Building Construction Flashcards

1
Q

Single family homes built in the 1920s were provided with ___ amp electrical service; ___ amp service is typical.

A

30, 200

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2
Q

The useful life span of a building can range from ___ to ___ years or more.

A

25 to 100

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3
Q

The ___ of a building is not in itself a hazard, but age is often an indication of potential hazards.

A

age

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4
Q

The process of restoring rundown or deteriorated properties by more affluent people, often displacing poorer residents:

A

Gentrification

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5
Q

An ____, especially an automatic sprinkler system, is the first line of defense in a building.

A

automatic fire protection system

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6
Q

The ____ of a building often affects the ways in which building components behave under fire conditions.

A

occupancy

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7
Q

Amount of fuel present expressed quantitatively in terms of weight of fuel per unit area:

A

Fule loading

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8
Q

Nothing is more fundamental to building than the materials from which it is constructed.

A

True

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9
Q

The traditional construction classifications were as follows:

A
  • Fire Resistive
  • Noncombustible
  • Masonry or Ordinary
  • Heavy Timber
  • Wood Frame
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10
Q

Contemporary building codes use numerical designations for construction types as follows:

A
Type I - Fire Resistive
Type II - Noncombustible
Type III - Exterior Protected
Type IV - Heavy Timber
Type V - Wood Frame
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11
Q

The ____ of a building refers to its general shape or layout.

A

configuration

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12
Q

An ____ building is a building threatened by fire.

A

exposed

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13
Q

___ occurred when fires communicated from building to building.

A

Conflagrations

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14
Q

Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in a upward direction:

A

Convection

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15
Q

Communication of fire from building to building occurs by ____ or ____.

A

convection or radiation

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16
Q

Fire spread is often the result of ____ heat.

A

radiant

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17
Q

This law states that the intensity of thermal radiation is a function of the fourth power of the absolute temperature of the thermal radiation source:

A

Stefan-Blotzman

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18
Q

Thermal radiation is a function of the 4th power of the absolute temperature.

A

True

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19
Q

NFPA 80A, Recommended Practice for Protection from Exterior Fire Exposures, describes three levels of exposure:

A
  1. Light
  2. Moderate
  3. Severe
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20
Q

The levels of severity for exposures are based on the ____ load and the ____ spread rating of the wall and ceiling finishes of the exposing building.

A

fire, flame

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21
Q

Potential sources of building failure under fire conditions can include some or all of the following:

A
  • Structural interigrity
  • Building systems
  • Design deficiencies
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22
Q

____ materials possess the ability to maintain structural integrity.

A

Fire-resistive

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23
Q

One very basic aspect of building safety is the provision of an adequate number of _____.

A

exists

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24
Q

Which architect called buildings “machines for living”:

A

Frank Lloyd Wright

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25
Q

Which architect stated “form follows function”:

A

Louis A. Sullivan

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26
Q

That does not mean that ___ and ___ are the most prominent design considerations when owners and designers plan their projects:

A

Fire and life safety

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27
Q

The ___ of a building often conveys its intended use:

A

appearance

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28
Q

Branch of philosophy dealing with the nature of beauty, art, and taste:

A

Aesthetics

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29
Q

Currently the most widely used model building code in the US is the _______.

A

International Building Code (IBC)

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30
Q

The building code and fire codes complement each other and are intended to be used together.

A

True

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31
Q

___ can create a negative pressure on the roof and downwind side of the building

A

Wind

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32
Q

Three earlier model building codes:

A
  1. Uniform Building Code (UBC)
  2. Standard Building Code
  3. BOCA National Building Code
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33
Q

The following impairments qualify as disabilities under the ADA:

A
  1. Vision impairments
  2. Hearing impairments
  3. Learning
  4. Speech
  5. Neuromuscular impairments
  6. Mental illness
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34
Q

To provide accessibility for persons with impairments, the ADA requires the removal of _____.

A

architectural barriers

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35
Q

Manual fire alarm stations must be not more the ___ feet and not less than ____ feet above the floor level so they can be reached from a wheelchair.

A

4 1/2 , 3 1/2

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36
Q

Areas of refuge may not be required in buildings equipped with an ______ sprinkler system.

A

automatic

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37
Q

Availability of ____ is a basic consideration in the design of fire protection systems.

A

water

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38
Q

Soil strength, strain resistance, and stability are properties of importance in ______.

A

foundation design

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39
Q

The major technical specialties and their functions include the following:

A
  1. Civil Engineering
  2. Structural Engineering
  3. Mechanical Engineering
  4. Electrical Engineering
  5. Fire Protection Engineering
  6. Architecture
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40
Q

Functions of Civil Engineering are as follows:

A
  • Water supply
  • Sanitary sewers
  • Surveying
  • Site preparation and excavation
  • Roadways
  • Storm water drainage
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41
Q

The finishing touch in the design process is _____.

A

landscaping

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42
Q

Group of people, usually five to seven, with experience in fire prevention, building construction, and/or code enforcement legally constituted to arbitrate differences of opinion between fire inspectors and building officials, property owners, occupants or builders:

A

Board of Appeals

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43
Q

One method of managing a construction project is a technique known as _____.

A

fast tracking

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44
Q

In a ____ project, the design and construction phases overlap.

A

fast track

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45
Q

Building construction is a dynamic process.

A

True

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46
Q

The ____ is usually involved in the testing of the fire protection systems in new construction.

A

Fire Department

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47
Q

The primary role of the _____ is to ensure proper installation and operation of the fire protection systems.

A

fire inspector

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48
Q

It should be noted that the role of the fire inspector is to _____ system tests, NOT to actually perform the tests.

A

witness

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49
Q

Documentation of fire protection system test results should be maintained by the _____.

A

fire prevention bureau

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50
Q

____ is a valuable tool in accomplishing control of emergencies in individual buildings.

A

Preincident planning

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51
Q

The act of preparing to handle an incident at a particular location or a particular type of incident before the an incident occurs:

A

Preincident Planning

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52
Q

All building codes classify buildings by construction type.

A

True

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53
Q

The building classifications are based on two attributes of building construction:

A
  1. Fire resistance

2. Combustability

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54
Q

____ buildings also provide an increased degree of occupant safety.

A

Fire-resistive

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55
Q

From a fire protection standpoint, one of the most basic properties of building materials is their degree of ____.

A

fire resistance

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56
Q

The fire resistance of structural components can be evaluated quantitatively and is known as the ______.

A

fire resistance rating

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57
Q

Fire resistance ratings are expressed in ____ and fractions of hours.

A

hours

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58
Q

A building code will typically require that columns supporting the floors in a fire-resistive building have a fire resistance rating of ____ hours.

A

3

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59
Q

The walls enclosing an exit stairwell typically have a fire resistive rating of ___ or ___ hours to protect the stairwell.

A

1 or 2

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60
Q

The most commonly used method of determining fire resistance is by _____ test.

A

laboratory

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61
Q

A temperature of 1,000 F is reached at ____ minutes.

A

5

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62
Q

A temperature of 1,550 F is reached after ___ minutes.

A

30

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63
Q

At one hour the temperature is ____ F.

A

1,700

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64
Q

The earliest know fire tests on building materials were conducted in ____ in 1884-86.

A

Germany

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65
Q

The ____ test is the only method currently universally accepted by building codes.

A

E-119

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66
Q

The primary points of failure for the fire resistance test are as follows:

A
  1. Failure to support an applied load
  2. Temp increase on the unexposed side of wall, floor, and roof assemblies of 250 F above ambient temperatures
  3. Passage of heat or flame through the assembly sufficient to ignite cotton waste
  4. Excess temperature on steel members
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67
Q

The test furnace used by Underwriters Laboratories, Inc. (UL) for the testing beams, floor, and roof assemblies has approximate plan dimensions of __ x __ feet.

A

14 x 17

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68
Q

Joint systems for floor-to-wall and wall-to-wall connections are tested in accordance with UL Standard 2079.

A

True

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69
Q

Probably the best known of the laboratories is the ___.

A

Underwriters Laboratories, Inc. (UL)

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70
Q

Fire walls need to be kept ____ if they are to serve as a barrier.

A

intact

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71
Q

Directory that lists building assemblies that have been tested and given fire-resistive ratings:

A

Fire Resistance Directory

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72
Q

Fire resistance ratings for test specimens, are expressed in standard intervals such as:

A
15 min
30 min
45 min
1 hour
1 1/2 hours
2 hours
3 hours
4 hours
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73
Q

Basic Building Classifications:

A
Type I - Fire Resistive
Type II - Noncombustible or protected combustible
Type III - Exterior Protected (masonry)
Type IV - Heavy Timber
Type V - Wood frame
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74
Q

With the exception of ______ the major classification are further divided into two or three subclassifications:

A

Type IV - Heavy Timber

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75
Q

Designated by a three digit number code, Type I construction can either be ___ or ___.

A

4-4-2 or 3-3-2

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76
Q

The first digit refers to the fire resistance rating (in hours) of _____.

A

exterior bearing walls

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77
Q

The second digit refers to the fire resistance rating of _____ or columns and girders that support loads of more then one floor.

A

structural frames

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78
Q

The third digit refers to the fire resistance rating of the ____ construction.

A

floor

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79
Q

The highest requirements for fire resistance are for Type ___ construction, with lesser requirements for other types of construction.

A

I

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80
Q

Type I construction is divided into two subclassifications:

A

I-A

I-B

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81
Q

Some building codes contain a provision to omit the fire-resistive rating for a roof construction for some occupancies when the roof is more than ___ feet above the floor.

A

20

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82
Q

Generally, bearing walls, columns, and beams are required to have a fire resistance of ___ to ___ hours.

A

2 to 4

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83
Q

Floor construction is required to have a fire resistance of ___ to ___ hours.

A

two to three

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84
Q

The roof deck construction supporting the roof must have a fire resistance of ___ to ___ hours.

A

one to two

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85
Q

Interior partitions enclosing stairwells and corridors are required to be fire-resistive usually ___ or ___ hours.

A

one or two

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86
Q

The two most common methods of construction Type I buildings are by using ____ or a ____.

A

reinforced concrete or protected steel frame

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87
Q

In a Type ___ structure, firefighters are able to launch an interior attack with greater confidence than they are in a building that is not of fire-resistive construction:

A

I

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88
Q

Type II construction (noncombustible) can be either ____ or ____.

A

protected or unprotected

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89
Q

In II-A construction the structural components are required to have ___ hour fire resistance.

A

one

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90
Q

The use of _____ steel is the most common characteristic of unprotected, noncombustible construction.

A

unprotected

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91
Q

The point at which unprotected members will fail, depends on the following factors:

A
  • Ceiling height of the building
  • Size of the unprotected steel members
  • Intensity and duration of the exposing fire
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92
Q

Type ___ construction has been commonly referred to as “ordinary construction.”

A

III

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93
Q

A fundamental fire concern with Type ____ construction is the combustible concealed spaces that are created between floor and ceiling joists and between studs in partition walls when they are covered with interior finish materials.

A

III

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94
Q

Type III construction has two subclassifications:

A

Type III A

Type III B

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95
Q

In Type III construction it would not be uncommon to use nominal __ x __ inch joists for floor construction.

A

2 x 10

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96
Q

In Type IV construction, the minimum dimensions would be nominal __ x __ inch for floor construction.

A

6 x 10

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97
Q

In Type ___ construction concealed spaces are not permuted between structural members.

A

IV

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98
Q

Type __ is commonly known as heavy-timer or “mill” construction.

A

IV

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99
Q

There are two important distinctions between Type III and Type IV construction:

A
  1. In Type IV, the beams, columns, floors, and roofs are made of solid or laminated wood with dimensions greater than in Type III.
  2. Concealed spaces are NOT permitted between structural members in Type IV.
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100
Q

The primary fire hazard associated with Type IV construction is the massive amount of ___ presented by the large structural members in addition to the building contents.

A

fuel

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101
Q

Many Type V structures are required to have a ___ hour fire resistance for the structural members. This is typically accomplished by protecting the combustible frame members with ____ or fire rated ____.

A

1

plaster or fire rated gypsum board

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102
Q

In some jurisdictions, it is permissible to have Type V construction over Type I construction up to a heigh of ___ feet.

A

70

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103
Q

The fire load is typically expressed in terms of pounds per square foot.

A

True

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104
Q

Building codes classify buildings according to their occupancy as well as their ______.

A

construction type

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105
Q

The International Building Code (IBC) contains a total of ___ subgroups within the 10 major occupancy.

A

26

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106
Q

The IBC contains ten major occupancy classifications:

A
  1. Assembly - Group A
  2. Business - Group B
  3. Educational - Group E
  4. Factories - Group F
  5. High Hazard - Group H
  6. Institutional - Group I
  7. Mercantile - Group M
  8. Residential - Group R
  9. Storage - Group S
  10. Utility and Miscellaneous - Group U
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107
Q

R-1 are occupancies with primarily TRANSIENT occupants including hotels and motels.

A

True

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108
Q

R-2 are occupancies with primarily PERMANENT occupants and more than two dwelling units.

A

True

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109
Q

R-3 occupancies are with primarily PERMANENT occupants and NOT MORE than two dwelling units.

A

True

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110
Q

R-4 occupancies used as assisted living facilities with 5 to 16 occupants.

A

True

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111
Q

A ___ is defined as any effect (or force) that a structure must resist.

A

load

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112
Q

Gravity creates a force on a building through the weight of the building components and all of its contents.

A

True

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113
Q

When air is in motion it possess ____ energy.

A

kinetic

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114
Q

Wind exerts the following basic forces on a building:

A
  • Direct pressure
  • Aerodynamic drag
  • Negative pressure
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115
Q

Secondary effects that may be produced by wind are the following:

A
  • Rocking effects
  • Vibration
  • Clean-off effect
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116
Q

The ____ effect is of particular concern where a building has projections such as canopies and parapets.

A

“clean-off effect”

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117
Q

Hurricane force winds of 100 mph can exert ____ lbs of force against a two-story wall.

A

30,720

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118
Q

In regards to earthquakes, the vibrational motion of the surface subjects buildings to forces known as ____ forces that can be very destructive.

A

seismic

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119
Q

____ forces are some of the most complex forces exerted on a building.

A

Seismic

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120
Q

____ forces are produced in a structural member when it is twisted.

A

Torsional

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121
Q

____ forces are movements of relatively large amplitude resulting from a small force applied at the natural frequency of a structure.

A

Resonant

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122
Q

Although the movement of the ground beneath a building can be three dimensional, the _____ motion is the most significant force.

A

horizontal

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123
Q

The tendency of a body to remain in motion or at rest until it is acted upon by force:

A

Inertia

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124
Q

Buildings with geometric irregularities are inherently more susceptible to damage from earthquakes than buildings having a symmetrical design.

A

True

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125
Q

Increasing the ____ of a building reduces its susceptibility to ground motions that have a relatively long (meaning slow) vibrational period.

A

stiffness

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126
Q

In a structure with REDUNDANT structural members, more members would have to fail for collapse to occur.

A

True

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127
Q

The basic concept of base isolation is to isolate the building from the ____ movement of the earth’s surface.

A

horizontal

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128
Q

Soil exerts a ____ pressure against a foundation.

A

horizontal

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129
Q

Structural element designed to control vibration:

A

Damping Mechanism

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130
Q

Two methods of base isolation:

A
  1. Elastomeric bearings

2. Sliding Systems

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131
Q

The pressure exerted by the soil against the foundation is known as the _____ soil pressure.

A

active

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132
Q

The force of the foundation against the soil is know as the ____ soil pressure.

A

passive

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133
Q

The forces on a building from gravity are classified into two types:

A
  1. Dead loads

2. Live loads

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134
Q

A ____ load is any load that is not fixed or permanent.

A

live

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135
Q

Force pulled upon a structure by the addition of people, objects, or weather:

A

Live load

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136
Q

A ____ load is one that is applied at one point or over a small area.

A

concentrated

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137
Q

The snow load, can vary visually none is southern states to ___ lbs per square foot in some areas.

A

60

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138
Q

Frequently, the snow load calculated for a roof may be on the order of ___ or ___ pounds per square foot.

A

20 or 30

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139
Q

A stream of water discharging 250 gpm introduces ____ pounds of water per minute.

A

2, 082 lbs

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140
Q

A water depth of 3 inches will impose a load of ___ pounds per square foot.

A

20.8

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141
Q

Loads that involve motion are:

A

dynamic loads

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142
Q

Dynamic loads also have the ability to cause failure after repeated cycles.

A

True

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143
Q

Condition in which the support provided by a structural system is equal to the applied loads:

A

Equilibrium

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144
Q

___ beams are often used to support balconies.

A

Cantilever

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145
Q

Those vertical or horizontal forces that tend to pull things apart:

A

Tension

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146
Q

The interior forces are classified according to the direction in which they occur in the material. They are:

A
  • Tension
  • Compression
  • Shear (slide one plane past an adjacent plane)
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147
Q

The magnitude of the interior forces that occur in structural members is evaluated b a quantity known as ___.

A

stress

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148
Q

____ is a measurement of force intensity and is expressed as force units divided by the area over which the force is applied.

A

Stress

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149
Q

Point at which material ceases to perform satisfactorily.

A

Failure Point

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150
Q

An ____ load is a load applied to the center of the cross-section of a structural member and perpendicular to that cross section.

A

axial

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151
Q

An ____ load is a load that is perpendicular to the cross section of the structural member but does not pass through the center of the cross section.

A

eccentric

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152
Q

A ____ load is offset from the center of the cross section of the structural member and at an angle to or in the same plane as the cross section.

A

torsoinal

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153
Q

A ____ is a structural member that can carry loads perpendicular to its longitudinal dimension.

A

beam

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154
Q

A _____ beam is supported at each end and is free to rotate at the ends.

A

simply supported

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155
Q

Beams can be continuous across several supports or restrained at both ends.

A

True

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156
Q

The maximum compression and tension stresses in a beam occur in the ____ and ____ of the beam.

A

top and bottom

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157
Q

____ are structural members designed to support an axial compressive load.

A

Columns

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158
Q

The stresses created within a column are primarily compressive.

A

True

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159
Q

Arches produce inclined forces at their ____ supports.

A

end

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160
Q

A cable used to support loads over a distance will assume the shape of a ____.

A

parabola

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161
Q

The stresses in a cable are ____ stresses.

A

tension

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162
Q

_____ are framed structural units made up of a group of triangles in one plane.

A

Trusses

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163
Q

A true truss is made only of straight members.

A

True

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164
Q

See Figure 3.43 Common roof trusses. PG 96

A

Do it

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165
Q

The top members of a truss are called _____ and the bottom members are called ____.

A

top chords

bottom chords

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166
Q

Typical truss shapes are available to span distances of 22 to 70 feet but in todays construction truss spans in excess of ___ feet are not uncommon.

A

100

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167
Q

____ frames are truss structures that are developed in three dimension.

A

Space

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168
Q

Failure of a connector will result in failure of the truss.

A

True

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169
Q

_____ walls provide lateral support to the structure along the direction of the wall.

A

Bearing

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170
Q

Types of structural frame construction are:

A
  • Steel stud wall framing
  • Post and beam construction
  • Rigid frames
  • Truss frams
  • Slab and column frames
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171
Q

Historically, stud wall frame construction has been associated with the use of ____ inch wood studs.

A

2 x 4

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172
Q

The most easily recognized rigid-frame structure is the _______ building.

A

single story, gabled-roof and rigid frame

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173
Q

When the joists between a column and a beam are reinforced so bending stresses can be transmitted through the joints, the structural system is known as a ____ frame.

A

rigid

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174
Q

The intersection between the slab and column is a region of high stress and usually is reinforced by additional material in the form or a ____ or a ____ panel.

A

capital or drop panel

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175
Q

Building codes typically address membrane structures with a life of ___ days or more.

A

180

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176
Q

Fire codes address those membrane structures to be used for less than ___ days.

A

180

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177
Q

Fabric roofs weigh only about ___ pounds per square foot.

A

2

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178
Q

Rigid, three dimensional structure having an outer “skin” thickness that is small compared to other dimensions:

A

Shell Structure

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179
Q

Stairs that are not part of the means of egress are often referred to as ___ stairs.

A

convenience

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180
Q

Stairs that usually connect two floors in a multistory building:

A

convenience

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181
Q

In buildings ____ or more stories in height, one stairway is generally required to extend to the roof unless the slope of the roof is especially steep.

A

4

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182
Q

Vertical distance between the treads of a stariway or the height of the entire stairway:

A

Rise

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183
Q

The horizontal measurement of a stair tread or the distacne of the entire stair length:

A

Run

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184
Q

The six basic types of stairs:

A
  1. Straight-Run
  2. Return
  3. Scissor
  4. Ciruclar
  5. Folding
  6. Spiral
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185
Q

____ stairs extend in a straight line for their entire length.

A

Straight run

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186
Q

___ stairs have an intermediate landing between floors and reverse direction at that point.

A

Return

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187
Q

This type of stair design is common in modern construction:

A

Return

188
Q

___ stairs are two separate sets of stairs constructed in a common shaft.

A

Scissor

189
Q

The minimum width of the run in circular stairs is usally ___ inches.

A

10

190
Q

A special requirement for circular stairs is that the small radius is not less than ___ the width of the stairway.

A

twice

191
Q

___ stairs are typically found in dwellings where they are used to provide access to an attic space that does not have a permanent access stair.

A

Folding

192
Q

Typically custom made, ____ stairs are not enclosed and are usually found in private homes.

A

spiral

193
Q

Stair enclosures are considered to be a highly protected part of the means of egress because of their importance in overall building safety.

A

True

194
Q

Building codes have traditionally required a minimum of one smokeproof stair enclosure for staris serving buildings five stories or higher, and more recently, stairs serving floor levels more than ___ feet below the level of exit discharge.

A

30

195
Q

This type of stair enclosure is acessed by using a vestibule or an exterior balcony:

A

Passive Smokeproof Enclosures

196
Q

Three methods of passive smoke containment are:

A
  1. Vestibule
  2. Balcony
  3. Smoke shaft
197
Q

The two most common types of power for elevators are :

A
  1. hydraulic

2. electric

198
Q

Most elevator regulations are based on ASME/ANSI A17.1, Safety Code for Elevators, published by the American Society of Mechanical Engineers.

A

True

199
Q

Hydraulic elevators DO NOT have ____; cars are slowed and stopped by controlling the flow of hydraulic fluid back into the reservoir.

A

brakes

200
Q

Electric elevators are subdivided into either ___ or ___ devices.

A
  • drum

- traction

201
Q

The elevator drum is located in a motor room directly over the ____.

A

hoistway

202
Q

The most common type of elevator in buildings over six stories is the ____ elevator.

A

traction

203
Q

Even though counterweights reduce the amount of energy needed to raise the elevators, the heights to which they operate may require them to have as much as a ____ volt power supply.

A

500

204
Q

During normla operation, the brakes on traction elevators with ____ motors aid directly in stopping the car at the correct floor.

A

AC

205
Q

A ____ device is an electric switch designed to stop the car by removing power before it reaches the upper or lower limits of the hoistway.

A

terminal

206
Q

____ are large springs or hydraulic cylinders and pistons located at the bottom of the pit that act as shock absorbers should the terminal swith fail.

A

Buffers

207
Q

Buffers CANNOT stop a free-falling car.

A

True

208
Q

This switch slows the drive motor when an elevator starts to exceed a safe operation an is alos known as the speed governor.

A

speed reducing switch

209
Q

This switch is activated if the speed reducing switch fails to slow the car sufficiently:

A

overspeed switch

210
Q

____ are tapered sets of steel jaws that wedge against the gude rails and bring the elevator to a stop:

A

Car safeties

211
Q

Elevator safties are designed to stop a free-falling car.

A

True

212
Q

Elevator hoistway enclosures usually are required to be a fire-rated assembly with a ___ or ___ hour rating.

A

1 or 2

213
Q

Common types of elevator hoistways:

A
  • Single
  • Multiple
  • Blind
214
Q

If a building contains __ or fewer elevators, the codes permit them to be placed in one hoistway.

A

3

215
Q

When more than one hoistway is provided, up to ___ elevators may be located in one hoistway.

A

4

216
Q

An elevator zone usually serves ___ to ___ floors.

A

15 to 20

217
Q

___ hoistways are used for express elevators that serve the upper elevator zones in tall buildings.

A

Blind

218
Q

If the elevator car is stopped in a blind hoistway, the emergency exits from the car must be used.

A

True

219
Q

Older escalators usually operate at speeds of either 90 or 120 feet per minute however speeds now have been standardized at ___ feet per minute.

A

100

220
Q

Typically, the vertical openings created by escalators need to be protected when serving more than ___ floors.

A

2

221
Q

The most common method of protecting the vertical opening is to use closely spaced sprinklers in conjunction with ____ around the opening.

A

draft stops

222
Q

A primary concern for conveyor penetrations during a fire is incomplete door or shutter closure.

A

True

223
Q

Systems that make use of water as the heat transfer medium are known as ___ systems.

A

hydronic

224
Q

Dampers are NOT usually required for nonrated partitions or for 1 hour rated walls.

A

True

225
Q

NFPA 90A requires that the enclosure be 1-hour rated for buildings less than ___ stories in height and 2-hour fire rated for buildings ___ stories or greater.

A

4, 4

226
Q

The advantage in placing an HVAC equipment room on the top floor is that it is easy to take in makeup air and eject exhaust air to the atmosphere.

A

True

227
Q

Duct detectors are typically provided for fans with capacities exceeding ____ cubic feet per minute, to shut down these systems under fire conditions and minimize unwanted smoke movement.

A

2,000

228
Q

The space between a suspended ceiling andthe roof deck:

A

interstitial spaces

229
Q

Channel or enclosure, usually of sheet metal, used to move heating and cooling air through a building:

A

Duct

230
Q

Simply breaking out windows to vent products of combustion must be carried out very carefully when the window is ___ stories above grade.

A

30

231
Q

____ means the use of mechanical equipment to produce pressure differences across smoke barriers to inhibit smoke movement.

A

Smoke control

232
Q

Engineered system designed to control smoke by using mechanical fans to produce airflows and pressure differences across smoke barriers to limit and direct smoke movement:

A

Smoke Control System

233
Q

When a system has both automatic and maual capability for smoke control, the _____ shall take priority.

A

manual

234
Q

Two methods that can be used to protect an enclosed stairwell from smoke:

A
  1. Smoke proof tower

2. Stairwell pressurization

235
Q

NFPA 92A, Standard for Smoke-Control Systems Utilizing Barriers and Pressure Differnces, requires a minimum pressure difference of ___ inches, water gauge across a smoke barrier in a sprinklered building.

A

0.05

236
Q

Two general design methods for pressurized stairwells:

A
  1. Single injection method

2. Multiple injection system

237
Q

In a ____ system an air supply shaft is run paralled to the stairwell from the supply fan.

A

multiple injection

238
Q

The type of heat and smoke vents typically encountered are individual small area hatchways (a minimum of ___ feet in either direction is typical)

A

4

239
Q

____ are used in conjuction with smoke vents to increase their effectiveness.

A

Curtain boards

240
Q

The depth of a curtain board will vary depending on the nature of the hazards withing an occupancy, but should be not less than ___ percent of the ceiling height.

A

20

241
Q

____ boards direct products of combustion to a vent.

A

Curtain

242
Q

High voltage is defined as operating at ___ volts or higher; low voltage equipment operates at less than ____.

A

600, 600

243
Q

Nonconductor of direct electric current:

A

dielectric

244
Q

When transformers are inside, the transformer rooms or vaults are required by code to be enclosed in a ___ hour fire rated construction if not protected by automatic sprinklers or ___ hour fire rated construction if they are protected by sprinkles.

A

3, 1

245
Q

An exception to the fuel storage separation is a day tank located in the same room or mounted directly on the generator. This tank is typically limited by fire codes to ___ gallons for diesel fuel.

A

60

246
Q

Wood is stronger in a direction PARALLEL to the grain than against the grain.

A

True

247
Q

The allowable tensile strength of wood is about ___ psi.

A

700

248
Q

The strength of wood is also affected by its ___ content.

A

moisture

249
Q

Most structural lumber has a moisture content of ___ percent or less.

A

19

250
Q

Lengths of wood cut and prepared for use in construction:

A

lumber

251
Q

Some specific forms of wood prodcuts available for use in construction are:

A
  1. Solid lumber
  2. Laminated wood members
  3. Structural Composite Lumber
  4. Panels
  5. Manufactured components
252
Q

Solid lumber includes boards, dimenstion lumber, and timbers.

A

True

253
Q

Boards have a nominal thickness of ___ inches.

A

2

254
Q

Dimension lumber has a nominal thickness of __ to __ inches.

A

2 to 4

255
Q

Timbers have a nominal thickness of ___ inches.

A

5

256
Q

Dimension lumber is available in lengths from __ to __ feet in 2-foot increments.

A

8 to 18

257
Q

Members for use as rafters can be supplied in lengths up to ___ feet.

A

24

258
Q

The ACTUAL dimensions of finished piece of wood will be SMALLER than the nominal dimension.

A

True

259
Q

Short for glue-laminated structural lumber.

A

Glulam

260
Q

The thickness of the individual laminations varies from ___ inch to ___ inches.

A

3/4 to 2

261
Q

Three types of joists used to join laminated members are:

A
  1. Butt joist
  2. Finger joist
  3. Scarf joist
262
Q

Structural Composite Lumber (SCL) products allow the use of the outer fibers of a log as well as the inner portions traditionally used.

A

True

263
Q

Products of SCL include:

A
  • Laminated veneer lumber (LVL)
  • Paralled strand lumber (PSL)
  • Laminated strand lumber (LSL)
264
Q

LVL finds applications in I-joists and beam sections ___ to ___ inches thick.

A

1 3/4 to 3 1/2

265
Q

Surface layer of attractive materila laid over a base of common material:

A

veneer

266
Q

PSL is the strongest of the three SCL products and can be used for heavily loaded columns and long spans.

A

True

267
Q

Wood sheet product made from several thin veneer layers that are sliced from logs and glued together:

A

plywood

268
Q

Plywood is produced in standard sheets measuring ___ feet by ___ feet.

A

4 x 8

269
Q

Particleboard can be maufactured in sizes up to __ by __ feet.

A

8 by 40

270
Q

___ is widely used for sheating and subflooring in wood-frame buildings:

A

OSB

271
Q

Contruction material made of many small wooden pieces (strands) bonded together to form sheets, similar to plywood:

A

Oreinted Strand Board (OSB)

272
Q

Light-frame tursses are made up of __ inch nominal members that are all in the same plane:

A

2

273
Q

Heavy timber trusses are made up of member up to __ or __ inches.

A

8 or 10

274
Q

One serious and fundamental drawback to wood as a building material is its ____.

A

combustability

275
Q

Wood is affected by such variables:

A
  1. Density of wood
  2. Size and form of wood
  3. Moisture content
  4. Rate of heating
  5. Natrure of heating source
  6. Air supply
276
Q

The thermal decomposition of wood and begins at a temperature somewhere below approximately 392 F:

A

Pyrolysis

277
Q

The ___ of combustion of a fuel is the total amount of thermal energy that could be relaeased if the fuel were completely burned:

A

heat

278
Q

The heat of combustion is measured in ___per pound or kilojoules per gram.

A

Btu

279
Q

The rate at which a fuel is consumed and, therefore, the rate at which energy is released determines fire GROWTH rate and SEVERITY.

A

True

280
Q

The ratio of the surface area of the fuel to the mass of the fuel:

A

Surface-To-Mass Ratio

281
Q

A piece of wood with a high surface to mass ratio, would fail faster than a piece with a low surface to mass ratio given the same mass. (Page 209)

A

True

282
Q

The two main methods of fire retardant treatment are pressure impregnation and surface coating.

A

True

283
Q

Most fire retardant chemicals operate by accelerating the formation of charring in the wood when the wood is exposed to heat.

A

True

284
Q

The fire-retardant treatment of wood will ____ its strength.

A

reduce

285
Q

Thermoplastic compostie lumber is a combustible product with a flame spread rating of ___.

A

80

286
Q

Heavy timber framing uses columns NOT LESS than __ x __ inches and the beams not less than ___ x ___ inches.

A

8 x 8

6 x 10

287
Q

Factors that are unique to wood:

A
  1. Specific gravity of wood
  2. Shrinkage of the wood
  3. Position of fasteners
  4. Relative size of the wood members and fasteners
288
Q

Projecting member in a piece of wood or other material for insertion into mortise to make a joint:

A

tenon

289
Q

The posts in post and beam framing are usually __ x __ inches or __ x __ inches.

A

4 x 4

6 x 6

290
Q

The posts are usually spaced __ to __ feet.

A

4 to 12

291
Q

Post and beam framing is HEAVIER than light frame construction but SMALLER than heavier timber construction.

A

True

292
Q

The most popular form of wood framing is known as ____ frame construction

A

light wood

293
Q

The two basic types of light wood framing are ___ and ___ framing.

A

balloon

platform

294
Q

The VERTICAL COMBUSTIBLE SPACES between the studs in balloon frame construction provide a channel for the rapid communication of fire from floor to floor.

A

True

295
Q

In platform framing a.k.a. Western framing, the exterior wall vertical studs ARE NOT continuous to the second floor.

A

True

296
Q

From a construction standpoint, platform-frame buildings are ___ to erect than balloon frame buildings.

A

easier

297
Q

A few locations where firesopping is required include the following:

A
  • Within stud walls at the ceiling and floor levels
  • At the interconnections between vetical stud wall spaces and horizontal spaces created by floor joists or trusses
  • Between stair stringers
  • Behind soffits
298
Q

The usual requirement is for the attic space to be subdivided into areas of ____ square feet.

A

3,000

299
Q

The most common sheatings are ___, ___, or ____.

A

plywood
particle board
exterior gypsum sheating

300
Q

The combustibility of a siding material can affect the fire behavior of a building in two ways:

A
  1. Through the exterior communication of fire from window and door openings.
  2. By being ignited by an exposing fire
301
Q

Asbestos sidings wer commonly used from the 1930s until the 1970s.

A

True

302
Q

The brick veneer adds little to structural support and must be tied to the wood frame wall at intervals of ___ inches.

A

16

303
Q

One frequently used rule is that in a brick bearing wall every ___ coarse of brick is a HEADER course with the ends of the brick facing out.

A

sixth

304
Q

The interior finish materials most commonly used are ___ or ___.

A

gypsum board or plaster

305
Q

When the structural framing of a wood-frame building, including the floor and roof construction, is provided with protection to achieve a 1-hour resistance, the building can be classified as Type ___.

A

V-A

306
Q

A code may permit elimination of the strutural fire resistance for roof members located more than ___ feet above floor level.

A

20

307
Q

Where truss joists are used in floor construction it is possible for fire to spread in four directions; parallel to and perpendicular to the truss joists.

A

True

308
Q

____ resistant construction is intended to decrease the vulnerability of structures to exposure from wildland fires.

A

Ignition

309
Q

___ is one of the oldest and simplest building materials; its use dates back thousands of years.

A

Masonry

310
Q

The firing process for bricks takes ___ to 150 hours.

A

40

311
Q

For most brick sizes, three courses (horizontal layers) of brick plus the intervening mortar joints equals a height of ___ inches.

A

8

312
Q

Concrete block’s most common size is the nominal 8 x 8 x 16 inch block.

A

True

313
Q

The most common types of stone used in construction are ___, ___, ___, ___, and ___.

A

granite
limestone
sandstone
marble

314
Q

Mortar is available in five basic types with strengths varying from as low as ___ psi to as high as ___ psi.

A

70

2,500

315
Q

Compressive strength for Brick:

A

2,000 to 20,000 psi

316
Q

Compressive strength for Granite:

A

15,600 to 30,800 psi

317
Q

Densities of Brick:

A

100 to 140 lb/ cu ft

318
Q

Density of Granite:

A

165 to 170 lb/cu ft

319
Q

Most commonly used cement consisting chiefly of calcium and aluminum silicates:

A

Portland Cement

320
Q

These walls provide the basic structural support for a building:

A

bearing walls

321
Q

Nonreinforced masonry walls are usually limited to a maximum height of around ___ stroies.

A

six

322
Q

Single vertical row of multiple rows of masonry units in a wall, usually brick:

A

wythe

323
Q

Horizontal layer of individual masonry units:

A

course

324
Q

The Monadnock building in Chicago has masonry bearing walls 6 feet thick at the base of the building.

A

True

325
Q

By using reinforced masonry, it is possible to construct load-bearing masonry walls to a height of ten stories or more having a wall thickness of only ___ inches.

A

12

326
Q

When bricks are placed end-to-end, they create a ___ course.

A

stretcher

327
Q

If bricks are placed vertically on end, a ___ course is created.

A

soldier

328
Q

Paralled wythes of brick can be bonded using a header course every ___ course.

A

6th

329
Q

In an ordinary noreinforced wall, the strength and stability of the wall are derived from the weight of the masonry and horizontal bonding between adjacent wythes.

A

True

330
Q

A ___ is a beam over an opening in a masonry wall.

A

lintel

331
Q

___and, to a lesser extent arches, are the most common methods of supporting loads over openings in masonry walls.

A

Lintels

332
Q

Prapets project from 1 to 3 feet or more above the roof, usually wihout ____ support.

A

lateral

333
Q

___ is also known as “masonry, wood joisted” construction.

A

Ordinary

334
Q

In traditional construction the masonry walls support wood floor and roof joists.

A

True

335
Q

The purpose of a ___ cut is to allow the beam to fall away freely from a wall in the case of structural collapse without acting as a lever to push against the masonry.

A

fire

336
Q

Collapsing interior floor or roof members can exert ____ forces against a wall and push the wall outward.

A

horizontal

337
Q

Firefighters should always assume that if a wall collapses it will fall out from the building a distance at least ___ to the height of the wall.

A

equal

338
Q

Because intersecting masonry walls tend to support each other, the corners of the building or other points of intersection, such as stairwells or elevator shafts, will the the strongest points in a masonry structure.

A

True

339
Q

A masonry building is sometimes provided with a decorative false front or ___.

A

fascia

340
Q

In mill construction, floors are required to be ___ inch tongue and groove with 1 inch nominal tongue and groove flooring

A

3

341
Q

In mill construction, Roofs are required to be __ inch tongue and groove or 1 1/8’ structural panels or planks.

A

2

342
Q

The absence of ___ spaces is a major advantage in mill construction from a fire fighting standpoint.

A

concealed

343
Q

The basic properties of steel are as follows:

A
  • Strongest of the building materials
  • Non-rotting, resistant to aging and dimensionally stable
  • Consistent quality due to controlled industrial process used in its manufacture
  • Relatively expensive
344
Q

The lower carbon content of steel compared to that of cast iron results in a material that is DUCTILE rather than brittle.

A

True

345
Q

A very commonly used steel for structural purposes is designated ASTM A36.

A

True

346
Q

When the “yield point stress” is reached (approximately ____ psi) the shell undergoes a pronounced deformation.

A

36,000

347
Q

Steels for special application, such as those used in bridge strands, have strengths as high as ___ psi but have very little ductility.

A

300,000

348
Q

Steel possesses two inherent disadvantages:

A
  1. Tendency to rust when exposed to ari and moisture

2. Loss of strength when exposed to the heat of a fire

349
Q

The most significant characteristic of steel to the fire service, is the deterioration of its strength at elevated temperatures.

A

True

350
Q

At 1,200 F the yield point has dropped to approximately 10,000 psi - a loss in strength of approximately ___ percent.

A

72

351
Q

The speed with which unprotected steel fails when it is exposed to a fire depends on several factors, including the following:

A
  1. Mass of the steel members
  2. Intensity of the exposing fire
  3. Load supported by the steel
  4. Type of connections used to join the steel members
  5. Type of steel
352
Q

Steel has a density of around ___ pounds per cubic feet.

A

490

353
Q

A beam of 20 feet long would weigh 1,480 lbs.

A

True

354
Q

If an unrestrained steel beam 20 feet long were heated from 70 F to a uniform temp of 1,000 F, it would expand ___ inches.

A

1.4

355
Q

Large, horizontal structural member used to support joists and beams at isolated points along their length:

A

girder

356
Q

Beams and columns in steel frame buildings are connected by one of two methods:

A
  1. Bolting

2. Welding

357
Q

Riveting beams and columns was used in the first half of the 20th century but is not practical to use today.

A

True

358
Q

Beam and girder steel frames can be classified as :

A
  • rigid
  • simple
  • semi rigid
359
Q

When a framing system is classified as a ____ frame, the connections between the beams and the columns are designed to resist the bending forces resulting from the supported loads and lateral forces.

A

rigid

360
Q

In the case of a simple frame, the joists are designed primarily to support a ___ force.

A

vertical

361
Q

These trusses are frequently used in three-dimensional space frames, in which case they are known as delta trusses:

A

Steel trusses

362
Q

Two commonly encountered applications of the basic steel truss are the open ___ joist and the joist ____.

A

web

girder

363
Q

Open web joists are available with depths of up to __ feet and span up to ___ feet.

A

6

144

364
Q

The bar joist is a common type of open web steel joist.

A

True

365
Q

Steel rigid frames usually are used for spans from ___ to ___feet.

A

40 to 200

366
Q

The top of the rigid frame is known as the ___ and the points where the inclined members intersect the vertical members are known as ___.

A

crown

knees

367
Q

Steel arches can be constructed to span distances in excess of ___ feet.

A

300

368
Q

Steel arches can be designed as either girder arches or trussed arches.

A

True

369
Q

It is possible to produce wire for use in bridge cables with strengths as high as ____ psi.

A

300,000

370
Q

A property of a given column, known as its ____, is used in in combination with the condition of the column end to determine the load that can be safely supported without buckling.

A

“slenderness ratio”

371
Q

In general, columns for structural support in buildings should NOT have a slenderness ratio greater than ___.

A

120

372
Q

A very common floor design in steel-frame buildings uses a lightweight concrete with a minimum thickness of __ inches supported by corrugated steel decking.

A

2

373
Q

In gabled rigid frame structures the ___ joint between the roof and the wall will be the strongest part of the frame and the last part to fail.

A

knee

374
Q

Metal or wooden plates used to connect and strengthen the intersections of metal or wooden truss components, etc.:

A

gusset plates

375
Q

A steel column encased in 3 inches of concrete wit a siliceous aggregate would have a fire resistance of ___ hours.

A

four

376
Q

Gypsum board is available as regular or type ___.

A

X

377
Q

Type __ gypsum board contains additives to increase its fire resistance and is usually required where a specified fire resistance is desired.

A

X

378
Q

Gypsum consists of approximately ___ percent entrapped water.

A

21

379
Q

High density SFRMs that use magnesium oxychloride have densities ranging from __ to ___ lb/cu ft.

A

40 to 80

380
Q

The cementitious materials have densities varying from __ to __ lb/cu ft.

A

15 to 50

381
Q

Intumescent coating material will expand to ___ to ___ times its original volume.

A

15 to 30

382
Q

Intumescent coatings have an applied thickness of 0.03 to 0.4 inches.

A

True

383
Q

The most common membrane ceiling is to use ___ tiles in a steel framework suspended by wires.

A

mineral

384
Q

Ceiling materials are never rated independently.

A

True

385
Q

Because concrete is noncombustible, it is widely used in Type ___ construction.

A

I

386
Q

Concrete is produced from Portland cement, coarse and fine aggregates, and water.

A

True

387
Q

Gravel, stone, sand, or other inner materials used in concrete:

A

aggregate

388
Q

The ____ make up a large percentage of the total volume.

A

aggregates

389
Q

Maintaining conditions to achieve proper strength during the hardening of concrete:

A

curing

390
Q

Hardening of concrete involves a chemical process known as ____.

A

hydration

391
Q

Concrete must be ___ in order to reach its proper strength.

A

cured

392
Q

Concrete that is curing must be maintained at the correct temperature, ideally between ___ to ___ F.

A

50 to 70

393
Q

Properly cured concrete continues to harden indefinitely at a gradual rate however, normal design strength is reached after ___ days.

A

28

394
Q

The primary function of placing reinforcing steel in concrete is to resist tensile forces.

A

True

395
Q

Reinforcing steel in the concrete is tensioned after the concrete has hardened:

A

Post-tensioned reinforcing

396
Q

Steel stands are stretched between anchors producing a tensile force in the steel. Concrete placed around the steel:

A

Pretensioned reinforcing

397
Q

The single most important factor in determining the ultimate strength of concrete is the ___ to ___ ratio.

A

water to cement

398
Q

Measuring the ___ of a sample of concrete gives and indication of the amount of moisture in the concrete mix.

A

slump

399
Q

The __ test is used to check the moisture content of concrete by measuring the amount that a small, cone shaped sample of the concrete settles after it is removed from a standard sized test mold.

A

slump

400
Q

The following are common cast - in - place structural systems:

A
  • Flat slab
  • Slab and beam
  • Waffle construction
401
Q

The slab in flat slab concrete frames varies in thickness from ___ to ___ inches.

A

6 to 12

402
Q

Solid slabs are used for short spans up to approximately ___ feet while the tee slabs can be used for spans up to ___ feet.

A

30

120

403
Q

A very common application of precast concrete is in the construction of parking garages.

A

True

404
Q

The greater the depth of the cornet over the reinforcing steel, the GREATER it will protect the steel.

A

True

405
Q

Concrete absorbs heat when it is exposed to a fire is called:

A

heat sink effect

406
Q

From a fire fighting standpoint, the roofs of buildings can be classified into three styles:

A
  1. flat
  2. pitched
  3. curved
407
Q

Low slope roofs have a slope of up to 3 to 12, meaning for each 12 units of horizontal dimension the roof slopes upward 3 units.

A

True

408
Q

Medium to high slope roofs have slopes of 4/12 to 12/12.

A

True

409
Q

Some structures, such as certain churches or mansions, have roofs with slopes of ___ or greater.

A

18/12

410
Q

The simplest pitched roof is the ___ roof that slopes in only one direction.

A

shed

411
Q

The ___ roof is a very common roof style that consists of two inclined surfaces that meet at their high side to form a “ridge.”

A

gable

412
Q

The ___ roof slopes in four directions and has a degree of slope similar to the gable roof.

A

hip

413
Q

The ___ roof has the break in the slope of the roof on all four sides.

A

mansard

414
Q

The ___ roof style slopes in two directions basically two shed roofs that meet at their low eaves.

A

butterfly

415
Q

SEE PAGE 307 ROOF TYPES PICTURES!!

A

GO MALAKA…

416
Q

A ___ roof is designed to provide light and ventilation.

A

monitor

417
Q

___ roofs were also commonly used on industrial buildings for light and ventilation. Glass vertical sections.

A

Sawtooth

418
Q

A ___ roof is designed to shed water and snow

A

pitched

419
Q

The lamella arch is constructed from short pieces of wood known as ____.

A

lamellas

420
Q

Lamellas vary from 2 x 8 inches to 3 x 16 inches and in lengths from 8 to 14 feet.

A

True

421
Q

The curvature of the lamella arch results from the beveling (inclining) of the ends of the individual lamellas.

A

True

422
Q

_____ domes are created using triangles.

A

Geodesic

423
Q

____ are designed to create extra living space and allow additional light into a structure.

A

Dormers

424
Q

In modern practice box beams and I-beams manufactured from plywood and wood truss joists are often used to support flat ____.

A

roofs

425
Q

Fireproofing can be omitted from roof supports when the roof is located more than ___ feet above the floor in an assembly occupancy.

A

20

426
Q

Inverted roofs differ from conventional roofs primarily in the location of their main ____ beams.

A

roof

427
Q

____ are the inclined joists used to support some types of pitched roofs.

A

Rafters

428
Q

Wood rafters can be spaced from ___ to ___ inches apart.

A

12 to 24

429
Q

A Fink truss is common in residential type construction.

A

True

430
Q

The ___ and ___ style trusses are the most common types used for pitched roofs.

A

Fink and Pratt

431
Q

The components of roof decks include:

A
  • sheathing
  • roof planks
  • purlins
432
Q

Wood planks will have a minimum of __ inch nominal thickness.

A

1

433
Q

Corrugated steel used in roof decking ranges from ___ gauge, the thinnest, to ___ gauge, the thickest.

A

29, 12

434
Q

Watertight material used to prevent the passage of moisture or water vapor into and through walls or roofs, etc.

A

vapor barrier

435
Q

A flat roof usually consists of several component layers that include the following: IN ORDER

A
  • Vapor barrier
  • Thermal insulation
  • Roofing membrane
  • Drainage layer
  • Wear course
436
Q

The ____ layer permits the free movement of rain water to the roof drains.

A

drainage

437
Q

The ___ course protects the roof from mechanical abrasion

A

wear

438
Q

Roof coverings used on pitched roofs are generally one of two broad categories:

A
  1. shingle or tile roofs

2. metal roofs

439
Q

Asphalt shingles most common size is ___ x ___ inches.

A

12 x 36

440
Q

Slate is a very durable material and can have a life expectancy of ___ years.

A

150

441
Q

Slate weighs 8 to 36 lbs per square foot.

A

True

442
Q

The ___ clay tiles are known as “mission” tiles and are used to create imitation Spanish style architecture

A

curved

443
Q

The spacing between purlins can be from 2 to 6 feet.

A

True

444
Q

A ___ is a building’s first line defense against the elements.

A

roof

445
Q

There are six separate test procedures contained in NFPA 256:

A
  • Intermittent flame exposure
    -Burning brand test
    -Flying brand test
    -Raint test
    -Weathering test
    Spread of flame test
446
Q

Class A roof coverings are effective against SEVERE fire exposure.

A

True

447
Q

Class B roof coverings are effective against MODERATE fire exposure.

A

True

448
Q

Class C roof coverings are effective against LIGHT fire exposure.

A

True

449
Q

Building and fire codes typically require that standpipes be extended before the construction reaches ___ feet above the lowest lever of fire department access.

A

40

449
Q

The initial products of pyrolysis are:

A
  1. The water that may still be retained in the wood

2. Carbon Dioxide

451
Q

Horizontal communication of fire if mainly due to _____.

A

thermal radiation

452
Q

Inspections are performed by the _____ and by the _____.

A

architect or architect’s rep

building department

453
Q

____ provides the exterior cladding of a wood-frame building.

A

Siding

454
Q

A ____ truss makes use of a short circular piece of steel within and between two adjacent wood members to transfer the load between the members.

A

split-ring

455
Q

What is the main advantage of thermoplastic lumber?

A

resistance to weathering

456
Q

In their structural application, masonry are used to support ____ loads.

A

compressive

457
Q

When a beam transmits a large vertical load to a MASONRY wall, the wall may be increased in thickness at the point of support with a ____ to reduce the compressive stresses in the masonry.

A

pilaster

458
Q

Spiral stairs may also be found in commercial occupancies for limited use.

A

True

459
Q

Types of conveyers include:

A
  • Belt
  • Roller
  • Chain
  • Screw
  • Bucket
  • Pneumatic systems
460
Q

It is not unusual to find “__________” provided to access mechanical spaces, roof hatches at the top of stairways, and between roof levels with portions at different elevations.

A

“ship’s ladders”

461
Q

Typically, the vertical openings created by escalators need to be protected when serving more than two floors. The most common method of protecting the vertical openings is the use of closely spaced sprinklers in conjunction with what?

A

draft stops

462
Q

What are vertical boards, fire resistive half walls, that extend down from the underside of the roof of some commercial buildings and are intended to limit the spread of fire, heat, smoke and fire gases?

A

curtain boards

463
Q

5 structural elements building codes require for the fire resistance rating test:

A
  • Beams
  • Columns
  • Walls and partitions
  • Floor and ceiling assemblies
  • Roof and ceiling assemblies
464
Q

Fire-resistant granules of expanded volcanic glass and a binder pressed into a rigid board:

A

Perlite Board

465
Q

Phases of Construction:

A
  1. Concept
  2. Design product
  3. Financing
  4. Documentation and permit
  5. Renovation and remodel
  6. Construction
  7. Inspection/testing
466
Q

Which two professions must be joined to accomplish the end product in building design:

A

Architecture and Structural engineering