Company Officer Flashcards

1
Q

___ are the first line supervisors responsible for the performance and safety of assigned personnel in an emergency service organization.

A

Company officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The NFPA defines a ____ as an individual responsible for overseeing the performance or activity of other members.

A

supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In nearly every case, the ____ is one of the first persons on the scene and is likely to be the last to leave.

A

company officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In most departments, companies spend less than ____ percent of their time dealing with emergencies.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Regardless of the activity, the company officer is expected to PLAN, MANAGE, and LEAD the company.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

____ others and ensuring everyone goes home is the company officer’s principal job.

A

Leading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The ___ has one of the most demanding jobs in the organization.

A

company officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

____ others is the company officers principal job.

A

Leading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The officer’s primary job is to ____.

A

lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

____ are the backbone of the service delivery system.

A

Firefighters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The Fire Service Organization: From TOP to BOTTOM:

A

Chief
Senior Staff
COMPANY OFFICER
Firefighters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The company officer is expected to manage ____, ____, ____, and ____ at the company level.

A

resources
people
time
money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To the fire chief and other senior officers, the ____ represents the company.

A

company officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Service delivery is the sole reason these (FD) organizations exist.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most of the organization’s service delivery or customer service is delivered by personnel at the ____ level.

A

company

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

FDs should be sure that their personnel are professionals. This can be accomplished through ____, _____, and ____.

A

certification
experience
education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For the most part, fire protections is a LOCAL problem.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

There are approximately ___ NFPA codes and standards dealing with every aspect of fire protection.

A

300

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A significant step in the certification process occurred when the Joint Council established the ______ in 1972.

A

National Professional Qualifications System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

NFPA’s codes and standards are the result of more than ___ committees consisting of more than 5,000 individuals who serve voluntarily.

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How many of the NFPA documents deal with the qualifications of those who serve in the fire service?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

NFPA published the first national standard for fire service officers in ____.

A

1976

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

NFPA 1021, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, outlines the requirements for fire officers at four levels.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fire Officer I, focuses on the needs of the _____ supervisor, clearly including company officers.

A

first-line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Fire Officer II, focuses on the _____ aspects of the company officer’s job and help prepare individuals to move into staff positions.

A

management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Fire Officer III, focuses mostly with _____ and _____.

A

admin and management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

At the top of the officer certification ladder, the requirements for Fire Officer IV satisfy the needs of ____ and _____.

A

senior staff

chief officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The present version of NFPA ____, Standard for Fire Officer Professional Qualifications, outlines the requirements for fire officers at four levels of competency.

A

1021

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Professional development is a SHARED responsibility.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The INDIVIDUAL’S RESPONSIBILITIES include ____ and ____ which bring Individual Growth.

A

Motivation

Preparation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The DEPARTMENT’S RESPONSIBILITIES include ___ and ___ which brings Organizational Growth.

A

Opportunity

Environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Most of the requirements focus on administration, management, and supervisory issues.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Professionalism encompasses A, B, C, D, and E, which are:

A
Attitude
Behavior
Communication
Demeanor
Ethics
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The successful company officer is a ____ for others.

A

role model

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Good communication skills are essential in both you WORK and you PERSONAL life.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

According to NFPA 1021, good oral and written communications skills are a prerequisite for most of the certification requirements for Fire Officer ____.

A

I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Formal communications are conducted according to established standards.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Formal communications transmit ____ information

A

official

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The 5 elements of the communication model:

A
  1. Sender
  2. Message
  3. Medium
  4. Receiver
  5. Feedback
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The final step in the communication process is called ____.

A

feedback

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

____ communications are simpler and more spontaneous.

A

Informal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Written communications can be either ____ or ____.

A

formal or informal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When we need to communicate across the organization, we usually use a more ____ communications style.

A

informal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The communications model consists of:

A
  • Sender
  • Message
  • Receiver
  • Feedback
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The ____ is the most commonly used method of personal communications.

A

spoke word

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Signs are a form of communications.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Oral communication can be one way or two way.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The third form of communications is communicating without words, sometimes referred to as _____.

A

body language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Of all communication forms listed, ___ communication is easiest, most commonly used, and effective.

A

oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Face-to-face contact allows the feedback process to work at its best.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Any obstacle in the communication process is called a ____.

A

barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

There are several types of barriers:

A
  • Big words
  • Technical Terms
  • Boredom
  • Confusion
  • Monotone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Walls, distance, and background noise are examples of ____ barriers.

A

physical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

___ barriers act as filters in nearly all of our interactions with others.

A

Personal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

___ barriers arise from language problems.

A

Semantic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

There are more than ____ words in common use that have more than 20 meanings.

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Overcoming communications barriers can be achieved by being adaptive to the audience, by having a specific purpose, and by staying focused, brief, and clear.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

As pertaining to the communications process, ___ may be the most important part for the company officer.

A

listening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Alert facial expression and good posture indicate a good ____.

A

listener

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Dr. Steven Covey’s fifth principle in his book 7 Habits of Highly Effective People, is “_______”.

A

“Seek first to understand before being understood.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

When you are actively listening, three important things happen:

A
  1. You actually hear what is being said
  2. ou are more likely to remember what was said
  3. You show respect for the sender
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

____ is an active process that requires considerable effort.

A

Listening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Remember to make your communications a two way process.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

One of the company officer’s many jobs is to facilitate the communications process.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

One way to improve your communications skills is to watch yourself on ____.

A

videotape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Most of the significant recommendations and requests you submit are WRITTEN.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Principles of Effective Writing:

A

C.O.M.B.E.S

  • Consider the reader
  • Emphasis
  • Brevity
  • Simplicity
  • Objectivity
  • Mechanical accuracy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Brevity does not mean too short; it just means NOT too long

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

For the numbers one through nine, you spell out the word. Starting at ___, you use the digits.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Capitals, in writing, are usually used when referring to a specific individual, place, or thing.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

_____ may be the most important part of writing.

A

Organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When you write, think about the one sentence you would keep if you were allowed to keep only one.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Good proofreading requires a slow, deliberate reading.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

____ is fundamentally different from paper-based communication because of its speed and broadcasting ability.

A

E-mail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Another difference between e-mail and older media is that what the sender sees when composing a message might not look like what the reader sees.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Try to include a ____ Message in the interview with the press.

A

Safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The first ____ to arrive at the scene of any emergency, is most likely the best informed individual available.

A

company officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The most important take away point when dealing with the media is to :

A

follow your department’s guidelines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

To be successful, the news release should be no more than ____ page and should be sent so that the information can be processed and published in time to benefit the public.

A

one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

The first paragraph should be a ____ of what the news release is all about.

A

summary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The _____ is a vital link in the emergency communications process.

A

Dispatcher

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Responding to an emergency scene, one of the very first actions needed is a good ____, an accurate description of what is going on.

A

size-up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Good ____ are a critical part of effective emergency activities.

A

communications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

We can say that ____ is the act of guiding the human and physical resources of an organization to attain the organization’s objectives.

A

management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

____ includes determining what needs to be done and the accomplishment of the task itself.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

One of first contributors towards the science of management was ____.

A

Henry Fayol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Fayol also noted that management activities increase as one moves up in rank in an organization.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The need for management skills _____ as one moves up the organizational ladder.

A

INCREASE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

____ is called the “Father of Professional Management”

A

Fayol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

In the fire service, the first-line supervisors are the COMPANY OFFICERS.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Fayol’s five basic functions are:

A
  1. Planning
  2. Organizing
  3. Commanding
  4. Coordinating
  5. Controlling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Management activities can be divided into FIVE discrete components:

A
  1. Planning
  2. Organizing
  3. Commanding
  4. Coordinating
  5. Controlling
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Any activity should start with PLANNING.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Planning can be divided into THREE areas:

A
  1. Short range planning
  2. Mid range planning
  3. Long range planning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

____ planning looks at the rest of the today, tomorrow, and the rest of the year.

A

Short range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

____ planning reaches out from 1 year to 5 years.

A

Mid range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

____ planning looks at the needs of the organization beyond 5 years.

A

Long range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The process of ___ is the breaking down of large tasks into manageable activities.

A

organizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The second function of management is called _____.

A

organizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

_____ is the third management function.

A

Commanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

_____ means that you exercise your delegated authority to get things accomplished.

A

Commanding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The fourth management function is _____.

A

coordinating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Effective managers are constantly finding ways to do MORE for LESS.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Things that can be coordinated:

A

-The resources of:
Station
Department
Community

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

____ is the fifth and final item of Fayol’s list.

A

Controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

____ is monitoring our progress.

A

Controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

For company officers, the greatest resource is your _____

A

teammates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

____ allows you to measure the effectiveness of your efforts, to help you maintain your goals, to seek new ways to improve, to increase production, and to help plan for future undertakings.

A

Controlling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The principle of _____ suggests that management control is greatly increased and corrective action greatly expedited when you concentrate on the exceptions to expected results.

A

exception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Management control is GREATLY expedited and increases when managers concentrate on the exceptions to expected results.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Taylor’s focus was on the FIRST LINE MANAGER and the efficiency of the WORKER.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

____ is called the “Father of Scientific Management.”

A

Fredrick Taylor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Maslow recognized that the very first of the needs are the BASIC ____ NEEDS.

A

physiological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

____ is credited with inventing a concept known as management by objectives.

A

Peter Drucker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

_____ introduced the now well known concept of Theory X and Theory Y.

A

Douglas McGregor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

William G. Ouchi, developed a concept he called ______.

A

Theory Z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Professor Ouchi focused on WORKER’S NEEDS.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

With Theory Z, the focus is on the ____ rather than the work itself.

A

employees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

W. Edwards Deming’s ideas are referred to as ______

A

Total Quality Management (TQM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Theory X:

A
  • People dislike work

- People work only for money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Theory Y:

A
  • People want to feel important

- People want to be recognized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Theory Z:

A
  • People want to contribute and be part of the process

- People represent unlimited potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

To be successful, TQM must put the focus on the CUSTOMER’S needs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

In TQM ____ is essential.

A

teamwork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

“The One Minute Manager” was written by _____.

A

Kenneth Blanchard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

In the book, “The One Minute Manager” it states to find someone doing something right and give this person recognition.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

A measurement of a good leader is ability to develop other leaders, NOT followers.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Fire chiefs do most of their managing from their ____, not from the middle of the street.

A

desks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

____ is the active part of making an organization run and includes planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling.

A

Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

_____ is how tasks are assigned.

A

Procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Comparing Organizational Values: TRADITIONAL

A
  • Focused on FUNCTION
  • CENTRALIZED decision making
  • TALL structure, many layers
  • DISTINCTION between line and staff
  • NARROW job definitions
  • Heavy reliance on RULES
  • VERTICAL communications
  • Emphasis on INDIVIDUALS
  • STABILITY
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Comparing Organizational Values: MODERN

A
  • Focused on PROCESS
  • DECENTRALIZED decision making
  • FLAT structure, few layers
  • Both JOINED as teams
  • WIDE ranging job descriptions
  • Heavy reliance on INNOVATION
  • HORIZONTAL communications
  • CHANGE
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Fire departments are organizations, and their ability to perform as such is a reflection on how well they are ____.

A

managed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

A complete set of ____ is the best method for departments to “operationalize” other organizational documents.

A

SOPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Normally, the ISO evaluation is conducted every ___ years.

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

ISO: A rating of 1 through 8 indicates that there is some sort of recognized FD, that the nearest engine company is fewer than ___ miles travel distance from any protected proterty and that there is either an adequate fire hydrant within _____ feet or other water supply resource.

A

5

1,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

ISO: A class 9 rating is similar to a rating of 1 through 8 but it lacks an adequate ____.

A

water supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

ISO: A class 10 rating indicates that there is essentially no _____.

A

fire protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

ISO: Receiving and handling of fire alarms is ___ percent of the total score.

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

ISO: Fire department resources is ___ percent of the total score.

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

ISO: Community’s water supply is ___ percent of the total score.

A

40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Better fire protection leads to lower insurance costs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

NFPA ___ standard for CAREER fire departments response times.

A

1710

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

NFPA ___ standard for VOLUNTEER fire departments response times.

A

1720

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

___ is process by which an agency or institution evaluates and recognizes a course of study.

A

Accreditation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

He said that for organizations to be effective, the manager in one section should be able to communicate with the manager in another section, without having to go all the way to the top of the organizatinal structure. The shorter path is called ______.

A

Fayol’s bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

___ have a direct impact on the management of the fire service, from the chief to the company officer.

A

Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Information relationships and effective delegation within organization facilitate crossing the organizational lines to get things done. This concept is known as _____.

A

Fayol’s bridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

___ often begin where laws leave off.

A

Ethics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Remember that personal life and professional life are equal and should be interchangeable.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

____ declare the vision for the organization.

A

Mission statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

____ are the larger, strategic statements that may take several years to accomplish.

A

Goals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

____ are usually an element within a goal and represent the efforts of a shorter period.

A

Objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Goals and Objectives help us to identify where we are going and help us measure progress as we make the trip.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Setting personal goals: Do something each day to make this place better is an example of _____.

A

goal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Setting personal goals: Make each day productive is an example of an ____.

A

objective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

The ____ is a recognized standard that identifies the fundamentals of projeft management across a wide range of responsibilities and projects, including the automotive, construction, and engineering industries.

A

Project Management Body of Knowlege (PMBOK Guide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The five processes the PMBOK Guide identifies are:

A
  1. Initiating
  2. Planning
  3. Executing
  4. Controlling and Monitoring
  5. Closing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

___ should always start with a clear understanding of the goals and objectives.

A

Planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

A ____ is a written formal set of goals that convey the mission of the oraganization, the company, or the individual.

A

business plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

The most important part of any business plan is that it puts down on paper where you want to be in 1 , 3 , or 5 years from now.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Characteristics of a good plan:

A
  • A clearly defined goal
  • A logical set of objectives
  • A list of resources needed
  • A method to measure progress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

___ involves the integration of human and physical resources, money, and time.

A

Organizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

____ is a process of entrusting some of our work to others.

A

Delegation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

In delegation process, two things happen:

A
  1. The supervisor assigns duties to the subordinate.

2. The subordinate takes on an obligation or responsibilty to pefrom these duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

To be effective, delegation of the duty and aceptance of the obligation for the job should be coupled with the ___ to do the job.

A

authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

With the exeption of a few specifically indentified tasks, most of your duties as the company officer can be _____

A

delegated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Barriers To Delegation:

A
  • I can do it myself better
  • It will take time to train someone
  • I am not sure that anyone else can do this
  • I REALLY CANNOT TAKE A CHANCE on this project
  • I think my boss would want me to do this myself
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Effective management of any organization involves the ability to ____ certain tasks.

A

delegate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

The IAFF has more than ____ affiliates in the United States.

A

2,700

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Most grievances are resolved at the first step which involves:

A

filing a complaint with a supervisor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

A ___ shop usually results from an agreement between their union and the employer that requires prospective emplyees to become members of the union prior to being hired.

A

closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

A ___ shop usually results from an agrement between the employer and the union that requires membership within a specified period of being hired.

A

union

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

An ____ shop union membership not required but payment of union dues mandatory

A

agency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

The ____ shop, employees are free to decide if they will join the union.

A

open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Contracts usually run from __ to __ years.

A

1 to 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

The ____ Act of 1935 provided employees with the right to engage in union activities.

A

National Labor Relations ACt

178
Q

There are 3 levels of third party involvement in union managment disagreements:

A
  1. Mediation
  2. Fact finding
  3. Interest arbitration
179
Q

The SOP Development Process:

A
  1. Build the DEVELOPMENT team
  2. Provide organizational SUPPORT
  3. Establish team PROCEDURES
  4. Gather INFORMATION and IDENTIFY alternatives
  5. ANALYZE and SELECT alternatives
  6. WRITE THE SOP!!
  7. REVIEW and TEST the SOP
  8. RATIFY and APPROVE the SOP
180
Q

In the book, The Power Of Ethical Management, they suggest a simple three question test to guide our actions:

A
  1. Is it legal?
  2. IS IT BALANCED?
  3. How will it make me feel about myself?
181
Q

The principal tool for managing money is called a _____.

A

budget

182
Q

Budgets are usually broken down into two catergoires:

A
  1. Operating

2. Capital

183
Q

____ budget items are large, expensive items that last longer than 1 year.

A

Capital

184
Q

Most capital budgets are set up on a ___ year span.

A

10

185
Q

For most paid fire departments, ___ percent or more of the operating budget is typically dedicated to salaries and related personnel costs.

A

90

186
Q

FTE’s stand for:

A

Full Time Equivalent Positions

187
Q

Revenues show the sources for the ____ money.

A

incoming

188
Q

Developing the budget or a budget proposal starts with _____.

A

planning

189
Q

Rule of thumb is to add ___ percent of the overall cost for each project year.

A

5

190
Q

Most commonly, specifications or specific brands and model numbers relating to the equipment is sent out at least ___ weeks in advance.

A

2

191
Q

Who is responsible for reviewing the bids:

A

The purchasing agent for the department, also known as the contractor.

192
Q

What is an RFP?

A

Request For Proposal

193
Q

An is most commonly used when the specifications are broader in nature and the department is open to more than that one specific brand of equipment, etc:

A

RFP

194
Q

An award of an RFP is NOT based on low bid buy on what is in the BEST interest of and value for the department.

A

True

195
Q

Two factors to assist in deciding whether to use an RFP, an RFQ, or a bid is to determine if:

A
  1. Dealing with vendors or contractors

2. Overall dollar amount

196
Q

A ____ is typically one who supplies goods or services.

A

vendor

197
Q

___ allows us to prepare for events, rather than react to them.

A

Planning

198
Q

According to ____, work expands to fill the time available for its completion.

A

Parkinson

199
Q

20 percent of the time, doing the VITAL view, you have ___ percent of results.

A

80

200
Q

80 percent of the time, doing the TRIVIAL many, you have ____ percent of results.

A

20

201
Q

At the lower levels in our organization, ____ skills are important.

A

technical

202
Q

In the MIDDLE ranks in our organization, ____ skills are critical.

A

interpersonal

203
Q

In the UPPER ranks in our organization, ____ skills are most important.

A

management

204
Q

Notification could be in verbal or written form.

A

True

205
Q

Techies percentage:

A

5 percent

206
Q

Visionaries percentage:

A

10 percent

207
Q

Pragmatists percentage:

A

35 percent

208
Q

Conservatives percentage:

A

35 percent

209
Q

Skeptics percentage:

A

15 percent

210
Q

Most fire service organizations enjoy a _____ environment when it comes to the delivery of services.

A

noncompetitive

211
Q

Three major components of Customer Service:

A
  1. Always be nice
  2. Regard everyone as a customer
  3. Constantly raise the bar, raise the performance standard, and look for ways to improve, etc.
212
Q

Successful company officers create an environment where there is open _____ and _____.

A

discussion and collaboration

213
Q

Ongoing Issues of National Importance: 13

A
  • Leadership
  • Prevention and public education
  • Training and education
  • Fire and life safety systems
  • STRATEGIC PARTNERSHIPS
  • Data
  • Environmental issues
  • Managed care
  • Competition and marketing
  • Service delivery
  • Wellness
  • Political realities
  • Interagency cooperation
214
Q

___ is a set of processes that can keep a complicated system of people and technology running smoothly.

A

Management

215
Q

The most improtant aspects of management include:

A

P.B.S.O.P.C.

  • Planning
  • Budgeting
  • Staffing
  • Organizing
  • Problem solving
  • Controlling
216
Q

An _____ is a group of people working together to accomplish a task.

A

organization

217
Q

A ____ is two or more people who come together for a common purose.

A

group

218
Q

____ can be defined as how those individuals interact and influence one another.

A

group dynamics

219
Q

____ dynamics are when groups tend to develop numerous dynamic practices that separate them from other individuals.

A

Interpersonal

220
Q

In a grou environment, the two major factors that are considered are the ___ at hand and the ____ within the group.

A

task, relationship

221
Q

By their very nature,____ represent people who share common interests an goals.

A

Groups

222
Q

____ is defined as the personal actions needed by managers to get team members to carry out certain activities.

A

Leadership

223
Q

____is one’s influence over others.

A

Leadership

224
Q

___ is a management tool.

A

Leadership

225
Q

Effective ____ deals with changing the personal conduct of others.

A

leadership

226
Q

_____ represent the first superivisory rank in the organizational structure of the fire service.

A

Company officers

227
Q

An important part of the leader’s job is to develop and maintain the organization’s human resources to their fullest potential.

A

True

228
Q

For many fire service organizations, the greates opportunities for further improvements in efficiency will come at the _____ level.

A

company

229
Q

Most fire companies spend about ___ percent of their time dealing with emergency activities.

A

10

230
Q

It has been said that there are only two positions in a fire department to which outsiders can apply. One is the ____ and the other is as an _____.

A

fire chief

entry level firefighter

231
Q

Studying group behavior is a part of the science of _____.

A

sociology

232
Q

According to Maslow, there are four general types of needs that must be satisfied before a person can act unselfishly. He called them “deficiency needs” and they are:

A
  1. Physiological
  2. Safety
  3. Love
  4. Esteem
233
Q

Maslow’s Hierarchy Of Needs:

A
Physiological
Safety
Love
Esteem
Self Actualization
234
Q

The need for _____ is “the desire to become more and more of what one is, to become everything that one is capable of becoming.”

A

self actualization

235
Q

Many consider ___ to be the ultimate motivator in the workplace.

A

money

236
Q

Fredrick Herzberg described two factors that act on personnel at work:

A
  1. Hygiene

2. Motivators

237
Q

Factors that are needed just to get people to come to work and to prevent dissatisfaction:

A

hygiene

238
Q

____ encourage workers to rise above the satisfactory level and do excellent work.

A

Motivators

239
Q

Motivators: (7)

A
  1. Responsiblity
  2. Job with a PURPOSE
  3. RECOGNITION of good work
  4. OPPORTUNITY for promotion
  5. OPPORTUNITY for achievement
  6. OPPORTUNITY for personal growth
  7. Threshold of satisfaction
240
Q

Hygiene Factors: (5)

A
  1. Good working relationships
  2. CONSIDERATE SUPERVISORS
  3. Good working conditions
  4. Good pay and benefits
  5. Job security
241
Q

Persons with high power needs like to be _____.

A

in charge

242
Q

Persons with high achievement needs like ____.

A

challenges

243
Q

Persons with high affiliation needs like to ___.

A

work in groups

244
Q

The _____ was introduced in 1964 by Drs. Robert R. Blake and Jane S. Mouton.

A

Managerial Grid

245
Q

This model suggested that morale (the people factor) and productivity are independent of one another.

A

The Managerial Grid

246
Q

Position A on the Managerial Grid may be similar in some ways to Theory ___.

A

X

247
Q

____ the exercise of power.

A

Leadership

248
Q

____ is the ability to influence others in a constructive way that supports the individual and the department.

A

Power

249
Q

Type of Power: Legitimate:

A

Bestowed

Official Position

250
Q

Type of Power: Reward:

A

Comes with the badge

Power over others

251
Q

Type of Power: Punishment:

A

Comes with the badge

Power over others

252
Q

Type of Power: Identification:

A

Individually earned

Charisma

253
Q

Type of Power: Expert:

A

Individually earned

Unique knowledge

254
Q

For fire service personnel, the first type of leadership power comes with the badge of the office:

A

Legitimate power

255
Q

Legitimate, reward, and punishment power ______.

A

come with the badge

256
Q

Four representative leadership styles:

A
  1. Directing
  2. Consulting
  3. Supporting
  4. Delegating
257
Q

The _____ simply places traits required to be a fire officer, in place of the components essential for a fire.

A

Leadership Tetrahedron

258
Q

Leadership Tetrahedron consists of:

A

C.A.D.

  • Courage
  • Ability
  • Desire
259
Q

What’s the middle of the Leadership Tetrahedron:

A

Interpersonal Skills

260
Q

The ___ Amendment provides that “No person shall…be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law.”

A

5th

261
Q

The ___ Amendment provides that “No state shall deny any persons within its jurisdiction the equal protection of the law.”

A

14th

262
Q

Title ___ of the act deals with programs and activities that receive federal funding and prohibits discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, or sex.

A

VI

263
Q

Title ___ deals with employment and prohibits discrimination by employers on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin.

A

VII

264
Q

The Age Discrimination Employment Act of 1967 protects individuals who are ___ years of age or older.

A

40

265
Q

Many of the organization’s rules are unwritten.

A

True

266
Q

Title ____ of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 covers sexual harassment in the workplace.

A

VII

267
Q

In regards to harassment, the employer is liable unless it proves that :

A
  1. It exercised reasonable care to prevent and promptly correct any harassment; and
  2. The employee unreasonably failed to complain to management or to avoid harm otherwise.
268
Q

A “tangible employment action” means a significant _______.

A

change in employment status

269
Q

The number of complaints filed with the EEOC more than ___ between 1991 and 1998

A

doubled

270
Q

For most of those entering the FD, the person who has the greatest impact on them in their entire career is probably their first _____

A

company officer

271
Q

The task of developing _____ is one of the most challenging tasks a company officer faces, and at the same time is one that can provide great personal satisfaction.

A

subordinates

272
Q

The first meeting with a new firefighter should : (3)

A
  • Define the job
  • Establish positive relationships
  • Build a friendly atmosphere
273
Q

Although a formal review will occur after some specific time of service, typically ___ months to a year, you should snot wait that long with a new member.

A

6

274
Q

The team member’s PERFORMANCE is determined by :

A

Their COMPETENCE and COMMITMENT to the work

275
Q

The team member’s COMPETENCE is determined by:

A
  • KNOWLEDGE
  • SKILLS
  • ABILITIES
276
Q

The team member’s COMMITMENT is determined by:

A
  • ATTITUDE
  • MOTIVATION
  • CONFIDENCE
277
Q

Type 1 member:

A
  • High competency
  • High commitment
  • Good performer
278
Q

Type 2 member:

A
  • Low competency
  • High commitment
  • Good student
279
Q

Type 3 member:

A
  • High competency
  • Low commitment
  • Poor attitude
280
Q

Type 4 member:

A
  • Low competency
  • Low commitment
  • Unwilling and unable
281
Q

A good ____ process must start with a formal decision from a senior offer.

A

mentoring

282
Q

The ____ process can be briefly summarized with the words “Lead, follow, and get out of the way.”

A

mentoring

283
Q

When ____, you are helping a team member improve knowledge, skills, and abilities.

A

coaching

284
Q

_____ is an informational process that helps members improve their skills and abilities.

A

Coaching

285
Q

____ should always be done in private.

A

Counseling

286
Q

Four effective tools for team member development:

A
  1. Mentoring
  2. Coaching
  3. Counseling
  4. Performance Evaluations
287
Q

____ is the second leadership tool available to help members.

A

Counseling

288
Q

_____ focuses on improving some specific aspect of member performance, attitude, or behavior.

A

Counseling

289
Q

To be effective, COUNSELING should be accomplished shortly after the unsatisfactory behavior was observed.

A

True

290
Q

The Five Professional Development Roles of a Leader: (5)

A
  1. Mentor
  2. Coach
  3. Appraiser
  4. Adviser
  5. Referral Agent
291
Q

The evaluation procedure should be a continuous cycle.

A

True

292
Q

The cycle of _____ represents the continuous process of goal setting, observation, and performance evaluation.

A

performance management

293
Q

______ by supervisors are the most traditional source of employee feedback.

A

Evaluations

294
Q

The first line supervisor is often in the best position to effectively carry out the full cycle of performance management:

A
  • Planning
  • Monitoring
  • Developing
  • Appraising
  • Rewarding
295
Q

Helps members learn the job:

A

Mentor

296
Q

Helps members with self-assessment:

A

Coach

297
Q

Provides members with a reality check:

A

Appraiser

298
Q

Helps member identify their goals:

A

Adviser

299
Q

Connects members with their own future goals:

A

Referral agent

300
Q

Most federal employees (about ___ percent in a large government wide survey) believe that the greatest contribution to their performance feedback should come from their ______.

A

90, first line supervisors

301
Q

The most significant contribution of self-ratings is the improved ______ that results between supervisors and subordinates.

A

communication

302
Q

____ are often the most relevant evaluators of their colleague’s performance.

A

Peers

303
Q

____ is among the most significant yet controversial features of a “full circle” performance evaluation program.

A

Subordinates Appraising Managers (SAM)

304
Q

____ feedback should serve as an “anchor” for almost all other performance factors.

A

Customer

305
Q

This type of appraisal system is based on the interpersonal relationship between the supervisor and the member:

A

informal appraisal system

306
Q

A problem with this performance evaluation system lies in the evaluator’s interpretation of the words:

A

Graphic Rating System

307
Q

Common Rater Errors:

A
  • Halo Effect
  • Central tendency
  • Contamination
  • “Like me” syndrome
308
Q

The performance appraisal _____ is the primary formal feedback members receive on their work.

A

interview

309
Q

The _____ is based on a rater’s tendency to overweight certain factors among the overall information available.

A

Halo Effect

310
Q

The opposite of the halo effect, the rater tends to put scores in the center of the scale with this type of performance appraisal:

A

Central tendency

311
Q

A rating score that is based on information that is not relevant to the performance standard:

A

Contamination

312
Q

In this situation, the rater uses themselves as the benchmarks, rather than using a performance standard:

A

“Like me” Syndrome

313
Q

A good evaluation interview starts with a review of the significant _____ of the period.

A

accomplishments

314
Q

Recognition should be personal.

A

True

315
Q

One of the basic tenants of the Dale Carnegie program is “________”.

A

Show sincere, genuine appreciation

316
Q

The punishment of _____ has a lasting impact.

A

demotion

317
Q

Fundamental to the process is the fact that before any disciplinary action can be implemented, the supervisor must first ______.

A

give a warning

318
Q

Pressure can create _____.

A

conflict

319
Q

______ allows members to have a feeling of ownership in the organization.

A

Empowerment

320
Q

Finding the best way to _____ each of your teammates is one of the most important things you do in being an effective leader.

A

motivate

321
Q

A first expression of dissatisfaction might be considered a _____

A

gripe

322
Q

Prolonged or repeated dissatisfaction over the same topic might lead to a _____.

A

complaint

323
Q

According to John Buckman, good leaders:

A
  • Are bright, mentally agile, and alert
  • Seek out responsibility
  • Are informed
  • Are good communicators
  • Sense of humor
324
Q

One of the main components of successfully introducing change is to keep the communications open.

A

True

325
Q

In the United States, approximately _____ firefighters are killed and approximately _____ are injured each year while on duty.

A

100

80,000

326
Q

An overview of 118 firefighters who died while on duty in 2007 ____ volunteer firefighters and ____ career firefighters died while on duty.

A

68 , 50

327
Q

______ were the most frequent cause of death for 2007, resulting in 52 firefighter deaths.

A

Heart Attacks

328
Q

One industry that has made remarkable progress in the area of worker safety in recent times is the _____ industry.

A

railroad

329
Q

Norfolk Southern Corporation, by using teamwork, has reduced injuries by ____ percent.

A

80

330
Q

Nearly half of all on-duty firefighter fatalities are the result of _____.

A

heart attacks

331
Q

Nearly half of those killed during structural firefighting operations were ______ at the time of their injury.

A

advancing hose lines

332
Q

At the Firefighter Life Safety Summit how many Life Safety initiatives were produced to ensure the Everyone Goes Home:

A

16

333
Q

A ____ percent reduction in on duty firefighter fatalities within 5 years.

A

25

334
Q

A ____ percent reduction in on duty firefighter fatalities within 10 years.

A

50

335
Q

The largest percentage of firefighter injuries and deaths occur at the scene of ____.

A

fires

336
Q

The most frequent injuries are ____ and ____.

A

sprains and strains

337
Q

Herbert Heinrich’s, Domino Theory, noted that the third element, the Unsafe Act, led to nearly ____ percent of all accidents.

A

90

338
Q

The Human Factors Theory suggests three broad factors lead to accidents:

A
  1. Overload
  2. Inappropriate response
  3. Inappropriate activity
339
Q

_____ Theory suggests that for a single accident there may be many contributory factors.

A

Multiple Causation

340
Q

Multiple Causation Theory the contributory factors can be grouped into two categories:

A
  1. Behavioral

2. Enviromental

341
Q

The major contribution of the Multiple Causation Theory is to show that rarely, if ever, is an accident the result of a single cause or act.

A

True

342
Q

According to this theory, all accidents are treated as acts of God:

A

Pure Chance Theory

343
Q

Removing any element breaks the chain and reduces the risk of an accident describes which theory:

A

The Domino Theory

344
Q

One of _____ functions is to develop and enforce mandatory job safety and health standards.

A

OSHA

345
Q

Title I of SARA made training and response planning mandatory for all fire departments that intend to respond to _____ incidents.

A

hazardous materials

346
Q

Title II of SARA includes the ______ Act which requires the EPA to work with states and localities to plan for hazardous materials incidents and to give communities the tools to obtain information about hazards in their localities.

A

Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know

347
Q

Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program:

A

NFPA 1500

348
Q

Chapter 1 of NFPA 1500:

A

Administration

349
Q

Chapter 2 of NFPA 1500:

A

Referenced Publications

350
Q

Chapter 3 of NFPA 1500:

A

Definitions

351
Q

Chapter 4 of NFPA 1500:

A

Fire Department Administration

352
Q

The _____ must be an officer from within the agency and should be formally appointed by the fire chief or the head of the agency:

A

Health and Safety Officer (HSO)

353
Q

The HSO’s most important job is the implementation and management of the department’s ______.

A

safety program

354
Q

Although the ultimate responsibility for the safety of the department’s personnel lies with the _____.

A

fire chief

355
Q

One of the HSO’s duties is to investigate _____.

A

accidents

356
Q

The principal reasons for investigators and documenting accidents are to prevent ____

A

similar situations

357
Q

The ____ shall have ultimate responsibility for incident scene safety as specified in NFPA 1561, Standard on Emergency Services Incident Management System.

A

incident commander

358
Q

Standard for Professional Competence of Responders to Hazardous Materials Incidents:

A

NFPA 472

359
Q

Standard on Fire Department Infection Control Program, during EMS operations:

A

NFPA 1581

360
Q

The HSO shall report directly to the ____ or his designated rep.

A

fire chief

361
Q

Since 1987, reported training related injuries have increased by nearly ____ percent.

A

21

362
Q

Correcting unsafe acts during ____ and even during actual events, reduces accidents among firefighters.

A

training

363
Q

Standard on Live Fire Training Evolutions in Structures:

A

NFPA 1403

364
Q

The second most frequent situation in which firefighters are killed is _________.

A

while responding to and returning from incidents

365
Q

When the driver is under the direct supervision of an officer:

A

that officer shall assume responsibility for the driver’s actions.

366
Q

Over ___ percent of those killed in emergency vehicle crashes were not wearing seat belts at the time of the accident.

A

70

367
Q

Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus:

A

NFPA 1901

368
Q

In some situations, turning off some warning devices can increase the safety of both civilians and emergency personnel.

A

True

369
Q

Cases involving _____ are the most prevalent of the motor vehicle incidents per firefighter deaths.

A

tankers

370
Q

Standard for the Inspection, Maintenance, Testing, and Retirement of In-Service Automotive Fire Apparatus:

A

NFPA 1911

371
Q

Standard for Fire Apparatus Driver/Operator Professional Qualifications:

A

NFPA 1002

372
Q

NFPA 1500 clearly states that the officer (of the unit) is responsible for the overall safety of assigned personnel and equipment. This included providing proper supervision of the _____.

A

driver

373
Q

Chapter 7 of NFPA 1500:

A

Protective Clothing and Protective Equipment

374
Q

Chapter 6 of NFPA 1500:

A

Fire Apparatus, Equipment, and Drivers/Operators

375
Q

Chapter 5 of NFPA 1500:

A

Training and Education

376
Q

An estimated _____ of firefighters per shift are not equipped with SCBA equipment.

A

1/3

377
Q

SCBA should be provided and shall be used by all members working in areas where:

A
  • The atmosphere is hazardous
  • The atmosphere is suspected of being hazardous
  • The atmosphere may rapidly become hazardous
378
Q

NFPA 1500 indicates that at least one team, consisting of at least ____ individuals shall be kept immediately available for purposes of rescue.

A

2

379
Q

The Phoenix Fire Department states that “if you extend an attack line 150 feet, get 40 feet off the line, and run out of air, it will take ____ minutes to find and remove you from the structure.”

A

22

380
Q

It takes ___ firefighters to rescue one.

A

12

381
Q

____ in five rescuers will get in trouble themselves.

A

one

382
Q

A 3,000 psi SCBA bottle lasts ___ minutes.

A

18

383
Q

U.S. Fire Administration data suggests that the most dangerous activity at the foreground is _______.

A

advancing hose lines

384
Q

Many accidents involving fire apparatus are the result of ______.

A

excessive speed

385
Q

NFPA 1500 indicates that a minimum of ____ individuals is required to start interior operations in a hazardous environment.

A

4

386
Q

As company officers you should tour the station every day and inspect in once a _____.

A

month

387
Q

Standard for Life Safety Codes:

A

NFPA 101

388
Q

The exhaust from all internal combustion engines, contains over ____ individual hazardous chemical components that, when combined, can result in as many as _____ chemical compounds.

A

100

10,000

389
Q

Approximately 40 to 50 percent of all on duty firefighter fatalities are the result of ______.

A

heart attack

390
Q

No wonder strain and sprain injuries represent ___ percent of all injuries and heart attacks and strokes represent nearly ___ percent of all deaths in the fire service when firefighters do not have an opportunity to warm up.

A

49

42

391
Q

Health Related Fitness Programs for Firefighters:

A

NFPA 1583

392
Q

Mental condition as well as ____ condition is a part of the firefighter’s overall well being.

A

physical

393
Q

Five generally accepted tools for dealing with CIS:

A
  1. Training
  2. Scene Management
  3. Peer support
  4. Debriefing
  5. Counseling
394
Q

_____ stress is the inevitable result of trauma experienced by fire service personnel.

A

Critical incident

395
Q

Generally, CID briefings should be held at a station within ___ to ___ hours after the incident.

A

1 to 3

396
Q

Make safety a core value by supporting LACK. What is LACK?

A

Leadership
Accountability
Communication
Knowledge

397
Q

Good scene management focuses on the priorities of the ____, provides for the ____ of all concerned, and seeks to reduce further loss.

A

incident, safety

398
Q

Action taken during the first ____ minutes sets the tone for the entire alarm and has significant impact on the overall outcome of the event.

A

5

399
Q

Property conservation should be addressed in _____ planning efforts and started upon arrival of fire suppression forces.

A

pre-incident

400
Q

_____ involves using the LEAST destructive means for entering, using early and aggressive ventilation, using a coordinated fire attach with the proper hose lines, salvage covers, etc.

A

Property conservation

401
Q

____ safety is the first priority.

A

Life

402
Q

______ stabilization focuses on reducing injuries and loss after operations are started.

A

Incident

403
Q

_____ is process of gathering and analyzing information that is critical to the outcome of the event.

A

Size-up

404
Q

For fires, there are three possible situations:

A
  1. Nothing showing
  2. Smoke showing
  3. Fire showing
405
Q

____ involves more than what you see upon arrival.

A

Size up

406
Q

When you are working in or near moving traffic, you are considered a ______ and fall under federal Department of Transportation (DOT) standards and regulations.

A

highway worker

407
Q

The second company to block on a limited access highway should establish a second upstream block at least ____ mile from the main activity area.

A

1/2

408
Q

Traffic cones can be extended ______ of the blocking apparatus towards the activity area to keep vehicles out of the shadow area.

A

downstream

409
Q

Remember that ____ is the first step in the action plan.

A

size up

410
Q

When initiating a size up it may be helpful to answer these three questions:

A
  1. What have I got?
  2. Where is it going?
  3. How can I stop it?
411
Q

A fire in a commercial building at night may present REDUCED life safety concerns but will likely have delayed discovery.

A

True

412
Q

In many cases, especially where resources may be limited or where the building’s condition is doubtful, it may be best to focus resources on protecting the _____.

A

exposures

413
Q

There are three modes of operation at a fire:

A
  1. Offensive
  2. Defensive
  3. Transitional
414
Q

In the ____ mode operations are conducted from a safe distance outside of the structure and may focus more on containing the fire rather than on extinguishing it.

A

defensive

415
Q

During the ____ mode, operations are chaining from either an offensive to a defensive mode, or from a defensive to an offensive mode.

A

transitional

416
Q

There are three modes of command:

A
  1. Command
  2. Attack
  3. Combination of both
417
Q

Identifying potential safety concerns to members and taking actions to reduce risks to firefighters are without a doubt two of the most important thing that can be accomplished.

A

True

418
Q

The general rule is that the next time that command is passed, it must be to ______.

A

a chief officer

419
Q

Some departments use the acronym OSCAR to assist in remembering all of the components of an initial size up report.

A
Occupancy
Size
Conditions
Actions
Resources
420
Q

After ___ or ___ minutes of interior firefighting operations, you should see significant progress.

A

10 or 15

421
Q

An _____ is an organized course of action that addresses all phases of incident control within a specified time frame.

A

action plan

422
Q

Second, the action plan should address ______

A

all phases of the emergency

423
Q

The third key element in the definition of action plan is within a ______.

A

specified time frame

424
Q

_____ is the overall plan that is used to gain control of an incident.

A

Strategy

425
Q

The action plan puts the ____ and ____ phases into motion.

A

planning and thinking

426
Q

A commander may assign ____ with very specific directions.

A

tasks

427
Q

The first ___ minutes of operation at an emergency scene are the most critical.

A

5

428
Q

Jim Crawford, suggests that limiting damage once the event starts should also be part of our risk -management process.

A

True

429
Q

FIRESCOPE stands for FIre REsources of Southern California Organized for Potential Emergencies.

A

True

430
Q

Chief Alan Brunacini of the Phoenix Fire Department.

A

True

431
Q

Incident Management System (IMS) implies that very aspect of controlling an incident is accomplished in an ____ and ____ way.

A

orderly and logical

432
Q

The ______ defines the principles, roles, and structures that organize how we respond as a nation.

A

National Response Framework (NRF)

433
Q

The focus of IMS is on effective management of ____ and _____.

A

people and resources

434
Q

____ provides a consistent nationwide template to enable federal, State, tribal, and loca governments, the private sector, and nongovernment organizations to work together to prepare, etc.

A

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

435
Q

The ____ is a perfect example of a practical application of organizational and management theory.

A

IMS

436
Q

The ____ are often the best persons to gather the information needed for the PIA.

A

incident commander

437
Q

A formal post incident analysis should be conducted in the following circumstances:

A
  • A civilian fatality
  • A firefighter injury or fatality
  • A hazmat incident that results in chemical exposure
  • Any multi casualty event
  • Any firefighting operation presenting unusual situations
  • Any event obtained during the analysis that would benefit others
438
Q

The National Response Framework Preparedness Cycle consists of:

A
  1. Plan
  2. Organize, Train, Equip
  3. Exercise
  4. Evaluate and Improve
439
Q

The Preparedness Cycle builds ______

A

capability

440
Q

Many characteristics make IMS work. Two of these have to do with communications. The first is the use of _____. The second is the use of _____.

A

plain language

common terminology

441
Q

The Technical Specialists are within the _____ Section.

A

Planning

442
Q

Fayol’s Principles: 14

A
  1. Division of Labor
  2. Authority and responsibility
  3. Discipline
  4. Unity of command
  5. UNITY OF DIRECTION
  6. Subordination of individual interests
  7. Proper remuneration
  8. Centralization of authority
  9. Scalar (continuous) chain of ranks
  10. Order
  11. Equity and fairness
  12. Initiative
  13. Stability of our personnel
  14. Esprit de corps