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A220 > Systems Knowledge > Flashcards

Systems Knowledge Flashcards

1
Q

FWD Cargo can be heated what is it’s range?

Low?

High?

A

Low 15-20

High 20-25

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2
Q

What are the settings for the temperature control knob in auto mode?

C

12 o’clock

H

A

C - 18*

12 - 24*

H - 30*

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3
Q

What and where are the outflow, 2 safety, Neg press, 4 equalizing valves?

A

Outflow valve - fwd wing root

2 safety valves - rear bulk head

Neg press relief - rear bulk head

4 press equalizing valves - between cabin and cargo

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4
Q

When is emergency return pressurization mode occur?

A

Return below 5,000 ft within 10 min

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5
Q

What does the guarded EMER DEPRESS on the pressurization panel do?

A

Outflow opens depressurization A/C to 15,000ft or aircraft altitude whichever is less

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6
Q

What does the the ditching push button do on the pressurization panel do? (4)

A

Opens the outflow valve then closes it

Closes:
- pack control valves
- trim air valve
- avionics exhaust valves

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7
Q

What are the three modes of the two FMS (3 S’s)

A

Synchro - talk to each other

Split - independent

Single - only 1

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8
Q

What does H14/R16 on PERF/ARR page?

A

Headwind 14 Kts

Cross wing from the Right 16 Kts

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9
Q

When selecting NADP what do each of

NADP 1
NADP 2

Mean?

A

Standard ICAO NADP2 (Acel/Thr Red/EO Acel Height)

NADP 1 - is used when close in noise reduction is the priority and requires the aircraft to be flown at a lower speed, higher angle of climb, and maintaining the take-off flap/slat configuration for a longer period (3000/1500/1000).

NADP 2 - is used when it is desirable to reduce noise further from the airport. Acceleration to flap/slat
retraction speed and transition to climb configuration begins earlier in the departure (1000/1000/1000).

(Must notify ATC clearance if using NADP1)

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10
Q

What does the 1/2 bank button under HDG do?

A

Reduces bank to 15*

Arc on roll scale

(Auto > 31,500 ft)

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11
Q

At what lateral distance does VNAV not work?

A

X track of >10 nm

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12
Q

What occurs when Red CABIN ALT (>14,500) and alt is >25,000ft? (5)

A

EDM auto (FMA EDM X2)
Seatbelt on,
7700,
Vmo-10,
Alt preselect 15,000,

(Auto if cabin alt is <14,500ft, EDM must be manually selected and transponder does not auto fill; seatbelts; pax O2; VMO-10)
(Cannot select if <25,000)

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13
Q

How do you turn off EDM? (4)

A

Press

AP
AT
EDM
AP on side stick

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14
Q

What are the ways to disengage the AP?

(7)

A

AP FCP
AP side stick
Trim side stick
TOGA
Side stick move
Rudder move
Tiller move

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15
Q

What auto land levels are there and what is the equivalent Cat I-III level?

A

Land 3 = Cat IIIb or Cat IIIa,
Land 2 = Cat IIIa,
APPR2 = Cat II,
APPR1 = Cat II,

(APPR 1&2 require manual landings)

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16
Q

What makes up the communication systems? (5)

A

3 VHF
2 HF
1 SAT
CPDLC
ACARS

(CNS button stands for Communication Navigation and Surveillance)

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17
Q

What makes up the electrical system? (5)

A

3 VFG (2 Eng 1 APU)
3 TRU
2 NiCad batteries
APU
RAT

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18
Q

What is the AC bus priority? (4)

A

Eng Generator
EXT Pwr
APU
Opposite side gen

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19
Q

Which two busses don’t display on the synoptic page?

A

Battery direct bus 1 & 2

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20
Q

When is the battery being charged?

A

Batt 1 or 2 must be AUTO and the AC Bus is powered (Ext)

(The battery chargers are turned on during
external power ground service mode
operation, regardless of the position of the
BATT switches)

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21
Q

What does the CDC do? (3)

A

Control and Distribution Cabinets

Manage electric loads
Distribute power
Monitor CB’s
1&2 masters 3,4,5 slaves

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22
Q

What happens if only one battery is in auto and is powering the system?

What busses get power?

A

Battery powers DC Ess 1,2,3
Discharges after 5 min

( EICAS message)

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23
Q

When does “APU off” Illuminates?

A

When APU is operating but not selected

(Same with the GEN)

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24
Q

What does the button Cabin Pwr on the electrical panel do?

A

Load sheds Pwr from the major systems in the cabin to conserve energy

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25
Q

What does the L DISC or R DISC switch do?

A

Mechanically disconnects Eng VFG from engine gear box

Irreversible

(Variable frequency Generator on ENG)

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26
Q

What is FIDEX?

What does it control?

A

Fire protection and Extinguishing control unit

Dual channel controller
Uses EICAS
Each channel has its own DC Bus

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27
Q

What do we have fire Detection and Protection for? (4)

What do we just have detection for? (2)

A

Engine
APU
Cargo
Lav

Detection only for
Gear
Equip bay

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28
Q

What does the amber band on the BTL 1 switch mean? (3)

A

Bottle discharged
Bottle pressure low
Squib failure

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29
Q

What happens with APU FIRE on the Grd? (3)

A

APU shuts down
Horn sounds
Bottle discharges automatically

(Not in flight)

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30
Q

What makes up the Fire Det/Prot for the cargo?

A

4 class C detectors/suppressors in each compartment ceiling and 1 Hight Rate bottle and 1 Low rate bottle.

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31
Q

What happens when you press the illuminated guarded Cargo FWD/AFT FIRE switch? (3)

A

Arms the HRT and LRT extinguishers
Recirc fan off
Ventilation shuts off

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32
Q

What class of extinguisher bottles do we have for cargo compartments and how do they work?

A

Class C
1 HRT halon blows immediately
1 LRT halon slowly releases for 60 min

(Optional bottle for ETOPS)

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33
Q

What is done for equipment bay fire or gear fire?

A

Nothing, there is just detection.

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34
Q

How can you tell where the lav fire is?

A

MW caution
EICAS - LAV SMOKE
FA CMS panel (cabin management system)

(Extinguisher under sink discharges in waste basket)

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35
Q

How do you do a fire test?

A

Systems
Avionics
AVIO
FIRE

(Says Done beside fire if passed)

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36
Q

What makes up the secondary flight controls?

Front to back (5)

A

8 slats (leading edge),
8 spoilers,
2 Grd spoilers (Inbd),
4 flaps,
1 horizontal Stabilizer,

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37
Q

What happens when all 10 REU’s fail

(Remote Electronic Units - transmit commands from PFCC to HYD PCU power control units)

A

AFCU kicks in

(Alternate Flight Control Unit sends the signal)

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38
Q

Which control surfaces does the fly by wire system control?

A

All surfaces but flaps and slats

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39
Q

In a turn, at what bank angle does aft side stick pressure need to be applied to maintain alt?

A

> 33* bank

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40
Q

What is Trim Speed?

A

Trimming the HSTAB to maintain speed set by pilot

(Displayed as a cyan triangle when auto pilot is off)

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41
Q

What is the bank limit?

A

80* bank

(>= 30 bank maintained w neutral side stick)

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42
Q

What mode is available if FBW sys can’t operate in normal mode?

A

Direct mode

(Direct on FLT Control synoptic)

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43
Q

What are characteristics of direct mode of FBW system? (3)

A

Loss of AP
Aileron and Rudder trimmed manually
No dampening does side stick

(Direct on PFD in Yellow
EICAS - FLT CTRL DIRECT)

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44
Q

Red DIRECT on PFD mean with a EICAS - FLT CTRL DIRECT
What has failed?

A

REU failure (Remote Electronic Unit Failure)

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45
Q

PCU’s

Describe the ailerons

Which HYD?

A

Elec controlled HYD actuated

2 PCU’s each
OTBD HYD2
INBD HYD3

(Direct mode HYD 3 active)

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46
Q

PCU’s

Describe how the Elevators are controlled?

What HYD?

A

Elec controlled HYD actuated
2 PCU’s
Left HYD1 + HYD3
Right HYD2 + HYD3

(Direct mode Inbd HYD3 is active)

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47
Q

PCU’s

Describe how the rudder is controlled

HYDs

A

Electric controlled HYD actuated
3 PCU’s
HYD 1,2,3

(Direct mode lower HYD 3 is active)

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48
Q

What is the only control surface that is not electric controlled and HYD actuated?

A

HSTAB

Elec/elec

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49
Q

How can you tell quickly if rudder trim is neutral?

A

Green triangle

(On ground only)

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50
Q

What happens when you operate both side sticks at the same time

A

Signal is added together and you get a
“Dual Imput”
Red DUAL on PFD

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51
Q

What Is the side stick priority and how do we activate it?(2)

How long does it last?

A

Momentary short period - red button on side stick (45s)

Latched priority as long as latched- glare shield guarded switch

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52
Q

What control surfaces deploy on touchdown?

A

MFS - Multi Function Spoilers 8
GS - Ground Spoilers (inbd ones) 2
Ailerons 2

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53
Q

Describe the slats

Type
Power/control
Range

A

Flower type
Elect controlled HYD actuated
2 SFECU’s per surface
Extension in/out/mid/full

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54
Q

What does the alternate flap switch below the slat/flaps do?

A

Norm - lever controls

DPLY - deploys flaps/slats to level 3 (lever overridden)

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55
Q

Which fuel tanks vent to which?

A

L Main and Center to L Surge

R Main to R Surge

(Vents out NACA Scoop)
(Tanks are integral type wet wing design)

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56
Q

What system is in place to help reduce the risk of fumes ingniting in the tank?

A

Inerting System provides nitrogen enriched air in tanks to lower the risk of ignition.

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57
Q

What pumps transfer fuel to different tanks?

A

Transfer ejector pumps from center —> main
Scavenger ejector pumps from main —>collector
Main ejector pumps from collector —>Eng

58
Q

What does the AC Boost fuel pump do? (5)

A

Collector —> Eng
Starting
Main ejector pump failures
X feed
Fuel transfer

(When in auto comes on automatically)

59
Q

When AC Boost fuel pump is in auto it comes on when? (3)

A

Low fuel pressure
Fuel imbalance
Fuel for APU

60
Q

What does the L ENG/R ENG Run switch do below the thrust levers?

A

Turns off the SOV closing fuel to the engine

(So does the guarded L Eng fire switch)

61
Q

How does the APU get fuel when the engine is on and when the engine is off?

A

Eng on - main ejector pumps
Eng off - APU ECU commands L/R Boost pump

(If in auto)

62
Q

How can you turn off the APU SOV?

A

APU fire switch

(If there is a fire it’s automatic)

63
Q

When does fuel transfer automatically between center and main tanks?

A

When main tanks drops to approx 90%

(Uses main ejector pumps or boost pumps)

64
Q

What is the max fuel you can transfer from Main to main tank?

A

180 Kg 227?

65
Q

What is the max fuel you can transfer to center tanks?

A

454 Kg (new aug 2021)

(Auto if on the ground and boost pump is in auto)

66
Q

When do we use the switch GRAV XFR?

A

Used to balance the fuel when the powered cross feed system cannot correct imbalance.

67
Q

What powers each of the HYD systems and what are their back ups?

Sys 1 (1)
Sys 2 (1)
Sys3 (3)

(Hint - think of the panel)

A

HYD 1 - L Eng EDP 1A - back up PTU from HYD 2

HYD 2 - R Eng EDP 2A - back up ACMP 2B

HYD 3 - ACMP 3A - back up ACMP 3B
- back up RAT

68
Q

When does the RAT deploy automatically?

A

Loss of all AC Power

(Provides AC power and HYD pressure 2850 psi for primary flight controls)

69
Q

What conditions does the PTU run automatically?

A

> 5% quantity in the #1 system
#2 sys is pressurized

One of:
T/O thrust,
Slat/flap 4 or 5 or ALT Flap,
EDP 1 fails or left eng fail,
Park bark off,

70
Q

What conditions does the ACMP 2B operate automatically?

A

> 5% quantity in the #1 system
AC power

One of:
T/O thrust,
Slat/flap 4 or 5 or ALT Flap,
EDP 2 fails or right eng fail
Park bark off
EDP 1 fails or left eng fails

71
Q

What conditions does ACMP 3A operate normally? (3)

A

> 5% quantity
Temp norm
Press <3350 psi

72
Q

What conditions does the ACMP 3B operate automatically?

A

> 5% quantity
AC power
Temp normal

One of:
T/O thrust
Slat/flap >0
ACMP 3A fails

73
Q

Where is the wing heated when WAI is on?

Does this work on both sides OEI?

A

Slats 2,3,4

YES One eng can cross supply both wings

74
Q

How does the ice detector work?

A

Vibration frequency
Just like Q400

( adjusts the stall speed protection)

75
Q

What is a Piccolo tube

A

Ducts for hot bleed air inside the wings

76
Q

How long is the WAI inhibited? (2)

A

2 min after T/O
or
1500 ft

which ever is first

77
Q

When is CAI inhibited?

A

Grd when eng not running
>15*

78
Q

What does the PITOT HEAT button do?

A

Used for heating the ADSP and TAT probes on the ground

(Round for two min)

79
Q

When do we get a T/O warn? (6)

A

Rudder/elevator trim,
Flaps,
Spoilers,
Auto pilot,
Park brk,
Side stick input.

80
Q

What is the priority for the warning system? (3)

A

Stall
TAWS
TCAS
All other

81
Q

Describe the CVR (3)

Duration?
Turns on and off?
Where?

A

Records the last 2 hrs (or 25)
Strob or beacon on/off (WOW back up)
(Stops 10 min after Beacon/Strobes turned off)
Aft cargo compt

90 day locator beacon
Erase 2 sec on Grd prk brk on/WOW

82
Q

Describe the FDR (3)

A

Records the last 50 hr
Aft cargo compt
Strobe or beacon on/off or first engine on and stops when last engine off
90 day locator beacon

(Pilot event sends a marker to the FDR)

83
Q

What is the AHMS

A

Maint computer

84
Q

What does selecting the gear down lever do hydraulically?

A

Releases the pressure holding the gear up locks
Gravity falls down

85
Q

When does the gear horn sound? (3)

A

<1,000 RA
Thr idle
Slat/flaps Ldg pos

86
Q

What are the operating speeds/degrees for the nose wheel steering?

A

0-30 Kts - 80*
60 Kts - 20*
>100kts - 9*

(Between 30-60 reduces to 20*)

130* with tow bar

87
Q

What is operated on HYD 1 system

Outside from the usual elevator rudder spoilers (3)

A

Flap
Gear
Brakes

88
Q

What is operated on the HYD 2 system

Outside of the usual elevator rudder spoilers (4)

A

Aileron
Slat
Nose steering
PTU

89
Q

What is operated on the HYD 3 system

Outside from the shared elevator rudder spoilers (3)

A

Aileron
Slats
Flap

90
Q

When does the auto brake work on T/O? (2)

A

> 60 Kts

and

Thr 2x at idle

91
Q

What angle of coverage do you get with taxi lights and landing lights?

A

Taxi - 20* narrow 60* wide
Landing - 9* (3* each L NOSE R)

92
Q

What powers the emergency lights outside?

A

6 DC batteries

(Emergency lights come on when DC power is lost)

93
Q

At what distance do we get a proximate traffic cue

(Filled diamond)

A

6.5 nm horizontal
1200 ft vertically

94
Q

What above/below distances does the TCAS operate?

A

Norm 2700/2700
Above 9900/2700
Below 2700/9900
ABV/BLW 9900/9900

95
Q

What are the different WS messages on the DU by the weather radar?

A

Predictive:

Caution “Monitor Radar display” (yellow)

Warning - T/O and climb out “WS AHEAD WS AHEAD” (red)

Approach “GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD” (red)

Reactive - “Windshear windshear windshear”

(Technically must go around for Any warning predictive or reactive, better be sure it’s safe and clear if you decide to continue)

(Predictive 50-2,400ft T/O
2,300-50 Approach)
(Reactive 10-1500 ft)

96
Q

What is the distance of the Weather Radar

Turb?

What is GCS?
What is PAC?

A

320nm 120* scan
Turb 40 nm

GCS - ground clutter suspension

PAC - Path Attenuation Mode (behind storm)

(Does not detect CAT)

97
Q

What WX Radar tilt up does auto give you for T/O?

A

4-7*

98
Q

What does “monitor radar display” mean?

“WS ahead”

A

Monitor radar display=WS conditions

“WS ahead” = entering warning area

TURN!!!!

99
Q

What happens >35,000 ft to the crew oxygen?

A

100% oxygen

100
Q

When does the PAX oxygen drop automatically?

A

Cabin altitude 14,500 ft

(13 min available)

101
Q

How many and where are the fire extinguisher and PBE’s?

A

1 FLT deck
2 FWD Galley
1 AFT Galley

For both Extinguisher and PBE

102
Q

Where does the APU get its fuel?

A

From L collector Tank

Supplied by L AC boost pump.

( R if L unavailable)

103
Q

What are the different places to shut off the APU? (3)

A

FLT deck (X2)
Service panel in nose
Shut off switch in APU compartment

104
Q

What type of doors does the A220 have?

A

Pax door type C,
Over wing doors type III,

105
Q

How does the FLT deck door emergency button work?

And if denied what is the wait?

A

Unlocks door for 5 sec after a 30 sec wait

If denied 30 min wait

106
Q

What type of eng does the A220 have?

A

Pratt and Whitney PW 1524G
Dual spool
High Bipass turbo Fan
12:1

107
Q

What equipment is run on the N2 gear box? (7)

A

PMAG (Permeant Magnetic Alternator Generator)
Starter
Fuel
Oil
HYD pumps
VFG (variable frequency generator)
FADEC.

108
Q

What is the Eng start sequence?

A

20-24% N1 ignition
20 sec EGT and N1 increases

62% N2 FF 500 pph at idle

109
Q

What are the reductions in Take Off power?

A

TO - max Pwr
TO1 - 10% reduction
TO2 - 20% red
TO3 - 30% red

110
Q

What is the reduction in power for CLB settings?

A

CLB Max
CLB1 - 5% reduction
CLB2 - 10% reduction

(Magenta/auto - cyan manual is selected)

111
Q

What is the APU fuel usage on the ground per hour? (2)

A

When providing electric Pwr 90 kg/hr

Elec and bleed 115 Kg/hr

112
Q

What will trigger an engine start delay? (2)

A

EGT to high from quick turn around

or

-17* or below

113
Q

What does FADEC do when an engine fails?

A

Attempts a relight 2 sec after failure

3 attempts

114
Q

What does a hot start look like?

A

EEC cuts fuel flow to control the temperature up to 3 times

(Then R ENG START ABORT yellow)

115
Q

What happens if you leave it in reverse after landing?

When?

A

Auto cut back at 55 Kts

116
Q

Why do we get a THRUST SET on T/O?

A

TLLS - Thrust Limit at Low Speed

(Eng limited and elevator loads nose gear during T/O)

117
Q

What is APR thrust?

A

Automatic Power Reserve

In the event of an engine failure increases the thrust rating of the remaining engine

118
Q

When does APR activate?

A

N1 is 15% lower than other eng
TLA >20*
Flex or Derate selected

119
Q

When does APR deactivate?

A

400 ft
Relight
New Thrust selected

120
Q

Are we able the reconnect after a L DISC?

A

No

121
Q

What systems do you expect to loose if landing on RAT? (2)

A

No Nosewheel steering

No Braking

122
Q

What does it mean when you hear a horn on the walk around?

A

APU FIRE

Auto shutdown

123
Q

If you hear “SMOKE” on the flight deck, what does it mean? (2)

A

Equipment bay fire

or

LAV Smoke

124
Q

During cross feed which tank supply’s the fuel?

A

Heavier tank

125
Q

How do you pick which tank to supply the eng?

A

Select switch to CTR

Select Boost for the side you want

126
Q

Why the 2830 kg limit for APU unattended?

A

Wing balance issue (wing bending)
>2830kg the airplane will try to balance and potentially vent fuel causing a spill

127
Q

What is washout function of CLB-2?

A

Slowly increases to CLB

128
Q

What is the IAMS?

A

Integrated Air Management System

2 channel controller for the air

129
Q

When manually pressurization what do the notches mean on the dial?

3 o’clock
9
Notch at bottom

A

1,000 fpm - 3 or 9 o’clock

To

2,500 fpm - Full left or full right

130
Q

What three situations does AT come on automatically? (3)

A

GA (TOGA)
WS (TOGA)
EDM

131
Q

What will disengage the AT?

A

Thrust lever movement

132
Q

What is the Gotcha with TOGA when touching down in a GA?

A

<400 ft it commands thrust to HOLD not max

Must advance thrust manually

133
Q

How is braking provided with a electrical power failure?

A

Braking is provided by Prk Brk

(Gradually applied)

134
Q

What do you have to remember when RTO below 60 Kts

A

Manual braking

No auto braking

135
Q

What braking do we get with auto braking in RTO or HI selected?

A

Max braking

136
Q

What braking do you get with ALT Brk

A

Regular Braking

No protections

137
Q

What is Vac?

A

Approach Climb Speed (also known as V2GA or V2 GO-AROUND) – Target climb speed to be attained during a go-around with one engine inoperative.

138
Q

When can you get Derate but not Flex

A

Anti Ice on

139
Q

What is controlling what in FLC for AS and Descent rate?

A

AS controlled by Pitch

Descent rate controlled by thrust

(Pro tip - AT off use VS and VNAV off, NOT FLC)
AT on use FLC

140
Q

How can you tell if FMS will be available in the GA?

A

FMS1 in blue is on the bottom right below ILS freq and Crs

(Also listed below Loc 1 on FMA)

141
Q

What does a dumbbell symbol at the PTM pitch target marker indicate at rotation?

A

Tail strike

<3* from tail strike angle

or rate too excessive

142
Q

When MAN TEMP is selected on what duct temp do you command at

C

H

A

C - 5*

H - 65*

A220 (17 decks)

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