Sweep 1.1 Flashcards

1
Q

Resting O2 consumption is

A

~250 ml/min, and the amount of dissolved O2 in the blood is less than 10% of what is needed to support basal metabolism.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Respiratory alkalosis

Respiratory rate faster

A

than normal or hyperventilation results in decreases in

[H+] and PCO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Respiratory acidosis

Respiratory rate

A

lower than normal or hypoventilation results in increases in
PCO2 and [H+]

breath-holding is extreme hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Effects of Hb on blood pH

Hb buffers

A

most of the H+ produced by the CA reaction
arterial pH = 7.4
venous pH = 7.36

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

H+ binds to —— residues on Hb, but affinity depends on ——

A

histidine

PO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

then in the lung, Hb releases

A

H+ to combine with HCO3- and CA reaction runs in reverse

CO2 + H2O ⇐ H2CO3 ⇐ HCO-3 + H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

CO2 is more —– in plasma than O2

A

soluble

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

increase Hb affinity for O2

A

à shift curve to left and Hb is saturated at a lower PO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

decrease Hb affinity for O2

A

à shift curve to right and Hb is less saturated for a given PO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

according to Vander, CO also shifts Hb-O2 dissociation curve to the

A

left (binding of CO will increase Hb’s affinity for whatever O2 is has).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

peripheral chemoreceptors are stimulated by

A

↑ [H+] or ↓ PO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

central chemoreceptors are stimulated by

A

↑ [H+] in extracellular fluid in brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

ventilation rate increases below PO2 of about

A

60 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

central chemoreceptor response to

A

decrease in brain pH is primary regulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Ventilation rate can be modified by

A

non-respiratory sources of H+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Immediate responses T

stimulate

A

ventilation –

increased dependence on anaerobic glycolysis –

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

hypoxic hypoxia or hypoxemia -

A

decreased arterial PO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

anemic hypoxia –

A

normal arterial PO2; decreased hemoglobin and O2 content of blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

ischemic hypoxia–

A

blood flow to tissues is too low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

histotoxic hypoxia -

A

cells unable to utilize O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

renin – part of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade to regulate

A

blood pressure

22
Q

ESRD patients have a reduced ability to

A

eliminate nitrogenous wastes (urea) and excess nitrogen is converted to ammonium. The excess ammonium has direct effects on health – the blood is alkalized which leads to an increased pH in the oral cavity.

23
Q

Contraindications for ESRD patients:

nephrotoxic drugs such as

A

tetracycline, acyclovir, aspirin, NSAIDs

24
Q

Contraindications for ESRD patients:

increased susceptibility to bleeding due to

A

destruction of platelets

25
Q

response of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) located at the intersection of the

A

macula densa of distal tubule with afferent and efferent arterioles – the JGA secretes the hormone renin which regulates systemic blood pressure, and, therefore, glomerular blood flow

26
Q

Inulin and creatinine are substances that can be used to

A

measure renal clearance

27
Q

inulin –

A

small polysaccharide; freely filtered and not secreted or absorbed

28
Q

creatinine –

A

product of muscle metabolism; freely filtered, not reasbsorbed, almost no secretion; normal creatinine levels < 1+ 0.5 mg/dl; if > 10 → requires dialysis

29
Q

Autoregulation involves

A

intrinsic mechanisms that adjust bloodflow through the glomerulus; it is achieved by two primary mechanisms

30
Q
  1. myogenic mechanism –
A

vascular smooth muscle tends to contract when it is stretched, and relax when not stretched

constriction or dilation of smooth muscle in afferent or efferent arterioles has contrasting effects on RBF

31
Q
  1. tubuloglomerular feedback –
A

feedback from the JGA adjusts afferent arteriole diameter and, thus, GFR

32
Q

CA inhibitors – reduce

A

Na+ reabsorption; proximal tubule is major site of action

33
Q

Loop diuretics – act in thick ascending limb to

A

inhibit Na+ reabsorption via the Na+ K+ 2Cl- symporter

34
Q

Thiazides – block

A

Na+Cl- symporter in early distal tubule

35
Q

K+ - sparing – two classes that both act in

A

late distal tubule and cortical collecting duct to inhibit sodium reabsorption AND potassium secretion

36
Q

K+- sparing

A
  1. aldosterone antagonists

2. ENaC blockers

37
Q

Aquaretics –

A

ADH receptor antagonists

38
Q

Osmotic diuretics increase the osmotic pressure in the

A

tubular fluid, and, thus, impair Na+ reabsorption.

39
Q

Osmotic diuretics Examples include

A

mannitol and pathologically elevated glucose.

40
Q

Acetazolamide is an example of a

A

CA inhibitor.

41
Q

CA inhibitors gain access to the proximal tubule via

A

secretion

42
Q

Most of the diuretic effect is in the proximal tubule where ~1/3 of Na+ reabsorption relies on the

A

Na+/H+ antiporter

43
Q

Diuretic effect is not large

downstream segments will increase

A

Na+ reabsorption when tubular Na+ increases

typically increases Na+ excretion to 5-10% of filtered load

44
Q

Loop diuretics are the most powerful of all diuretics; they inhibit

A

Na+ reabsorption in the ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

45
Q

Loop diuretics

Inhibit ———- in the thick ascending limb which inhibits ————-

A

Na+K+2Cl- symporter

Na+ reabsorption

46
Q

Loop diuretics

urine leaving loop is

A

not dilute

47
Q

Loop diuretics

no osmotic gradient established in the

A

medulla interstitium so water is not reabsorbed along collecting duct → urine is dilute (500 mOsm instead of 1400 mOsm)

48
Q

Can increase Na+ excretion to as much as

A

25% of filtered load, because Na+ reabsorption capacities downstream of their site of action are limited.

49
Q

Thiazide diuretics

Thiazide diuretics like

A

chlorothiazide are secreted into the proximal tubules, and they act in the early distal tubule to block the Na+Cl- transporter

50
Q

Using EPO to treat anemia in

A

dialysis patients

Treatment of anemia typically uses Procrit ® to stimulate erythropoiesis (rather than rely on transfusions).

51
Q

Side effects of Procrit ® treatment include

A

flu-like symptoms, headaches, high BP, and cardiovascular problems