study session Flashcards

1
Q

LEGAL AGE verbally or non-verbally that he or she is will to accept treatment

A

expressed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

understands who you are / what you want to do & what has happened & allows you to treat them

A

informed consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  • does not specifically refuse emergency care
  • does not hesitate to treat an unconscious patient
  • law assumes that if in the right state of mind these people would consent to
    emergency care and therefor allows you to treat these people.
A

implied consent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  • are not considered capable of speaking for themselves.
  • Emergency treatment must wait until a patient or legal guardian consent to the
    treatment.
  • If permission cannot be quickly obtained, do not hesitate to give appropriate
    medical care.
A

consent for minors ( less than 18 years old)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  • If a person appears to be a threat to themselves or others, then this person
    should be placed under medical care
  • Application for an Authorization of Temporary
    Involuntary Hospitalization. (may restrain a person)
A

Consent of Mentally Ill Patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

whose safety is the most important

A

police officers safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  • most common type of external blood loss
  • the blood oozes out
  • apply direct pressure to the site
A

capillary bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

a. Second most common type
b. This bleeding has a steady low
c. Apply direct pressure for at least 5 minutes

A

Venous Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

a. Most serious type of bleeding
b. Arterial blood spurts or surges with each heartbeat
c. Exert direct pressure and maintain pressure until EMS arrives

A

Arterial Bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

a. Place a dry, sterile dressing directly on the wound and press with a gloved hand.
b. Wrap the dressing and wound snugly with a roller gauze bandage.
c. Do not remove the dressing after you apply it.

A

Direct Pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  • Occurs when the person’s body temperature drops to less than 95° F (35°C)
  • The person’s body is not able to produce enough energy to keep the internal
    temperature at a satisfactory level.
  • People most susceptible, include:
    a. Those with poor or wet clothing
    b. Individuals who are weakened by illness
A

Hyporthermia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

is the tearing away of the skin.

A

Avulsions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

i. Located
ii. Placed in a clean plastic bag
iii. Kept cool
iv. Taken to the hospital for possible reattachment

A

Amputations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

If an entire body part is torn away, the wound

A

traumatic amputation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The best defense against hypothermia is to

A

prevent it before it happens.
- Wear the appropriate uniform/gear for the weather conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

a. Move the patient to a warm location
b. Remove wet clothing
c. Place warm blankets over and under the patient

A

hypothermia treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does a police officer deal with a patient having hypothermia?

A

a. If you do not have access to a building, move the patient to a heated vehicle.
b. To warm the fingers, have the patient place their hands in their armpits or under
clothing.
c. Handle the patient gently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

do you CPR a hypothermia patient?

A

YES:
a. If a patient is unresponsive and a pulse cannot be detected you will need to
begin CPR
b. Always start CPR and use an AED on hypothermia patients even if you believe
they have been dead for several hours.
(1) A patient is NOT DEAD until they are WARM and DEAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Occurs when a patient is exposed to temperatures greater than 80°F (27°C)
  2. Can also occur as the result of vigorous exercise at lower temperatures
A

Heat Exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

a. Profuse sweating
b. Lightheadedness
c. Dizziness
d. Nausea
e. Weak pulse
f. Low blood pressure

A

Signs and symptoms: Heat Exhaustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Occurs when the body is subjected to more heat than it can handle and the normal
    mechanisms for getting rid of excessive heat are overwhelmed.
  2. The patient’s body temperature rises, the brain is affected, and mental status changes will occur.
A

Heatstroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

a. Flushed, dry skin that feels hot to the touch
b. Semi consciousness or unconsciousness
c. Internal temperature as high as 106° F (41.1 C)

A

Heatstroke: Signs and Symptoms:

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  • Remove the patient from the hot environment
  • Remove the patient’s cloths down to the underwear and bra.
  • Soak the patient with water if possible.
  • Cool patient with ice packs in axillary and groin areas.
A

Treatment: Heatstroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Can result from parts of the body being exposed to the cold environment.

A

Frostbite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The best defense against frostbite

A

to prevent it before it happens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

a. The affected body part becomes numb and then turns bright red in color.
b. Eventually the area loses its color and changes to pale white.
c. There may be a loss of feeling or sensation.
d. Warming the area must be done quickly and carefully.
e. Do not warm the area by rubbing it.

A

Superficial Frostbite (frostnip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

a. The patient’s skin will be white and waxy.
b. The skin may be firm or frozen.
c. Swelling and blisters may be present

A

Deep Frostbite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Occurs if the body has enough insulin but not enough blood glucose.

A

Insulin Shock (Hypoglycemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

1) Pale, moist, cool skin
(2) Rapid, weak pulse
(3) Dizziness or headache
(4) Confusion or unconsciousness
(5) Sweating
(6) Hunger
(7) Rapid Onset of Symptoms (within minutes)

A

Insulin Shock (Hypoglycemia): Signs and symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

caused by the body’s inability to process and use glucose.

A

Diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The body produces insulin

A

which enables glucose to move into individual cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

If the body does not produce enough insulin,

A

the cells become “starved” for
sugar and diabetes results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A person who experiences insulin shock may appear

A

drunk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

can be classified according to the way it enters the body

A

Poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  • More than 80% of all cases of poisonings are caused by ingestion.
  • Chemical burns, odors, or stains may be found around the patient’s mouth
A

Ingested Poisons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

a. Nausea, vomiting and diarrhea
b. Abdominal pain
c. Abnormal or decreased respirations
d. Loss of consciousness
e. Seizures

A

Ingested Poisons: Signs and symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

common causes
- Improperly vented heating appliances
- Smoke (Burning Buildings)

A

Carbon Monoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

. Some people may experience an extreme allergic reaction and go into

A

Anaphylactic Shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

swelling airway / HIVES

A

Signs and Symptoms of Anaphylactic Shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  • Caused by sudden episodes of uncontrolled electrical impulses in the brain
A

Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

a. Produce shaking movements
b. Involve the entire body
c. Lasts 1 to 2 minutes
d. Usually leave the patients unconscious

A

Generalized Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

a. Generalized seizures caused by a sudden high fever
b. Occur in infants and young children

A

Febrile Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

a. Results in only a brief lapse of consciousness
b. Patients may blink, stare vacantly, or jerk one part of their body
c. Monitor the patient’s CAB’s.

A

Absence Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

If the form is valid, and the patient is in cardiac arrest, DO OR DONT resusciate

A

DONT resusciate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If the blocked area is critical, the heart may stop completely causing what??

A

cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  • Complete cessation of the heartbeat is
A

cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

CPR and Defibrillation is your first emergency treatment.

A

cardiac arrest

45
Q

If a person is not overdosing and I give them naloxone will it hurt them?

A

No. If in doubt give them Naloxone

46
Q

Will Naloxone work on an alcohol overdose?

A

No. Naloxone only works on opioids

47
Q

What if it is a crack/cocaine or speed/methamphetamine overdose?

A

No. Naloxone only works on opioids

48
Q

What is the risk period for an overdose to reoccur after giving
Naloxone?

A

Depends on how long acting the opioid is and how much they took

49
Q

a. Review the dispatch information
b. Ensure scene safety
c. Determine the mechanism of injury or nature of illness
d. Take standard precautions
e. Determine the number of patients

A

Scene Size-Up

50
Q

i. One rescuer supports the patient’s head and neck while the second
rescuer moves the patient by lifting under the arms
ii. The patient is removed with the head and neck stabilized on a neutral position

A

Emergency Drag from a Vehicle
( 2 or more rescuers)

51
Q

i. Grasp the patient under the arms and cradle the patient’s head between
your arms
ii. Pull the patient down into a horizontal position as you ease him or her
from the vehicle

A

Emergency Drag from a Vehicle
( One rescuer )

52
Q

is an object placed directly on a wound to control bleeding and
prevent further contamination.

A

dressing

53
Q

e is used to hold the dressing in place.

A

bandage

54
Q

a. Ensure completely covers the wound and extends beyond all
sides of the wound.
b. Wrap just tightly enough to control bleeding, but not so tightly that the circulation is cut off.
c. Check circulation regularly, if the pulse is absent remove the bandaging and
reapply it with disturbing the dressing.
d. Secure the so that it does not slip.

A

bandage

55
Q

a. Reddened and painful skin
b. The injury is confined to the outmost layers of the skin.
c. The patient experiences minor to moderate pain

A

Superficial Burns (First Degree Burns)

56
Q

a. Does not damage the deepest layers of the skin.
b. Blistering present
c. Fluid loss and moderate to severe pain
d. Usually heal within 2 to 3 w

A

Partial-thickness Burns (Second Degree Burns)

57
Q

a. Damage is done to all the layers of skin
b. Pain is absent because the nerve endings have been destroyed.
c. Patients lose large quantities of body fluids and are susceptible to shock and
infection.

A

Full-Thickness Burns (Third Degree Burns)

58
Q

A burn to any part of the airway

A

Respiratory Burn

59
Q

bandaging finger numb no pulse

A

loosing the dressing

60
Q

when you see babies head

A

crowning

61
Q

connects muscles to the bones

A

tendons

62
Q

main purpose of respiratory system

A

delivers oxygen

63
Q

fluid component of blood

A

plasma

64
Q

brain & spine is in what system

A

nervous system

65
Q

a. Indicated only in situations where extremity bleeding cannot be controlled by
direct pressure or elevation
b. After applying a write TK and the time of application on the patient’s forehead
c. If use is indicated, it should be paired with use of a hemostatic
dressing if available

A

Tourniquets

66
Q

2nd stage of labor

A

child born

67
Q

bruise: bleeding inside

A

contusion

68
Q

The heart receives its oxygen through a complex system of

A

coronary arteries.

69
Q
  • Chest pain caused by inadequate flow of blood and oxygen to the heart muscle.
  • The patient is often short of breath and sweating, is extremely frightened, and has a
    sense of impending doom
A

Angina Pectoris

70
Q

a. Use if you suspect a neck injury
b. Place the patient on his or her back.
c. Place your fingers behind the lower and move forward
d. Tilt the head back to a neutral or slight sniffing position
e. Use your thumbs to keep the patients tongue and lower from blocking the
airway

A

Jaw Thrust Maneuve

71
Q

what color is vein blood

A

dark red blood

72
Q

Look for the cause of the injury

A

Mechanism of Injury

73
Q

Musculoskeletal injuries are caused by three types of mechanisms of injury

A

a. Direct force
b. Indirect force
c. Twisting Force

74
Q

communication provided by the officer

A

clear & concise

75
Q

when the EMT get to the scene give them a

A

hand off report

76
Q

the recovery position prevents secretions from entering

A

trachea

77
Q

is the state of collapse of the cardiovascular system that results in
inadequate delivery of blood to the organs

A

Shock

78
Q

what color blood cells fight infection

A

white

79
Q

if three or more ribs are broken

A

in at least two places,

79
Q

roles & responsibilities

A
  1. Reporting – The Public Safety Answering Point (PSAP) is contacted.
  2. Dispatch – Appropriate equipment and personnel are dispatched to the scene.
  3. First Response – Law Enforcement Officers and Firefighters are likely to be on the scene.
  4. EMS Response – An ambulance staffed by EMT-Basics, EMT-Intermediates, or
    Paramedics should arrive shortly thereafter.
80
Q

is now known as Standard Precautions

A

Body Substance Isolation

81
Q

is a System of Infection Control

A

Standard Precautions

82
Q

Recovery Position:

A

Unconscious patients who have not suffered trauma should be placed in the recovery
position
o Helps keep airway open
o Allows secretions to drain from the mouth

83
Q

a) You must proceed promptly to the scene and render emergency medical care within the
limits of your training and available equipment
b) Failure to respond or render care leaves you and your agency vulnerable to legal action

A

duty to act

84
Q

Long backboards are NOT considered

A

standard of care

85
Q

standard of care

A

is the way you must act or believe

86
Q

occurs when a patient sustains further injury or harm because the care administered did not meet the standard of care.

A

Negligence

87
Q

Information should be shared only with other medical personnel who are directly
involved in the patient’s care.
* In certain circumstances, you may release confidential information to designated
individuals.

A

confidentiality

88
Q

is similar to knowing your limitations it’s like how much we can do

A

Scope of care

89
Q

If the form is not current and valid,

A

begin resuscitation.

90
Q

connects bones together

A

ligaments

91
Q

congestive heart failure

A

swollen ankles

92
Q

cardiac oxygen exceeds demand supply

A

anginis pectoris

93
Q

DO NO HARM PROVIDE

A

proper care

94
Q

3rd stage of birth

A

placenta devlivers

95
Q

diaphragm

A

abs & chest separated

96
Q

carry blood away from heart

A

arteries

97
Q

doesnt pump adequate

A

congestive heart failure

98
Q

to any dog trained to help a person who has a disability, such as visual impairment,
hearing impairment, mental illness (like posttraumatic stress disorder), seizures, mobility impairment, and diabete

A

service dog

99
Q

what can stop blood bleeding

A

direct pressure

100
Q

their responsibilities are to provide psychological or
physiological therapy to individuals other than their handlers.

A

therapy dogs

101
Q

Emotional Support Animals

A

animal must be beneficial for your health and not put you or anyone else in
harm’s way

102
Q

dogs work during active crises and in emergency
situations—both natural and manmade

A

Comfort animals

103
Q

are used in both conscious and unconscious patients who are not able to
maintain an open airway

A

Nasal Airways

104
Q

a. Place the patient on his or her back
b. Place one hand on the patient’s forehead and apply firm backward pressure
c. Place the tips of your fingers under the bony part of the lower jaw
d. Lift the chin forward and tilt the head back.

A

Head Tilt-Chin Lift Maneuve

105
Q

is to identify immediate life threats to the
patient

A

primary assessment

106
Q

A: Awake and Alert
V: Responsive to Verbal
P: Responsive to Pain
U: Unresponsive

A

AVPU

107
Q

is done to assess non-life-threatening conditions.

A

secondary assessment

108
Q

This is the ability of the circulatory system to return blood
Squeeze the patient’s nail bed firmly between your thumb and forefinger until
the nail bed looks pale.

A

Capillary Refill

109
Q

S - Signs and Symptoms
b. A – Allergies
c. M – Medications
d. P – Pertinent Past Medical History
e. L – Last Oral Intake
f. E – Events Leading Up to the Injury or Illness

A

SAMPLE History

110
Q

caused by a blood clot that blocks blood supply to a part of the brain

A

stroke

111
Q

a. The normal adult resting respiratory rate is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
(1) -8 is too low
(2) 30 is too high
b. Count the patient’s breaths for one minute.
(1) Or count for 30 seconds and multiply by 2.
(2) Or count by 15 seconds and multiply by 4.
c. Check the breathing rate and quality.
(1) Normal
(2) Rapid
(3) Labored
(4) Snoring
(5) Wheezing

A

Respiration ( secondary assessment )

112
Q

a. Indicates the speed and force of the heartbeat
b. Take the radial pulse on the conscious person.
c. Take the carotid pulse of an unconscious person.
d. Take the brachial pulse of an infant patient.
e. In a normal adult, the resting pulse is 60 to 100 beats per minute.
f. Determine the rhythm and the quality:
(1) Normal
(2) Rapid
(3) Bounding
(4) Weak
(5) Thready

A

Pulse ( secondary assessment )