System Knowledge 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does V Speed update mean?

A

Weight change and new more accurate V Speeds available

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2
Q

What is Fail operational vs fail passive?

A

Fail operational means single fault below AH down grades to fail passive with no indication ( higher redundancy 3 RA’s, 3 VHF NAV’s)

Fail Passive means failure <200 ft causes no significant deviation to flight path
(2 RA’s and 2 VHF’s)

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3
Q

When does the Autoland System evaluate the capability?

A

2,000 AAE

APPR LOC1 —> APPR LOC

Changes from DMC Data Concentration modular cabinet (flight guidance and auto throttle functions)
To PFCC (primary flight control computers (3 sets) )

(FCP (DG FLC) does not work only way out of the approach is TOGA)

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4
Q

1500-800ft what could we do wrong that will cause you to not get a LAND 3?

A

No Flap?

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5
Q

What is expected on FMA at flare on an autoland?

A

RAF

Retard
Align
Flare

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6
Q

If departure is rwy heading, how do you have the cpt set up?

A

Select the heading, but Leave the HDG button and NAV blank unselected

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7
Q

What does ICE - ON on the landing wat do? (4)

A

Adds +5 to the speeds for ice
Adds distance to the landing because of the added speed
Gives a reminder for the bleeds
Calculates the N1 change with bleeds ON

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8
Q

What are the protected fuels? (6)

A

ALTN
• CONT 5 MIN
• ETOPS
• SDTO
• SUPP
• RESERVE
• NAIFR SAP

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9
Q

What is ALPHA LIMIT caution light mean

A

displayed by the Fly-by-Wire system after ice has been detected and the wing anti-ice is off.

V ref + 5 (see chart )

(Ice dispersal procedures, Ice-Dispersal Procedure must be accomplished when directed by a
Non-Normal procedure whenever the crew believes the ice has
been accreted on the aircraft. This procedure allows for FLAP 4 or
FLAP 5 landings, with a ΔVREF of 10 knots when ice remains on the wings’ leading edge.)

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10
Q

What happens when pitch > 30 up, Bank >60, pitch > 20 nose down?

A

Hud declutters

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11
Q

How to read cabin temp control on SYS

Top number
Middle
Bottom

A

Top number - Actual temp
Middle - pilot selected
Bottom - duct temp

(Yellow next to middle number is FA selection)

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12
Q

How long do you have to turn the Fuel Man XFR off once you get a FUEL MAN XFR COMPLETE before you for a FUEL MAN XFR FAIL?

A

2 min

(Just a message, Note:The fuel feed and transfer system continue to be fully functional even in the presence of these messages, must inform maint to reset)

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13
Q

Are APU starts permitted during Fueling?

A

Yes

(AOM 1 Supplementary Techniques 1.03.49 pg 1)

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14
Q

What is the difference between a engine start and an engine Air Start (ATS)?

A

No FADEC protections

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15
Q

When would you ever select pack flow Hi?

A

Smoke or odour evacuation

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16
Q

What does the reversal FD/AT ALTN switch do?

A

The FD/AT can be manually changed with the ALTN switch on the Reversion Switch Panel (RSP), which ison the center pedestal.

(Two FD/AT computers are available for flight guidance but only one is active at a time. They alternate automatically every day, or if there is a failure of the active dual channel)

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17
Q

What is the OMS?

A

Onboard Maintenance System

Application that provides access to stored maintenance data

18
Q

What is the ADSP and how many?

A

Air Data System Probe

4

19
Q

What is APR?

A

Automatic power reserve

The APR function provides automatic additional thrust when there is an Opposite Engine Low-Thrust
(OELT) condition during takeoff.

20
Q

What is TLLS?

A

TLLS - Thrust limit at low speed limits thrust for take off to ensure that the nose landing gear is sufficiently loaded during the takeoff phase to 80 Kts.

(FADEC limits the thrust of the engines to approximately 60% of the takeoff power. As the aircraft accelerates in the takeoff run, thrust increases with airspeed and reaches full power at 80 kt)

21
Q

What is the difference between a fault and a failure?

A

Fault (blue) is a loss of redundancy

(Remember to check the SYN INFO page)

22
Q

What ADS-B and ADS-C does the A220 have?

CPDLC?

A

ADS-B OUT (not IN)

ADS-C

CPDLC - Fans 1/A and ATN

23
Q

How do you Manually program the Landing elevation?

A

TCP - Tune/Menu
PFD/NAV
L3 switched from Auto/Man
R3 adjusts

(Auto the Alt is set by destination)

24
Q

What is CSC soft key on the PERF CRZ page

A

Constant speed cruise

25
Q

CTP 1 Defaults to HF / VHF 3 page. Any fixes?

A

Transmit on VHF 1, it will prioritize it after that.

26
Q

When does thrust washout occur?

A

As the aircraft climbs above FL200, a washout function increases the available thrust to match maximum climb thrust (CLB)

27
Q

What are the 7 AT modes?

A

EDM SPD USPD THRUST HOLD RETARD LIM

28
Q

When EDM is selected what vertical mode is displayed?

A

EDM

29
Q

What thrust mode is displayed when the FD is selected off?

A

SPD mode

THR varies depending on speed selected (TCAS)

30
Q

When speed is reduced into the red what thrust mode becomes active?

A

USPD

(Caution Message - FD Mode Change)

31
Q

What modes are displayed when TOGA is selected?

A

Thrust / GA / VGA

32
Q

What is the difference between Derates Thrust and Reduced thrust?

A

Derated THR- TO1=90%
TO2=80%

Reduced THR CLB1=95%
CLB2=90%

33
Q

When does the washout feature of the climb power happen?

A

FL200 to MAX CLB

(But N1 target caret stays the same)

34
Q

What is targeted in SPD mode?

A

Airspeed

35
Q

What modes are displayed when TOGA is set?

A

Thrust/GA/VGA

36
Q

What has to happen on a Take off between 60-400agl (HOLD) and Derated T/O and Reactive WS is encountered?

A

Thrust would have to be advanced manually

37
Q

How is the AT mode determined?

A

Buy the vertical mode

38
Q

What AT mode changes have to be verbalized?

A

ALL

(Except Retard)

39
Q

Why MUST you select FD OFF X2 for manual flight?

A

To avoid conflicting AT modes for vertical flight

40
Q

What does the AT target in VS or FPA?

A

Targets Airspeed

Pitch targets the VS or FPA