Summary Flashcards

1
Q

What is moral universalism?

A

Moral universalism is the idea that some acts or universally considered as wrong, regardless of cultural variations in values.

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2
Q

What is moral relativism?

A

Moral relativism is the idea that one act may be considered as immoral in one culture, but may not be considered as immoral in a different culture.

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3
Q

What are the two key cultural value orientations?

A
  1. Autonomy (emphasises right to self-fulfilment)

2. Embededness (emphasises duties and social obligations)

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4
Q

What is legal socialisation?

A

Legal socialisation is the idea that we are socialised into obeying laws.

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5
Q

What are the two elements of a crime?

A
  1. Actus reus (act itself)

2. Mens rea (intention to act)

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6
Q

What is the formal term for natural law?

A

Mala in se.

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7
Q

What is the formal term for human law?

A

Mala in prohibita.

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8
Q

List 3 reasons why innocent people break laws.

A
  1. Distrust
  2. Insecurity
  3. Legal cynisism
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9
Q

Who proposed the Socio-Cognitive Theory of Moral Disengagement?

A

Bandura (2002) proposed the Socio-Cognitive Theory of Moral Disengagement.

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10
Q

The Social Disorganisation Theory of gang involvement argues that:

A

Economic instability leads to disorganisation within institutions (e.g. churches, schools and families) which may otherwise have prevented youths from joining gangs.

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11
Q

The Cultural Transmission Theory of gang involvement argues that:

A

Gang culture/criminality is passed on to future generations, especially in cases where an individual feels supported by their gang but not society.

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12
Q

What is the name of the Gang Theory which posits that gang membership is dependent on who we affiliate ourselves with?

A

The Theory of Differential Association.

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13
Q

What is the name of the Gang Theory which posits that some youths have more opportunity to engage in crime than others?

A

The Theory of Differential Opportunity.

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14
Q

Many gang behaviours can be explained using ____ psychological processes e.g. low self-esteem, low self-confidence, low anxiety.

A

Many gang behaviours can be explained using NORMAL psychological processes e.g. low self-esteem, low self-confidence, low anxiety.

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15
Q

What is outgroup entitativity?

A

Outgroup entitativity is the perceived cohesiveness of the outgroup.

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16
Q

Perceived outgroup entitativity ____ predicts inter-gang revenge.

A

Perceived outgroup entitativity POSITIVELY predicts inter-gang revenge.

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17
Q

Gang members ____ more than non-gang youth.

A

Gang members RUMINATE more than non-gang youth.

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18
Q

Gang members are ___ criminally active than non-gang youth.

A

Gang members are MORE criminally active than non-gang youth.

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19
Q

Gang members see social ____ as ____ important than non-gang youth.

A

Gang members see social STATUS as MORE important than non-gang youth.

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20
Q

Gang members are likely to hold anti-____ attitudes.

A

Gang members are likely to hold anti-AUTHORITY attitudes.

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21
Q

Gang members are likely to blame ____ for their own criminality.

A

Gang members are likely to blame VICTIMS for their own criminality.

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22
Q

_____ differences are important when trying to explain why youth join gangs.

A

INDIVIDUAL differences are important when trying to explain why youth join gangs.

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23
Q

Social identity theory argues that we can be socially influenced in a number of ways. What are they?

Hint: 3 influences

A
  1. Informational influence
  2. Normative influence
  3. Pluralistic ignorance
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24
Q

What is moral disengagement?

A

Moral disengagement involves using strategies to help one feel less unpleasant about committing acts which are morally wrong.

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25
Q

What gender are animal abusers most likely to be?

A

Male.

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26
Q

What age are animal abusers most likely to be?

A

18-30.

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27
Q

Individuals who have childhood experience of violence and cruelty are ____ likely to grow up to abuse animals.

A

Individuals who have childhood experience of violence and cruelty are MORE likely to grow up to abuse animals.

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28
Q

One explanation for animal cruelty is Social Learning Theory. Which posits that..

A

.. a person observes cruel behaviour towards animals and copies which is then positively reinforced.

29
Q

What does the Violence Graduation Hypothesis posit?

A

Behaving cruelly towards animals can eventually develop into cruelty towards humans.

30
Q

What does the Deviance Generalisation Hypothesis posit?

A

Behaving cruelly towards animals does not necessarily occur before behaving cruelly towards humans- they can occur simultaneously.

31
Q

According to Ganley (1985), physically abusing animals in front of a woman can have the same impact as ____ abusing her.

A

According to Ganley (1985), physically abusing animals in front of a woman can have the same impact as PHYSICALLY abusing her.

32
Q

When is offender profiling useful?

A

Offender profiling is useful when there is no ‘hard evidence’ such as DNA or finger prints.

33
Q

What is the modus operandi?

A

The modus operandi refers to the techniques used when carrying out a crime. If these techniques are found to be effective by an offender, they may repeatedly use them. This can build a ‘signature’ for the offender; a modus operandi.

34
Q

What are the 3 categories of modus operandi?

A
  1. Finding/tracking the victim
  2. ID protection
  3. Escaping the scene
35
Q

The FBI build offender profiles using which 3 techniques?

A
  1. Crime classification
  2. Data assimilation
  3. Crime reconstruction
36
Q

In the UK, offender profiling is based on which theory?

A

Facet Theory.

37
Q

Jurors rely heavily on _____ evidence.

A

Jurors rely heavily on EYEWITNESS evidence.

38
Q

False criminal convictions are usually due to inaccurate ______ evidence.

A

False criminal convictions are usually down to inaccurate EYEWITNESS evidence.

39
Q

What are the 3 stages of EW testimony?

A
  1. Acquisition of information (criminal event)
  2. Retention of information (gap between event and recall)
  3. Retrieval (recollection of information)
40
Q

Eyewitness have a tendency to recall their ____ not the truth.

A

Eyewitness have a tendency to recall their EXPECTATIONS, not the truth.

41
Q

How good are people are remembering faces?

A

Not very good!

42
Q

People are especially poor at distinguishing between faces from different _____.

A

People are especially poor at distinguishing between faces from different RACES.

43
Q

How much difference does face recognition training make?

A

Very little!

44
Q

When EW’s recall a face, they can use what we call an orienting strategy. What do we mean by this?

A

They may make personality judgements e.g. ‘that face looks like the face of a violent person’.

45
Q

Name a standardised interview used for questionning EW’s?

A

The cognitive interview.

46
Q

What is the name of a more recent version of the cognitive interview?

A

The enhanced cognitive interview.

47
Q

What is retribution?

A

Retribution is punishing offenders so that the public feel that society is just.

48
Q

What is the aim of the utilitarian approach to punishment?

A

The aim of the utilitarian approach to punishment is to reduce recidivism.

49
Q

What does the humanitarian approach to offending say?

A

According to the humanitarian approach, offenders are victims of circumstances who need rehabilitating.

50
Q

Does sentence length have a significant impact on the chances of recidivism?

A

No.
So, doesn’t matter whether D gets 1 year or 10 years, the chances of re-offending are roughly the same. So- what’s the point in imprisoning people for lengthy periods of time, at a massive cost to the tax payer?

51
Q

Is there any convincing support for the claim that long-term imprisonment has any DETRIMENTAL effects?

A

No- there is insufficient evidence for the claim that long-term imprisonment has any detrimental effects. There is evidence to suggest that long-term imprisonment doesn’t have any beneficial effects (e.g. doesn’t reduce recidivism), but the two are conceptually different.

52
Q

Deterioration in prison results from poor ____ to surroundings.

A

Deterioration in prison results from poor ADAPTATION to surroundings.

53
Q

Benign, passive and ____ personalities often adjust relatively ____ to prison life.

A

Benign, passive and DEPENDENT personalities often adjust relatively WELL to prison life.

54
Q

Explain Importation Theory.

A

Importation theory is the idea that gang behaviour is imported in to prison- for a number of prisoners, entering prison is a home coming.

55
Q

Explain Indigenous Theory.

A

Indigenous theory posits that:

  1. Difficulties adjusting –> prisonisation
  2. Associate with similar others
  3. Group forms which others recognised but not formally labelled
  4. Group recognises scope for power. Rules are made and ‘weak’ members kicked out
  5. Prison gang
56
Q

One Theory of rehabilitation is the Risk Needs Model. What are the 3 elements of the model?

A
  1. Risk
  2. Needs
  3. Responsivity
57
Q

According to the risk principle, there should be more treatment for ____ risky offenders and less treatment for _____ risky offenders.

A

According to the risk principle, there should be more treatment for MORE risky offenders and less treatment for LESS risky offenders.

58
Q

According to the needs principle, treatment should focus on ____ needs (i.e. dynamic risk factors which, when changed, lead to a reduction in _____).

A

According to the needs principle, treatment should focus on CRIMINOGENIC needs (i.e. dynamic risk factors which, when changed, lead to a reduction in RECIDIVISM).

59
Q

According to the responsivity priciple, treatment should reach out to and make ____ to the people for whom it has been designed.

A

According to the responsivity principle, treatment should reach out to and make SENSE to the people for whom it has been designed.

60
Q

Adherence to the Risk/Needs/Responsvity Model ____ effectiveness of treatment.

A

Adherence to the Risk/Needs/Responsvity Model INCREASES effectiveness of treatment.

61
Q

A second Theory of rehabilitation is the Good Lives Model which uses the RNR principles but places a greater emphasis on psychological _____ and increasing offenders’ motivation to engage and ____.

A

A second Theory of rehabilitation is the Good Lives Model which uses the RNR principles but places a greater emphasis on psychological WELLBEING and increasing offenders’ motivation to engage and CHANGE.

62
Q

The Good Lives Model assumes that an offenders history is a reflection of their inability to achieve certain experiences in life in a _____ manner.

A

The Good Lives Model assumes that an offenders history is a reflection of their inability to achieve certain experiences in life in a PROSOCIAL manner.

63
Q

Whilst the RNR model has received lots of evaluation, the Good Lives Model has ___ received extensive evaluation.

A

Whilst the RNR model has received lots of evaluation, the Good Lives Model has NOT received extensive evaluation.

64
Q

Treatment for offenders tends to fall into 3 main categories. What are they?

A
  1. Affect management e.g. anger management
  2. Generic cognitive skills programmes e.g. Reasoning and rehabilitation
  3. Offence specific programmes e.g. SOTP, FIPP, FIP-MO
65
Q

One of the most effective treatments for sexual offenders is ____.

A

One of the most effective treatments for sexual offenders is CBT.

66
Q

Sexual Offender Rehabilitation Programmes tend to focus on 4 needs. What are they?

A
  1. Intimacy skills (i.e. gaining better relationship skills)
  2. Coping skills (i.e. better problem management)
  3. Sexual interests (i.e. encourage more appropriate)
  4. Offence supportive thinking (i.e. encouraging thinking which is less prone to bias)
67
Q

Can sexual offenders who deny their offences also be treated?

A

Yes.

68
Q

___ in 10 sexual offenders will re-offend if left untreated.

A

1 in 10 sexual offenders will re-offend if left untreated.

69
Q

If sexual offenders are treated with CBT, the recidivism rate drops from 1 in 10 to 1 in x.

A

If sexual offenders are treated with CBT, the recidivism rate drops from 1 in 10 to 1 in 20.