Pump Operators Book Flashcards

1
Q

For pumps larger than 750 gpm, standard pump capacities are found in increments of

A

250 GPM

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2
Q

NFPA 1901, specifies that the minimum pump capacity for automotive fire apparatus is

A

750 GPM

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3
Q

Fire apparatus are classified according to the _________ for which they are designed.

A

Functions

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4
Q

NFPA 1582 recommends rejecting any firefighter candidate who has a hearing loss of ______ decibels or more at frequencies of _____, _____, _____ Hz in the unaided ear.

A

40, 500-1000-2000

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5
Q

NFPA 1582, requires that firefighters have a corrected far visual acuity of ________ with contact lenses or spectacles.

A

20/40

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6
Q

Municipal fire department pumpers rarely have pump capacities exceeding

A

2,000 gpm

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7
Q

Industrial fire pumpers frequently have pump capacities in excess of

A

2,000 gpm

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8
Q

_______ feature all the standard engine company equipment but also carry a larger than standard amount of rescue and extrication equipment.

A

Rescue pumpers

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9
Q

Class A

A

Ordinary combustibles

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10
Q

Class B

A

Flammable and combustible liquids and gases

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11
Q

Most INDUSTRIAL foam pumpers are primarily intended to produce large quantities of foam solution to attack Class ___ fires and suppress vapors in spills.

A

B

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12
Q

Most INDUSTRIAL foam pumpers have large foam concentrate tanks on board. These tanks range from _____ to _____ gallons.

A

500 to 1,000

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13
Q

Onboard foam tanks can be filled from ______ gallon (20 L) containers.

A

5

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14
Q

The most common size foam tanks for MUNICIPAL fire apparatus range from ____ to ______ gallons (80 to 400 L).

A

20 to 100

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15
Q

Elevating water devices typically range in height from _____ to ______ feet.

A

50 to 75

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16
Q

Manufacturers and FD typically use two categorial descriptions for initial attack fire apparatus:

A

minipumpers & midipumpers

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17
Q

Most minimpumpers have pumps with a capacity of no larger than _____ gpm, although some may have pumps rated up to _______ gpm.

A

500 , 1,000

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18
Q

Midipumpers also called _________

A

interface engines

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19
Q

Midipumpers are built on a chassis usually over _______ pounds.

A

12,000

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20
Q

The main difference between a midipumper and a minipumper are:

A

size, pump capacity, and the amount of equipment carried.

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21
Q

Midipumpers routinely are equipped with pumps as large as ______ gpm.

A

1,000

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22
Q

__________ known as tenders or tankers, are widely used to transport water to areas beyond a water system or to areas where water supply is inadequate.

A

Mobile water supply apparatus

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23
Q

According to NFPA 1901, the apparatus must carry at least _______ gallons to be considered a mobile water supply apparatus.

A

1,000

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24
Q

The weight distribution and load requirements, pertaining to water supply apparatus, generally limit tank capacity to _______ gallons or less for single rear-axle vehicles.

A

1,500

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25
Q

Apparatus designed to perform the functions of both pumper and mobile water supply apparatus are sometimes called _______ or ________.

A

tactical tenders or attack tenders

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26
Q

The majority of wild land fire apparatus, also known as brush trucks, brush breakers or booster apparatus, usually have pump capacities and water tank sizes of less than _____ gallons.

A

500

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27
Q

Most wildland fire vehicles carry booster hose, forestry hose, or small diameter attack lines (typically _____ inch and _______ inch

A

1-inch and 1 1/2 inch

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28
Q

Booster tanks for wildland apparatus vary from as little as _____ gallons to in excess of _______ gallons.

A

20 to 1,000

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29
Q

The ICS, as defined by NIMS, categorizes pumping apparatus (including water tenders) by ________. This method is called ________.

A

capability. apparatus typing.

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30
Q

Fire boats have been built to deliver as much as _________ gpm.

A

26,000

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31
Q

Apparatus equipped with an aerial device, ground ladders, fire pump, water tank, and fire hose are commonly referred to as _______.

A

quints

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32
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies that the minimum pump capacity for an aerial apparatus shall be _____ gpm at ______ psi.

A

250 , 150

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33
Q

Departments that want the aerial apparatus to have the same capabilities as a standard engine company may specify pumps as large as _______ gpm.

A

2,000

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34
Q

Typically, on ladder tenders, the capacity of the water tank does not exceed ________ gallons and the pumps do not produce more than about ______ gpm.

A

300, 300

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35
Q

Engine tenders generally have a pump with a rated capacity of _____ gpm.

A

500

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36
Q

The _______ is a step-up transformer that converts the vehicle’s 12- or 24-volt DC current into 110- or 200-volt AC current.

A

inverter

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37
Q

Inverters are generally capable of providing ______ watts or more of electric power.

A

1,500

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38
Q

________ are the most common power source used for emergency services.

A

Generators

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39
Q

Portable generators are designed with a variety of power capabilities, with _______ watts of power being the largest.

A

5,000

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40
Q

Vehicle mounted generators generally have 110- and 220-volt capabilities; capacities up to _______ watts.

A

12,000

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41
Q

______ generators usually provide more power than portables.

A

Fixed

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42
Q

Rescue vehicles commonly have larger generators than pumpers. Capacities of _______ watts or more are common.

A

50,000

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43
Q

Lighting equipment can be divided into two categories:

A

portable and fixed

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44
Q

Portable lights range from _____ to ______ watts.

A

300 to 1,000

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45
Q

____ lights are mounted to the vehicle, and their main fucntion is to provide overall lighting of the emergency scene.

A

Fixed

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46
Q

The most common size cable is a :

A

12-gauge, 3-wire type

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47
Q

The most commonly used tools are:

A

Powered hydraulic extrication tools

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48
Q

There are four basic types of hydraulic tools used by the fire rescue service:

A

spreaders, shears, combination spreader/shears, and extension rams

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49
Q

Most hydraulic power units are not capable of operating the tool at full speed when the hose length between the pump and tool exceeds:

A

100 feet

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50
Q

______, as used here, means keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness.

A

Maintance

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51
Q

______ means to restore or replace that which has become inoperable.

A

Repair

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52
Q

_______ the exterior of the apparatus is the most commonly performed fucntion.

A

Washing

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53
Q

During the first ______ months after an apparatus is received, while the paint and protective coating are new and unseasoned, the vehcile should be washed frequently with cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting.

A

Six

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54
Q

In reference to washing the apparatus, the water pressure should be set so that the stream from the end of the hose is no more than_____ foot in length.

A

1

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55
Q

If apparatus require waxes or polishes, they generally should not be applied until the paint is at least ____ months old.

A

6

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56
Q

The first portion of the vehicle specifically checked should be the _____ (driver’s) side of the front, or cab of the vehicle.

A

left

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57
Q

The speedometer should be at or very near _____ with the truck parked.

A

zero

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58
Q

As a rule of thumb, it is generally best to keep the fuel tank at least ________ full at all times.

A

three-quarters

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59
Q

Appropriate hearing protection should be worn if any personnel will be exposed to noise levels in excess of ___ decibels.

A

90

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60
Q

The _______ turns various lights on at specified intervals so that the start-up electrical load for all of the devices does not occur at the same time.

A

load sequencer

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61
Q

The _______ “watches” the system for added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.

A

load monitor

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62
Q

When an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent the overload. This is referred to as __________.

A

load shedding

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63
Q

______ is the distance that the pedal must be pushed before the throw-out bearing actually contacts the clutch release fingers.

A

Free play

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64
Q

In general, steering wheel play should be no more than about ____ degrees in either direction.

A

10

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65
Q

An NFPA 1901 braking test requires that new apparatus be brought to a complete stop from a speed of _____ mph in a distance not to exceed _____ feet.

A

20 mph , 35 feet

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66
Q

The parking brake should be capable of holding the appratus on a grade of up to _____ percent.

A

20

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67
Q

Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents the air horn from being operated when the pressure in the air reservoir drops below ____ psi.

A

80

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68
Q

To test the road brakes, allow the apparatus to move forward at about ____ mph. Should come to a complete stop at ____ ft.

A

5, 20

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69
Q

Switches on battery charger should be in the ____ position when not in use.

A

OFF

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70
Q

The starter controls should be operated in intervals of no more than _____ seconds, with a rest of _____ seconds between each try if the vehicle does not start sooner.

A

30 , 60

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71
Q

If the oil pressure gauge does not indicate any reasonable amount of oil pressure within ____ to ____ seconds of starting the apparatus, stop the engine immediately and have the lubricating system checked by a trained mechanic.

A

5 to 10

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72
Q

When driving downhill, select a lower gear ______ starting downhill.

A

before

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73
Q

_____ occurs when the throttle is applied while the transmission is in too high a gear for a given set of conditions.

A

Lugging

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74
Q

Long idling periods can result in the use of _____ gallon (2 L) of fuel per hour.

A

1/2

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75
Q

When the engine must be left idling for an extended period of time because of extremely cold weather or during floodlight operations, set it to idle at ______ to ______ rpm rather than lower speeds.

A

900 to 1,100

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76
Q

Most apparatus accidents occur at _______.

A

intersections

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77
Q

The ________ is the sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance.

A

total stopping distance

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78
Q

Driver/operator _______ is the distance a vehicle travels while a driver is transferring the foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal after perceiving the need for stopping.

A

reaction distance

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79
Q

The ________ is the distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.

A

braking distance

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80
Q

Apparatus should be driven in the _____ lane on city streets.

A

fast

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81
Q

A siren operating on an emergency vehicle moving at 40 mph can project ______ feet in front of the vehcile.

A

300

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82
Q

At a speed of 60 mph however, the siren is only audible _____ feet or less in front of the vehicle.

A

12

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83
Q

When more than one emergency vehicle is responding along the same route, units should travel at least _____ to _____ feet.

A

300 to 500

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84
Q

Pertaining to the Alley Dock exercise, the boundary lines for the restricted area should be ______ feet wide, similar to curb-to-curb distance.

A

40

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85
Q

_____ is always the first tatctical priority at any fire incident.

A

Life safety

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86
Q

Apparatus should be positioned ______ of the fire.

A

upwind

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87
Q

Another important consideration when determining a good position for attack pumpers is the condition of the _______ and the potential for a _______.

A

fire building , structural collapse

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88
Q

The collapse zone is equal to at least ______ times the height of the building.

A

one and one-half

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89
Q

Ornamental stars indicate a high _______ potential.

A

collapse

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90
Q

If the building is less than five stories tall, engine companies are positioned on the side of the street _____ to the building and aerials are positioned ______ of the engine.

A

closest , outboard

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91
Q

If the building is higher than five stories, the engines take the _____ position and the aerials are positioned next to the building.

A

outside

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92
Q

Minimizing _________ provides better discharge capabilities and should be a primary consideration.

A

lift distances

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93
Q

In most jurisdictions, the most common water supply source is a _________.

A

fire hydrant

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94
Q

The preferred type of hose for connection to a fire hydrant is __________.

A

large diameter intake hose

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95
Q

Intake hose sections are commonly ____ to _____ feet.

A

10 to 50

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96
Q

A good way to minimize kinks in soft intake hose is to put ________ in the hose when making the connection between the hydrant and the pumper.

A

two full twists

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97
Q

When using front or rear intake connections, the vehicle should be aimed or angled in the direction of the hydrant. This angle should be _______ degrees or less.

A

45

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98
Q

The main disadvantage of connecting to the 2 1/2 inch outlet is that it _____________.

A

limits the amount of water that can be supplied.

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99
Q

In a tandem pumping operation it is possible to pump water at a __________ pressure than the hose can withstand.

A

greater

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100
Q

To set up for tandem pumping, the two engines may be positioned as much as _____ feet (90 m) apart.

A

300

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101
Q

The two most common functions for wildland fire apparatus are _______ and _________.

A

providing structural protection and making a direct attack on the fire.

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102
Q

After life safety, the highest priority for most wild land fire fighting operations is the _________.

A

protection of structures that are exposed to the fire.

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103
Q

Wildland engines must remain _______.

A

mobile

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104
Q

_______ should precede wildland engines when driving through smoke.

A

Spotters

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105
Q

When apparatus is used in mobile attack, hoselines should be kept as ______ as possible.

A

short

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106
Q

Pertaining to wildland firefighting, it is safest to operate in the ________ (burned area).

A

black

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107
Q

The command post should afford a view of ______ sides of the building.

A

two

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108
Q

Two types of equipment are used to refill SCBA cylinders on the scene:

A

cascade systems and breathing air compressors, or combination thereof.

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109
Q

The two primary types of EMS vehicles that may respond to fire scenes are :

A

rapid response units (non transport) and ambulances (transport).

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110
Q

_______ staging my be used on any emergency response where two or more companies are dispatched.

A

Level I

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111
Q

______ staging is used when numerous emergency vehicles will be responding to the same incident.

A

Level II

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112
Q

Also consider positioning additional apparatus _____ to ______ behind the shielding apparatus to act as an additional barrier between firefighters and the flow of traffic.

A

150 to 200

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113
Q

The ________ is an area surrounding the incident that is closest to the release and may have been contaminated by the released material.

A

hot zone (a.k.a restricted zone, exclusion zone, or red zone)

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114
Q

The ________ is an area abutting the hot zone and extending to the cold zone.

A

warm zone (aka contamination reduction zone, limited-access zone, or yellow zone)

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115
Q

Decontamination usually takes place within a corridor located in the ______ zone.

A

warm

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116
Q

More than ____ percent of the calls to which most fire departments respond are emergency medical incidents.

A

60

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117
Q

______ is a compound of hydrogen and oxygen formed when two hydrogen atoms combine with one oxygen atom.

A

Water

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118
Q

Below 32*F water converts to a solid state of matter called ____.

A

ice

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119
Q

Above 212*F, water converts into a gas called _____ or _____.

A

water vapor or steam

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120
Q

Water’s _______, or its weight per unit of volume, is measured in pounds per cubic foot (kg/L).

A

density

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121
Q

Water is heaviest close to its _____ point.

A

freezing

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122
Q

Water is lightest close to its _____ point.

A

boiling

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123
Q

For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is generally considered to weigh _____ lb/ft3 or _____ lb/gal.

A

62.5 or 8.33

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124
Q

The primary way water extinguishes fire is by _____, or absorbing heat from the fire.

A

cooling

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125
Q

Another way is by _____ (excluding oxygen)

A

smothering

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126
Q

As an extinguishing agent, water depends on the following:

A
  • Specific Heat
  • Latent Heat of Vaporization
  • Exposed Surface Area
  • Specific Gravity
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127
Q

_______ is a measure of the heat-absorbing capacity of a substance.

A

Specific heat

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128
Q

Amounts of heat transfer are measured in ______ or ______.

A

British thermal units (Btu) or in joules (J).

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129
Q

The _____, also a unit of work, has taken place of he calorie in the SI (International System of Units) heat measurement.

A

joule

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130
Q

1 calorie = ______ joules

A

4.19

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131
Q

It takes _____ times as much heat to raise the temperature of one pound of water 1 degree F as it does an equal amount of carbon dioxide.

A

five

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132
Q

The _______ is the quantity of heat absorbed by a substance when it changes from a liquid to a vapor.

A

latent heat of vaporization

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133
Q

At sea level, water begins to boil or vaporize at ______ *F

A

212

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134
Q

Each pound of water requires approximately _____ Btu of additional heat to completely convert into steam.

A

970

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135
Q

A gallon of water weighs ______ pounds.

A

8.33

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136
Q

The amount of heat a combustible object can produce depends upon the ______ from which it is composed.

A

material

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137
Q

The speed with which water absorbs heat ______ in proportion to the water surface exposed to the heat.

A

increases

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138
Q

At 212*F water expands approximately ______ times its original volume.

A

1,700

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139
Q

Water converted to steam expands ______ times.

A

1,700

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140
Q

______ is the tendency of a liquid to possess internal resistance to flow.

A

Viscosity

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141
Q

The density of liquids in relation to water is known as ________.

A

specific gravity

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142
Q

Water is given a value of ____.

A

1

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143
Q

Liquids with a specific gravity less than 1 are _______ than water and therefore float on water.

A

lighter

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144
Q

Most flammable liquids have a specific gravity of ______ 1.

A

less than

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145
Q

Those with a specific gravity greater than 1 are ______ than water and sink to the bottom.

A

heavier

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146
Q

____ is defined as force per unit.

A

Pressure

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147
Q

The weight of 1 cubic foot of water is approximately ______ pounds.

A

62.5

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148
Q

The speed at which fluid travels is often referred to as _______.

A

velocity

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149
Q

First Principle: Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts.

A

True

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150
Q

Second Principle: Fluid pressure at a point in a fluid at rest is the same intensity in all directions.

A

True

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151
Q

Third Principle: Pressure applied to a confined fluid from without is transmitted equally in all directions.

A

True

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152
Q

Fourth Principle: The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.

A

True

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153
Q

At sea level, the atmosphere exerts a pressure of _____ psi, which is considered standard atmospheric pressure.

A

14.7

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154
Q

Any pressure less than atmospheric pressure is called ______.

A

vacuum

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155
Q

Absolute zero pressure is called a _______.

A

perfect vacuum

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156
Q

______ in the fire service refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice.

A

Head

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157
Q

The water flow definition of ________ is stored potential energy available to force water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.

A

static pressure

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158
Q

_____ means at rest of without motion.

A

Static

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159
Q

The pressure of a fluid on the bottom of a container is ________ of the containers shape.

A

independent

160
Q

______ is that pressure found in a water distribution system during normal consumption demands.

A

Normal operating pressure

161
Q

_____ is that part of the total available pressure not used to overcome friction lsos or gravity while forcing water through pipe, fittings, fire hose, and adapters.

A

Residual pressure

162
Q

_______ is that forward velocity pressure at a discharge opening while water is flowing.

A

Flow pressure

163
Q

_____ refers to the center line of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level.

A

Elevation

164
Q

_____ is the position of an object above or below sea level.

A

Altitude

165
Q

When the nozzle is above the pump, there is a pressure _____.

A

loss

166
Q

When the nozzle is below the pump, there is a pressure _____.

A

gain

167
Q

Both pressuer loss and presure gain are referred to as ______.

A

elevation pressure.

168
Q

Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately ____ psi for every _____ feet.

A

0.5 , 1000

169
Q

The common term for pressure loss due to friction is simply ______.

A

friction loss

170
Q

The difference in pressure in a fire hose between a nozzle and a pumper is a good example of _______.

A

friction loss

171
Q

With all other variables the same, the friction loss varies with the _______ of the hose.

A

length

172
Q

When the diameter of the hose doubles, the area of the hose opening increases approximately _____ times.

A

four

173
Q

When a nozzle is attached to the end of the hose, the volume of water flowing is _______.

A

decreased

174
Q

Realistically, hose larger than ____ inches in diameter cannot be used for handlines.

A

3

175
Q

The primary water supply can be obtained from either _______ or _______.

A

surface water or groundwater.

176
Q

There are three methods of moving water in a system:

A

Direct pumping system
Gravity system
Combinations system

177
Q

_______ systems use one or more pumps that take wate from the primary source and discharge it through the filtration and treatment proceses.

A

Direct pumping systems

178
Q

A _______ uses a primary water source located at a higher elevation than the distribution system.

A

gravity system

179
Q

Most communities use a combination of the ______ and ______ systems.

A

direct pumping and gravity

180
Q

A _____ system is used where the water source is elevated.

A

gravity

181
Q

A fire hydrant taht receives water from only one direction is known as a ______.

A

dead-end hyrdrant

182
Q

When a fire hydrant receives water from two or more directions, it is said to have a _______ or ______.

A

circulating feed or looped line

183
Q

Large pipes (mains), with relatively widespread spacing, that convey large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to teh smaller mains:

A

Primary feeders

184
Q

Network of intermediate sized pipes that reinforce the grid within the various loops of the primary feeder system and aid the concentration of the required fire flow at any point:

A

Seondary feeders

185
Q

Grid arrangements of smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers:

A

Distributors

186
Q

In residential areas, the recommended size for fire hydrant supply mains is at least _____ inches in diameter.

A

6

187
Q

In the business and industrial districts, the miniumum recommended size is an _____ inch main with cross-connecting mains every _____ feet.

A

8 , 600

188
Q

At speeds above____ mph, an emergency vehicle may “out-run” the effective range of its audible warning device.

A

50

189
Q

The funtion of a _____ in a water distribution system is to provide a means for controlling the flow of water through the distribution piping.

A

valve

190
Q

Valves for water systems are broadly divided into _____ and _______ types.

A

indicating and nonindicating

191
Q

Two common indicator valves are the ______ and the _____ valve.

A

PIV and OS&Y

192
Q

The _____ has a yoke on the outside with a threaded stem that controls the gate’s opening for closing

A

OS&Y

193
Q

The valve disk rotates ____ degrees from the fully open to the tight-shut position.

A

90

194
Q

_______ valves are common in private water supply systems.

A

Butterfly

195
Q

The _______ is the average of the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year.

A

average daily consumption (ADC)

196
Q

The ______ is the maximum total amount of water that was used during any 24-hour interval within a 3-year period.

A

maximum daily consumption (MDC)

197
Q

The ______ is the maximum amount of water used in any 1-hour interval over the course of a day.

A

peak hourly consumption (PHC)

198
Q

The maximum daily consumption is normally about ______ times the average daily consumption.

A

one and one-half

199
Q

In general, the private water supply system exists for one ofthe three following purposes:

A
  • To provide water strictly for fire protection
  • To provide water for sanitary and fire protection
  • To provide water for fire protection and manufacturing processes.
200
Q

Most commonly, private water supply systems receive their water from a _____ water supply system.

A

municipal

201
Q

A ______ can be defiend as a stream of water or extinguishing agent after it leaves a nozzle until it reaches the desired point.

A

fire stream

202
Q

The fire service utilizes three basic types of fire streams:

A
  • solid
  • fog
  • broken
203
Q

A ______ is a fire stream produced from a fixed orifice, smoothbore nozzle.

A

solid stream

204
Q

The nozzle ______ and the _______ of the discharge opening determine the flow and stream reach from a solid stream nozzle.

A

pressure, size

205
Q

When solid stream nozzles are used on handlines, they should be operated at _____ psi.

A

50

206
Q

A solid stream master stream device should be operated at ____ psi.

A

80

207
Q

The line bounding a rounded surface; the outward boundary of an object distinguished from its internal regions:

A

Periphery

208
Q

A turning or state of being turned; a turning from a straight line or given course; a bending; a deviation:

A

Deflection

209
Q

To strike or dash about or against; clashing with a sharp collision; to come together with force:

A

Impinge

210
Q

The reach of the fog stream is dependent on the _____ of the stream.

A

width

211
Q

Most constant flow nozzles utilize a _____ stream.

A

periphery-deflected

212
Q

Narrow Angle stream _____ degrees.

A

30

213
Q

Wide Angle stream ____ degrees.

A

60

214
Q

The minimum flow setting for interior structural fire fighting is _____ gpm.

A

95-100

215
Q

The most common variable flow nozzles in use today are ________.

A

automatic nozzles

216
Q

Most fog nozzles are designed for a _____ psi discharge.

A

100

217
Q

Within its desing limits, an automatic nozzle maintains a constant nozzle pressure of approximately ____ psi.

A

100

218
Q

High pressure fog nozzles operate a pressures up to ____ psi.

A

800

219
Q

High pressure nozzles and lines are best suited for fighting ______ fires.

A

wildland

220
Q

Generally, _____ gpm is the maximum amount of water that can safely flow through a handline nozzle.

A

350

221
Q

Flows greater than ____ gpm produce nozzle reactions that can make the hoselines difficult and dangerous for firefighters to handle.

A

350

222
Q

The term ______ is applied to any fire stream that is too large to be controlled wihout mechanical aid.

A

master stream

223
Q

Smoothbore master streams are usually operated at ____ psi and fog master streams at ____ psi.

A

80 , 100

224
Q

Master stream flows are usually ____ gpm or greater.

A

350

225
Q

Master streams are most often used in _____ attack mode.

A

defensive

226
Q

There are four basic categories of master stream devices:

A
  • Monitor
  • Turret pipe
  • Deluge set
  • Elevated master stream
227
Q

Three basic types of monitors:

A
  • fixed
  • portable
  • combination
228
Q

The ______, sometimes called a deck gun or turret, is permanently mounted on the apparatus.

A

fixed monitor

229
Q

The _____ is also sometimes called a deck gun or deck pipe.

A

turret

230
Q

_______ are those large-capacity nozzles that are designed to be placed on the end of an aerial device.

A

Elevated master streams

231
Q

A _____ is a master stream device used in conjunction with aerial ladders.

A

ladder pipe

232
Q

Most modern aerial ladders have _____ waterways.

A

preplumbed

233
Q

While some are also called _______, cellar nozzles are often used on basement fires.

A

distributors

234
Q

A water curtain is only effective in absorbing ______ heat from a fire.

A

convected

235
Q

The piercing nozzle is generally a ___ to ___ foot hollow steel rod 1 1/2 inches in diameter.

A

3 to 6

236
Q

As water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure, a force pushes back on the firefighters handling the hoseline. This counterforce is known as _______.

A

nozzle reaction

237
Q

Nearly all fog nozzles are designed to operate at a nozzle pressue of ____ psi.

A

100

238
Q

In most cases, ____ psi is used as the nozzle pressure for solid stream handlines.

A

50

239
Q

Solid stream nozzles used on aerial devices should be limited to a nozzle pressure of ___ psi and fog nozzles ___ psi.

A

80 , 100

240
Q

Nozzle Reaction Formula

A

NR=1.57 x d2 x NP

241
Q

_______ handlines are the most frequently used fire service hose lays.

A

Preconnected

242
Q

Combined, friction loss and elevation pressure loss are referred to as _______.

A

total pressure loss (TPL)

243
Q

All of these pumps are known as ______ pumps because a positive actin takes place - all water and air are foreced out of the pump body with each operating cycle.

A

positive displacement

244
Q

The modern fire department pumper is equipped with a ______ pump as its main pump.l

A

centrifugal

245
Q

The _____ pump does not use positive action to force water from the pump.

A

centrifugal

246
Q

Positive displacement pumps, unlike centrifugal pumps, can pump _____.

A

air

247
Q

For this reason, ______ pumps are used as priming devices to get water into centrifugal pumps during drafting operations.

A

positive displacement

248
Q

The forward stroke causes water to be discharged, andthe return stroke causes the pump to fill with water again. This is known as as ______ pump.

A

single-acting piston

249
Q

The output capacity of the pump is determined by the ______ and ______.

A

size of the cylinder and the speed of the piston travel.

250
Q

______ pumps are the simplest of all fire apparatus pumps from the standpoint of design.

A

Rotary-type

251
Q

5th Principle of water: The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid.

A

True

252
Q

Most of the rotary-type pumps in use today are either of the _____ or _____ construction.

A

rotary gear or rotary vane

253
Q

The _____ pump consists of two gears that rotate in a tightly meshed pattern inside a water tight case.

A

rotary gear

254
Q

The total amount of water that can be pumped by a rotary gear pump depends upon the _____ of the pockets in the gears and the ______ of rotation.

A

size, speed

255
Q

This is one of the most common types of pumps used to prime centrifugal pumps:

A

rotary vane pump

256
Q

The distance between the rotor and the housing is much greater at the INTAKE than it is at the discharge.

A

True

257
Q

______ pumps are the most common main pumps in the fire service.

A

Centrifugal

258
Q

The impeller rotates very rapidly within the casing, generally from ____ to ____ rpm.

A

2,000 to 4,000

259
Q

There are three main factors that influence a centrifugal fire pump’s discharge pressure:

A
  • Amount of water being discharged
  • Speed at which the impeller is turning
  • Pressure of water when it enters the pump form a pressurized source.
260
Q

Simply stated, the greater the volume of water being flowed, the lower the discharge pressure.

A

True

261
Q

Doubling the speed of the impeller results in ____ times as much pressure if all other factors remain constant.

A

four

262
Q

The centrifugal pump is unable to pump ____ and is not self-______.

A

air, priming

263
Q

There are two basic types of centrifugal pumps used by the fire service:

A
  • single stage

- two stage

264
Q

The process of switching between pressure and volume is sometimes referred to as ______.

A

changeover

265
Q

At lower flow rates, operating in the position reduces the load and the required rpm of the engine.

A

series (pressure)

266
Q

If there is any question as to the proper operation of the transfer valve, it is better to be in ____ (volume) than is series (pressure).

A

parallel

267
Q

The _____ valves are essential in a multi-stage pump.

A

clapper (check)

268
Q

The driver/operator can check the pump temperature by placing a hand on the direct pump intake pipe of the pump.

A

True

269
Q

The most common type of packing in packing rings is a material made of ____ impregnated with _____ or _____.

A

rope fibers, graphite, lead

270
Q

_____ pumps are those pumps that are powered by a gasoline or diesel engine independent of an engine used to drive the vehicle.

A

Auxiliary engine-driven

271
Q

The most common applications for auxiliary engine-driven pumps are:

A
  • Airport rescue and fire fighting (ARFF) vehicles
  • Wildand fire apparatus
  • Mobile water supply apparatus
  • Trailer mounted fire pumps
  • Portable fire pumps
272
Q

The pumping capacity of auxiliary engine-driven apparatus is generally 500 gpm or less.

A

True

273
Q

In recent years, some manufactures are providing “full torque” power take-offs that permit the installation of pumps as large as _____ gpm.

A

1250

274
Q

Midship pumps are the most common type used in the fire service.

A

True

275
Q

With the engine idling and the pump engaged, most speedometers read between ___ to ___ mph depending on the apparatus.

A

10 to 15

276
Q

The automatic transmission LOCKS in gear during pump operations.

A

True

277
Q

All components of the piping system on fire apparatus must be of a _____ resistant material.

A

corrosion

278
Q

Front and rear intakes on midship pumps are really _____ intakes.

A

auxiliary

279
Q

Many pumpers today are equipped with tank-to-pump lines a large as ____ inches in diameter.

A

4

280
Q

Pumps that have a capacity of _____ gpm or greater may require more than one large intake connection at each location.

A

1500

281
Q

The main intake on a front-mount pump is located at the ______ portion of the pump.

A

lower

282
Q

The ____ line can be used to circulate water through the pump to prevent overheating when no lines are flowing.

A

tank fill

283
Q

The tank-fill valve allows water to flow from the ____ to the ____.

A

pump, tank

284
Q

The most common type of valve is the ______ valve that permits full flow through the lines with a minimum of friction loss.

A

ball-type

285
Q

____ valves are most commonly operated by a handwheel.

A

Gate

286
Q

Primers fall into three categories:

A
  • positive displacement
  • exhaust
  • vacuum
287
Q

Most modern fire apparatus use ______ primers.

A

positive displacement

288
Q

Because engine vacuum is maximum near idle speed, the vacuum primer works best at a _____ engine rpm.

A

low

289
Q

The master intake gauge is usually calibrated from ____ to ____ psi positive pressure and from ____ to ____ inches of mercury on the negative side.

A

0 to 600, 0 to 30

290
Q

The tachometer shows ____ rpm.

A

engine

291
Q

The tachometer records the engine speed in revolutions per ____ (rpm)

A

minute

292
Q

The most common throttle used on the pump operator’s panel is the type of knob that turns.

A

True

293
Q

There are two types of auxiliary coolers commonly found on older apparatus:

A
  • marine type

- immersion type

294
Q

Test have indicated that the apparatus may override the parking brake system at engine speeds as low as ____ rpm.

A

1300

295
Q

Midship pumps require that both the pump and drive transmission be in gear for operation.

A

True

296
Q

Some pump manufacturers may recommend that their pumps remain in the SERIES (PRESSURE) position until up to ____ % of capacity is required.

A

70

297
Q

Hydrant valves are used where ____ lays are frequent.

A

forward

298
Q

When using 2 1/2 or 3-inch hose lines to supply the pumper directly off hydrant pressure, it is recommended that the lines be no longer than ____ feet.

A

300

299
Q

The ____ lay is laid from the fire to the water source.

A

reverse

300
Q

The ___ lay is the most direct way to supplement hydrant pressure and perform drafting operations.

A

reverse

301
Q

When a pumper is connected to a hydrant and is not discharging water, the pressure shown on the intake gauge is the ______ pressure.

A

static

302
Q

When the pumper is discharging water, the intake gauge reading is the ______ pressure.

A

residual

303
Q

Atmospheric pressure at sea level is _____ psi.

A

14.7

304
Q

Atmospheric pressure decreases ____ psi for each 1000 feet of elevation gain.

A

0.5

305
Q

____ can be described as that condition where, in theory, water is being discharged from the pump faster than it is coming in.

A

Cavitation

306
Q

Simply put, you can only discharge the amount of water that has been taken in on the intake side of the pump.

A

True

307
Q

Pump capacity ratings are based on a ____ foot lift.

A

10

308
Q

The hard intake hose may be connected to the apparatus AFTER the suction end of the hose has been placed in the water.

A

True

309
Q

It is a general rule of thumb that one 1,000 gpm rated pumper should supply the FDC for every ____ sprinklers that are estimated to be flowing.

A

50

310
Q

When a standpipe system is known to be equipped with pressure-reducing valves, the elevation pressure used must be based on the TOTAL HEIGHT of the standpipe or the zone being used.

A

True

311
Q

The process of raising water from a static source to supply a pumper is know as ______.

A

drafting

312
Q

The elevation difference between the static water source and the pump intake, with the pump being higher than the water supply source is known as ____.

A

lift

313
Q

The pressure in the pump and intake hose will be LESS than the atmospheric pressure.

A

True

314
Q

In most circumstances, the maximum lift is no more than ____ feet.

A

25

315
Q

_____ is the height of a column of water may be lifted in sufficient quantity to provide a reliable fire flow.

A

Dependable lift

316
Q

Every fire pump in good repair should have a dependable lift of at least ____ feet.

A

14.7

317
Q

When at draft, the net pump discharge pressure is MORE than the pressure shown on the discharge gauge.

A

True

318
Q

Fire department pumpers are rated at a lift of ___ feet through ___ feet of intake hose.

A

10, 20

319
Q

There are two types of static water supply sources that firefighters may draw from if necessary:

A
  • natural

- man made

320
Q

Cisterns vary in capacity; sizes from ____ to ____ gallons are common.

A

10,000 to 100,000

321
Q

Water has LOW levels of opacity and reflectivity that allow radiant heat to easily pass through it.

A

True

322
Q

The source pumper should be the engine with the LARGEST pumping capacity.

A

True

323
Q

Hose tenders usually carry a mile or more of large diameter hose.

A

True

324
Q

A relay operation is based on two things:

A
  • The amount of water required at the emergency scene

- The distance from the emergency scene to the water source

325
Q

All fire department pumpers are rated to pump their maximum volume capacity at a net pump discharge pressure of ___ psi.

A

150

326
Q

A pumper CAN exceed its rated capacity if connected to an adequate hydrant.

A

True

327
Q

At no time should a relay pumping operation result in discharge pressures that exceed hose test pressures.

A

True

328
Q

A relay pumping operation always begins with the ______ pumper.

A

source pumper

329
Q

The source pumper should be the engine with the LARGEST pumping capacity.

A

True

330
Q

Hose tenders usually carry a mile or more of large diameter hose.

A

True

331
Q

A relay operation is based on two things:

A
  • The amount of water required at the emergency scene

- The distance from the emergency scene to the water source

332
Q

All fire department pumpers are rated to pump their maximum volume capacity at a net pump discharge pressure of ___ psi.

A

150

333
Q

A pumper CAN exceed its rated capacity if connected to an adequate hydrant.

A

True

334
Q

When possible, select a fill site that is capable of supplying at least ____ gpm.

A

1000

335
Q

A relay pumping operation always begins with the ______ pumper.

A

source pumper

336
Q

Once the relay is in operation, the water shuttle may be discontinued.

A

True

337
Q

Fill site pumpers should have a minimum pump capacity of ____ gpm.

A

1000

338
Q

Vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single, rear-axle apparatus to a maximum tank capacity of _____ gallons.

A

1500

339
Q

Water tenders must have at least one large tank discharge that is capable of emptying ____ % of the tank volume at an average rate of 1,000 gpm.

A

90

340
Q

Gravity dumps DO NOT use any mechanical pressure source.

A

True

341
Q

When possible, select a fill site that is capable of supplying at least ____ gpm.

A

1000

342
Q

Once the relay is in operation, the water shuttle may be discontinued.

A

True

343
Q

Fill site pumpers should have a minimum pump capacity of ____ gpm.

A

1000

344
Q

Vehicle weight restrictions generally limit single, rear-axle apparatus to a maximum tank capacity of _____ gallons.

A

1500

345
Q

Water tenders must have at least one large tank discharge that is capable of emptying ____ % of the tank volume at an average rate of 1,000 gpm.

A

90

346
Q

Gravity dumps DO NOT use any mechanical pressure source.

A

True

347
Q

When possible, select a fill site that is capable of supplying at least ____ gpm.

A

1000

348
Q

A _____ shuttle route is most desirable.

A

circular

349
Q

Ideally, each tender should be filled at a minimum rate of ____ gpm.

A

1000

350
Q

IFSTA recommends that a ____ be used to fill tenders at ALL fill site operations, regardless of whether a hydrant or static source is used.

A

pumper

351
Q

The following are three primary methods that can be used to operate a dump site:

A
  • Direct pumping operations
  • Nurse tender operations
  • Portable water tank operations
352
Q

_____ tank dump sites are most suitable for continuous water supply operations.

A

Portable

353
Q

At least ___ firefighters will be required to deploy the portable tank.

A

2

354
Q

The most common style of portable water tank is the ______ type.

A

folding

355
Q

It is recommended that the portable water tank be set up on a level surface and have a capacity that is at least ____ gallons larger than the capacity of the water tank on the apparatus carrying it.

A

500

356
Q

A _____ shaped arrangement is usually preferred for multiple portable tank operations.

A

diamond

357
Q

Mechanical foams must be _____ and _____ before they can be used.

A

proportioned, aerated

358
Q

The raw foam liquid in its storage container before being combined with water and air:

A

Foam concentrate

359
Q

The device that introduces foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution:

A

Foam proportioner

360
Q

The mixture of foam concentrate and water before the introduction of air:

A

Foam solution

361
Q

The completed product after air is introduced into the foam solution (aka finished foam):

A

Foam

362
Q

Class B fuels are divided into two categories:

A

hydrocarbons and polar solvents

363
Q

How Foam Works: Creates a barrier between the fuel and the fire:

A

Separating

364
Q

How Foam Works: Lowers the temp of the fuel and adjacent surfaces:

A

Cooling

365
Q

How Foam Works: Prevents the release of flammable vapors and therefore reduces the possibility of ignition or reigniton:

A

Suppressing

366
Q

Most FF foam concentrates are intended to be mixed with ___ to ___% water.

A

94 to 99.9

367
Q

There are four basic methods by which foam may be proportioned:

A
  • Induction
  • Injection
  • Batch mixing
  • Premixing
368
Q

_____ is the simplest method of proportioning foam concentrate in water.

A

Batch mixing

369
Q

_____ is one of the more commonly used methods of proportioning.

A

Premixing

370
Q

____ gallon plastic pails are perhaps the most common containers used by the municipal fire service to receive and store foam concentrate.

A

5

371
Q

Class A foam is the formulation of hydrocarbon surfactants that REDUCE the surface tension of the water in the foam solution.

A

True

372
Q

The application for Class A foam is the same as the minimum critical flow rate for water.

A

True

373
Q

____ foam is very liquid and is desirable for areas requiring maximum penetration.

A

Wet

374
Q

___ foam is a rigid coat that adheres well. Has a very LOW water content and HIGH air content.

A

Dry

375
Q

___ foam has the ability to blanket and wet the fuel equally well.

A

Medium

376
Q

AFFF foam maintains its alcohol-resistive properites for about ___ minutes.

A

15

377
Q

To determine the application rate available from a nozzle, divide the nozzle flow rate by the area of the fire.

A

True

378
Q

Depending on its purpose, foam can be described by three types:

A
  • low expansion
  • medium expansion
  • high expansion
379
Q

UNignited spills do not require the same application rates as IGNITED spills.

A

True

380
Q

_____ is the most commonly used foam today.

A

AFFF

381
Q

Whether the foam is used in either a medium or high expansion capacity is determined by the type of _____ used.

A

application device

382
Q

The _____ is the most basic type of foam proportioner used in the fire service.

A

in-line eductor

383
Q

The three most common types of portable foam proportioners are:

A
  • in line eductors
  • foam nozzle eductors
  • self educting master stream nozzles
384
Q

The eductor must not be more than ___ feet above the surface of the foam concentrate.

A

6

385
Q

The self educting master stream foam nozzle is used where flows in excess of ____ gpm are required.

A

350

386
Q

In-line eductors use the _____ Principle to draft foam concentrate into the water stream.

A

Venturi

387
Q

This type of proportioner is one of the most common types of built-in proportioners installed in mobile fire apparatus today:

A

Around-the-Pump

388
Q

IFSTA defines a handline nozzle as “any nozzle that one to three firefighters can safely handle and that flows less than ___ gpm.

A

350

389
Q

Expansion ratios using fog nozzles are between ___ and ___.

A

2:1 and 4:1

390
Q

The _____ foam nozzle is the only type of nozzle that can be used with protein and flouroprotein concentrates.

A

air-aspirating

391
Q

The techniques for applying foam to a liquid fuel fire or spill inclue the:

A
  • direct application
  • roll down
  • bank down
  • rain down
392
Q

The ____ method is used with Class B foam.

A

roll-on

393
Q

The two basic types of flowmeter sensors that are commonly used in the fire service:

A

Paddlewheel

Spring Probe

394
Q

When properly calibrated and in good working condition, flowmeters should be accurate to tolerance of ___ to ___ percent.

A

1-3%

394
Q

The friction loss in old hose may be as much as ___ % greater than that in new hose.

A

50

395
Q

Some departments train their drivers to practice looking ____ seconds ahead on city streets and ____ seconds ahead on highways and estimating where they will be in that time.

A

12, 20

396
Q

Per NFPA 1901 and 1911, a side to side variance in weight should NOT exceed ____ percent.

A

7