A

Technical Evacuation

332
Q

For terrain of less than 40 degrees inclination, attendants should face ____ during the evacuation.

A

direction of travel

333
Q

For terrain of greater than 40 degrees inclination, attendants should face ____ during the evacuation.

A

the anchor

334
Q

Once cubic yard of soil alone weighs _____ lbs.

A

3,000

335
Q

Trench: In general, the depth is greater than the width, but the width of a trench (measured from the bottom) is no greater than ____ feet.

A

15

336
Q

Trench: Teams will be limited to ____ minutes in any excavation.

A

30

337
Q

Trench: Atmospheric monitoring will occur during occupancy at intervals dependent on the possibility of changing conditions, but in no case greater that every ___ minutes.

A

15

338
Q

Trench: Perform a safety analysis every ___ minutes and survey for weakened walls, tension cracks, and fissures.

A

30

339
Q

Dive: It is the responsibility of the ______ to review and update the Dive Rescue Policy.

A

Dive Control Board

340
Q

Total elapsed time measured in minutes from the time a diver leaves the surface in descent until the time that diver begins a direct ascent to surface:

A

Bottom time

341
Q

Fire Rescue Personnel with the experience and training to be in charge of the dive operation:

A

Dive Group Leader

342
Q

Fire Rescue employee holding a Dive Rescue 1 Trainer certification through Dive Rescue International:

A

Dive Team Commander (DTC)

343
Q

An ascent made with an adequate air supply at a rate of 60 feet per minute or less:

A

Normal Ascent

344
Q

Water fills the lungs thus stopping the ability to breath:

A

Wet Drowning

345
Q

Historically, while about ___% of all team ops are in the Rescue Mode, the greater number of diver fatalities have occurred at these times.

A

2

346
Q

Post Dive: The IC will conduct a PIA and after-action report. They will forward the report to the Training Chief and DTC by their next duty day.

A

True

347
Q

Subsequent monitoring of vital signs and neuro evaluations will be completed at a ___ minute interval and ____ intervals after the initial post dive evaluation.

A

5, 15

348
Q

Pony Bottle is ___ cubic ft.

A

13

349
Q

Dive: Verify the proper pressure on the pressure gauge (minimum ___ psi)

A

2500

350
Q

Dive: Check dates for current hydrostatic ( __ years) and visual inspection ( __ year) test dates.

A

5, 1

351
Q

Dive: The maximum allowable pressure of ____ psi should not be exceeded.

A

3200

352
Q

All personnel working within ___ feet of the water’s edge will wear mandatory PFD’s.

A

20

353
Q

The order of water rescue form low-risk to high-risk will be:

A
Talk
Reach
Throw
Row
Go
354
Q

Incident Command positions for WMD’s are”

A

H.E.F.
Haz-Mat
EMS
Fire

354
Q

Primary dive bottle size :

A

60 cubic feet

356
Q

High Rise: In addition to Fire Attack and RIC the following needs to be considered based on the specific needs of the incident:

A
  1. Lobby control
  2. Search & evacuation
  3. Staging
  4. Base
  5. Medical
  6. Safety
  7. Logistics & Planning
  8. Air/Light Support
357
Q

Function of Fire Attack: Residential/Commercial:

A

S.C.D.S

  • Size up - including 360 if possible
  • Command - Establish or transfer
  • Determine length and type of hose needed
  • Stretch and operate initial attack line
358
Q

Function of Inside Truck: Residential/Commercial:

A

F.L.A.P.

  • Forcible Entry
  • Locate and confine fire if possible
  • Assist with Fire Attack
  • Primary Search and Rescue
359
Q

Function of Outside Truck: Residential/Commercial:

A

V.V.S.U.

  • VES
  • Ventilation - Start opening up the building
  • Secondary means of egress
  • Utility Control
360
Q

Function of Water Supply: Residential/Commercial:

A

W.B.C.

  • Water Supply
  • Back up line
  • Consider reverse lay