Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

*First Aid in Brainscape* > Steve Stielberg's Pharmacology Phrenzy > Flashcards

Steve Stielberg's Pharmacology Phrenzy Flashcards

1
Q

Km means what

A

Is the concentration of Substrate at 1/2Vmax;

it is inversely related to the affinity of the enzyme for it substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pharmacokinetics

A

the effects of the body on the drug;

ADME: Absoprtion, Distribution, Metabolism, Excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pharmacodynamics

A

The effects of the drug on the body; Includes concepts of receptor binding, drug efficacy, drug potency, toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pharmacokinetics: Bioavailability (F)

A

Fraction of administered drug that reaches systemic circulation unchanged. IV dose is F=100%, oral is usually lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pharmacokinetics: Volume of Distribution (Vd)

A

Theoretical volume occupied by the total absorbed drug amount at the plasma concentration. Apparent Vd of plasma protein-bound drugs can be altered by liver and kidney disease (decreased protein binding, increased Vd). Drugs may distribute in more than one compartment. Vd= (amount of drug in the body)/ (plasma drug concentration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pharmacokinetics: half life (t1/2)

A

The time required to change to amount of drug in the body by 1/2 during elimination (or constant infusion). Porperty of first-order elimination A drug infused at a constant rate takes (4-5) half lives to reach steady state. It takes 3.3 half lives to reach 90% of steady state level:
T1/2=(.693 X Vd)/CL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pharmacokinetics: Clearance (CL)

A

The volume of plasma cleared of drug per unit time. Clearance may be impaired with defects in cardiac, hepatic, or renal function:
CL=(rate of elimination of the drug)/(Plasma drug concentration) = Vd x Ke (elimination constant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Pharmacokinetics: Loading dose calculations

A

Loading dose= (Cp x Vd)/F;
Cp= target plasma concentration;
Note- in renal disease you do not change loading dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Pharmacokinetics: Maintenance dose calculations

A

Maintenance dose= (Cp x CL x τ)/ (F);
τ= dosage interval, if not administered continuously;
Cp= target plasma concentration at steady state;
Note= in renal disease you adjust the maintenance dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Zero order elimination

A

rate of elimination is constant regardless of Cp (i.e. constant amount of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp decreases linearly with time. Examples are Phenytoin, Ethanol, Aspirin (at high or toxic levels);
Capacity limited elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

First order elimination

A

rate of elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration (i.e. constant fraction of drug eliminated per unit time). Cp decreases exponentially over time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Urine pH and drug elimination: Weak acids

A

Examples would be phenobarbital, methotrexate, aspirin. Trapped in basic environments. Treat overdose with bicarbonate. Remember that ionized species are trapped in urine and cleared quickly, neutral forms can be reabsorbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Urine pH and drug elimination: Weak bases

A

Examples: amphetamines, trapped in acidic enivronments. Treat overdose with ammonium chloride. Remember that ionized species are trapped in urine and cleared quickly, neutral forms can be reabsorbed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Phase 1 drug metabolism

A

Reduction, oxidation, hydrolysis with cytochrome P-450 usually yield a slightly polar, water-soluble metabolite (often still active).
Geriatric patients often lose phase 1 first

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Phase 2 drug metabolism

A

Conjugation (Glucuronidation, Acetylation, Sulfation) usually yields a very polar, inactive metabolite (Renally excreted). Patients who are slow acetylators have greater side effects from certain drugs because of decreased rate of metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Define efficacy of a drug

A

Maximal effect a drug can produce. High efficacy drug classes are analgesic, antibiotics, antihistamines, and decongestants. Partial agonists have less efficacy than full agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Define potency of a drug

A

Amount of drug needed for a given effect. Increased potency, increased affinity for receptor. Highly potent drug classes include chemotherapeutic drugs, antihypertensive drugs, and lipid lowering drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Competitive Antagonist

A

Effect: shifts curve to right (decrease potency), no change in efficacy. Can be overcome by increase in the concentration of agonist substrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Noncompetitive antagonist

A

shifts curve down (decrease efficacy). Cannot be overcome by increase agonist substrate.
Irreversible antagonist is the same idea, it just never lets go.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Partial agonist

A

Acts at the same site as full agonist but with lower maximal effect (decrease efficacy). Potency is an independent variable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Therapeutic index

A

Measurement of drug safety:
TD50/ED50=(median toxic dose)/(median effective dose)
Safer drugs have higher TI values. LD50 (lethal dose) is used in animal studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nicotinic ACh receptors

A

ligand-gated Na/K channels; Nn (found in autonomic ganglia) and Nm (found in neuromuscular junction) subtypes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Muscarinic ACh receptors

A

Are G-protein-coupled receptors that usually act through 2nd messengers, 5 subtypes: M1, M2, M3, M4, M5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What G protein does this receptor work through and what is its functions: alpha 1

A

q class; increases vascular smooth muscle contraction, increases pupillary dilator muscle contraction (mydriasis), increases intestinal and bladder sphincter muscle contraction. Phenylephrine and midodrine are alpha 1 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What G protein does this receptor work through and what is its functions: alpha 2

A

i class; decreases sympathetic outflow, decreases insulin release, decreases lipolysis, increases platelet aggregation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What G protein does this receptor work through and what is its functions: beta 1

A

s class; increases hear rate, increases contractility, increases renin release, increases lipolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What G protein does this receptor work through and what is its functions: beta 2

A

s class; Vasodilation, bronchodilation, increases hear rate, increases contractility, increases lipolysis, increase insulin release, decrease uterine tone (tocolysis), ciliary muscle relaxation, increase aqueous humor production.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

M1 receptor: what does it work through, major functions

A

q subtype of g protein class; CNS, enteric nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

M2 receptor: what does it work through, major functions

A

i subtype of the g protein class; decreases heart rate and contractility of atria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

M3 receptor: what does it work through, major functions

A

q subtype of g protein; Increases exocrine gland secretions (lacrimal, salivary, gastric), increases gut peristalsis, increases bladder contraction, bronchoconstriction, increases pupillary sphincter muscle contraction (miosis), ciliary muscle contraction (accommodation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

D1 dopamine receptor: what does it work through, what does it do

A

s subtype of g protein; relaxes renal vascular smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

D2 dopamine receptor: what does it work through, what does it do

A

i subtype of g protein; modulates transmitter release, especially in the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Histamine H1 receptor: what does it work through, what does it do

A

q subtype of g protein; increase nasal and bronchial mucus production, increases vascular permeability, contraction of bronchioles, pruritus, and pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Histamine H2 receptor: what does it work through, what does it do

A

S subtype of g protein: increased gastric acid secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Vasopressin V1 receptor: what does it work through, what does it do

A

q subtype of g protein; increases vascular muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vasopressin V2 receptor; what does it work through, what does it do

A

S subtype of g protein; increases H2O permeability and reabsorption in the collecting tubules of the kidney (V2 is found in the 2 kidneys)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the downstream effect of a Gq receptor being stimulated (and what are the types of Gq receptors)

A

(h1, alpha1, V1, M1, M3); Gq activates Phospholipase C which cleaves PIP2 into DAG and IP3. DAG activates protein kinase C while IP3 increases Ca in the cell and you get smooth muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the downstream effect of a Gs receptor being stimulated (what are the types of Gs receptors)

A

Beta1, Beta2, D1, H2, V2; Activates Adenylyl cyclase which turns ATP into cAMP. cAMP goes into protein kinase A which increase Ca inside heart cells and inactivates myosin light chain kinase in smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the downstream effect of a Gi receptor being stimulated (and what are the types of Gi receptors)

A

M2, alpha 2, D2; Gi blocks the activation of Adenylyl cyclase (the same molecule that Gs stimulates)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Betanechol

A

Cholinomimetic agent; direct agonist; Activates bowel and bladder smooth muscle; resistant to AChE. Postoperative ileus, neurogenic ileus, and urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Carbachol

A

Cholinomimetic agent; direct agonist; Glaucoma, pupillary constriction, and relief of intraocular; Carbon copy of acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Pilocarpine

A

Cholinomimetic agent; direct agonist; Contracts ciliary muscle of eye (open-angle glaucoma), pupillary sphincter (closed-angle); resistant to AChE. “you cry, drool and sweat on your PILOw.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Methacholine

A

Cholinomimetic agent; direct agonist; Stimulates muscarinic receptors in airway when inhaled. Challenge test for diagnosis of asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Neostigmine

A

Indirect agonist (anticholinesterase); Increases endogenous ACh Neo CNS= No CNS penetration; Postoperative and neurogenic ileus and urinary retention, myasthenia gravis, reversal of neuromuscular junction blockade (postoperative)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Pyridostigmine

A

Indirect agonist (anticholinesterase); Increases endogenous ACh; increases endogenous ACh; increases strength. long acting myasthenia gravis treatment, does not penetrate CNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Physostigmine

A

Indirect agonist (anticholinesterase); Anticholinergic toxicity (crosses BBB); increases endogenous ACh; fixes atropine overdose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Donepezil

A

Indirect agonist (anticholinesterase); Used in alzheimer dieases; Increase endogenous ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Rivastigmine

A

Indirect agonist (anticholinesterase); Used in alzheimer dieases; Increase endogenous ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Galantamine

A

Indirect agonist (anticholinesterase); Used in alzheimer dieases; Increase endogenous ACh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Edrophonium

A

Indirect agonist (anticholinesterase); old way of diagnosing myasthenia gravis (extremely short acting); now we look for anti-AChR Ab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

With all cholinomimetic agents the side effects are

A

Exacerbation of COPD, asthma, and peptic ulcers in susceptible patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Cholinesterease inhibitor poisoning

A

often due to organophosphate, such as parathion, that irreversibly inhibit AChE. Causes DUMBBELSS: Diarrhea, Miosis, Bronchospasm, Bradycardia, Excitation of skeletal muscle and cns. Lacrimation, Sweating, and Salivation.
Antidote is atropine (competitive inhibitor) with prazlidoxime (regenerates AChE if given early)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what organ does it work in and its application: Atropine, homatropine, tropicamide

A

eye, produce mydriasis and cycloplegia (paralysis of ciliary muscle); muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what organ does it work in and its application: Benztropine

A

CNS; Parkinson (PARK my BENZ); muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what organ does it work in and its application: Scopolamine

A

CNS; Motion sickness; muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what organ does it work in and its application: Ipratropium, tiotropium

A

Respiratory; COPD, asthma; muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what organ does it work in and its application: Oxybutynin, darifenacin, solifenacin

A

Genitourinary; reduce urgency in mild cystitis and reduced bladder spasms. Other agents are tolterodine, fesoterodine, trospium (used for urinary incontinence); contraindicated in closed angel glaucoma and elderly; muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what organ does it work in and its application: Glycopyrrolate

A

muscarinic antagonist; gastrointestinal and respiratory; Parenteral: preoperative use to reduce airway secretions; Oral: drooling, peptic ulcer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Atropines effect on the: eyes

A

increase pupal dilation, cycloplegia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Atropines effect on the: airway

A

Decreases secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Atropines effect on the: Stomach

A

decreases stomach acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Atropines effect on the: Gut

A

decreases motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Atropines effect on the: Bladder

A

decreased urgency in cystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Atropines side effects

A

Increased body temperature (can’t sweat); rapid pulse, dry mouth, flushed skin; cycloplegia; constipated; disorientation; blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, red a beet, hot as a stone, dry as a bone
Can cause acute angle glaucoma in elderly due to mydriasis, urinary retention in men with prostatic hyperplasia, and hyperthermia in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Epinephrine

A

beta > alpha; anaphylaxis, open angle glaucoma, asthma, hypotension; alpha effects predominate at high doses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: norepinephrine

A

alpha 1> alpha 2> Beta 1; Hypotension (but decreased renal perfusion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta, and dopamine receptors and what is it used for: Dopamine

A

D1=D2 > Beta > alpha; Unstable bradycardia, heart failure, shock; inotropic and chronotropic alpha effects predominate at high doses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Dobutamine

A

Beta1 > Beta2, alpha; heart failure (inotropic > chronotropic), cardiac stress test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Isoproterenol

A

Beta1=Beta2; Electrophysiologic evaluation of tachyarrhythmias. Can worsen ischemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Phenylephrine

A

alpha 1 > alpha 2; Hypotension (vasoconstrictor), ocular procedures (mydriatic), rhinitis (decongestant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Albuterol, salmeterol, terbutaline

A

Beta 2> Beta 1; Albuterol for acute asthma; salmeterol for long-term asthma or COPD control; terbutaline to reduce premature uterine contractions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Amphetamine

A

indirect sympathomimetics; indirect general agonist, reuptake inhibitor, also releases stored catecholamines; Used for Narcolepsy, obesity, attention deficit disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Ephedrine

A

Indirect general agonist, releases stored catecholamines; Nasal decongestion, urinary incontinence, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What is this drugs effect on alpha, beta receptors and what is it used for: Cocaine

A

Indirect general agonist, reuptake inhibitor; Causes vasoconstriction and local anesthesia; never give beta blockers if cocaineintoxication is suspected (can lead to unopposed alpha 1 activation and extreme hypertension)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Norepinephrine vs isoproterenol

A

NE causes increase in systolic and diastolic pressures as a result of alpha1 mediated vasoconstriction leading to an increase in mean arterial pressure causing bradycardia. However, isoproterenol (no longer commonly used) has little alpha effect but causes beta 2 mediated vasodilation, resulting in decrease mean arterial pressure and increase heart rate through beta 1 and reflex activity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Clonidine

A

alpha 2 agonist so it decreases sympathetic output; used for HTN urgency; does not decrease renal blood flow; ADHD, severe pain, and off label ethanol and opioid withdrawl;
Toxicity: CNS depression, bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, and small pupil size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

alpha methyldopa

A

alpha 2 agonist so it decreases sympathetic output; used for pregnancy HTN; toxicity direct coombs test will be positive for hemolytic anemia; SLE like syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Pheoxybenzamine

A

irreversible non selective alpha blocker; used for pheochromocytoma (used preoperatively) to prevent catecholamine (HTN) crisis;
Toxicity are orthostatic hypotenstion; reflex tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Phentolamine

A

Reversible non selective alpha blocker; Give to patients on MAO inhibitors who eat tyramine-containing foods;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the alpha 1 selective alpha blockers

A

Prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, tamsulosin (-osin); used to treat urinary symptoms of BPH; PTSD (prazosin); hypertension (except tamsulosin); Toxicity is 1st dose orthostatic hypotension, dizziness, and headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the Alpha 2 selective alpha blocker

A

Mirtazapine; used to treat depression; side effects are sedation increased serum cholesterol; increased appetite

82
Q

Beta blockers: name them

A

Metoprolol, acebutolol, betaxolol, carvedilol, esmolol, nadolol, timolol, pindolol, labetalol

83
Q

Beta blockers use in angina pectoris

A

decreases HR and contactility resulting in decreased O2 consumption

84
Q

Beta blockers use in MI

A

Beta-blockers (metoprolol, carvedilol, and bisoprolol) decrease mortality

85
Q

Beta blockers use in SVT

A

(metoprolol, esmolol); decrease AV conduction velocity (class II antiarrhythmic)

86
Q

Beta blockers in HTN

A

Decrease cardiac output, decrease renin secretion (due to beta 1 receptor blockade on JGA cells)

87
Q

Beta blockers in CHF

A

slows progression of chronic failure

88
Q

Beta blockers in Claucoma

A

timolol; decreases secretion of aqueous humor

89
Q

Toxicity of beta blockers

A

Impotence; cardio vascular adverse effects (bradycardia, AV block, CHF), CNS adverse effects (seizures, sedation, sleep alterations), dyslipidemia (metoprolol), and asthamatics/COPD patients it causes exacerbations;
Don’t give to cocaine users (unopposed alpha adrenergic receptor agonist

90
Q

Selectivity of beta blockers

A

Beta1 selective start with letters A to M (first half of alphabet); beta 2 selective start with letters N to Z (second half of alphabet; Nonselective alpha beta antagonists have ending other than olol

91
Q

Nebivolol what receptors does it block

A

combines cardiac selective Beta1 adrenergic blockade with stimulation of Beta3 receptors, which activate nitric oxide synthase in the vasculature

92
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: acetaminophen

A

N-acetylecystine (replenishes glutathione)

93
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: AChE inhibitors, orgaophosphates

A

Atropine followed by pralidoxime

94
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Amphetamines

A

NH4Cl to acidify the urine

95
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Antimuscarinics, anticholinergic agents

A

Physostigmine salicylate, control hyperthermia

96
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Benzodiazepines

A

Flumazenil

97
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Beta blockers

98
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Carbon mooxide

A

100% O2 or hyperbaric O2

99
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: copper, arsenic, gold

A

Penicillamine

100
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Cyanide

A

nitrite + thiosulfate, hydroxocobalamin

101
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Digitalis

A

Anti-dig Fab fragments

102
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Heparin

A

Protamine sulfate

103
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Iron

A

DeFEroxamine, deFErasirox (de FE)

104
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: lead

A

EDTA, dimercaprol, succimer, penicillamine

105
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Mercury, arsenic, gold

A

Dimercaprol (BAL), Succimer

106
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Methanol, ethylene glycol

A

Fomepizole > ethanol, dialysis

107
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Methemoglobin

A

Methylene blue, Vitamin C

108
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: opioids

109
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Salicylates

A

NaHCO3 (alkalinize the urine), dialysis

110
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: TCAs

A

NaHCO3 (alkalinize the plasma)

111
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: tPA, streptokinase, urokinase

A

Aminocaproic acid

112
Q

what is the antidotes for toxic levels of: Warfarin

A

Vitamin K, plasma if active bleed

113
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Coronary vasospasm

A

Cocaine, sumatriptn, ergot alkaloids

114
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: cutaneous flushing

A

Vancomycin, Adenosine, Niacin, Ca2+ channel blockers

115
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Doxorubicin, daunorubicin

116
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Torsades de pointes

A

Class III (e.g. sotalol) and class IA (e.g. quinidine) antiarrhythmics, macrolide antibiotics, antipsychotics, TCAs

117
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Adrenocortical insufficiency

A

HPA suppression secondary to glucocorticoid withdrawal

118
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Hot flashes

A

Tamoxifen, clomiphene

119
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Hyperglcemia

A

Tacrolimus, Protease inhibitors, Niacin, HCTX, Beta blockers, corticosteroids

120
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Hypothyrodism

A

lithium, amiodarone, sulfonamides

121
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Acute cholestatic hepatitis, jaundice

A

Erythromycin

122
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Diarrhea

A

Metformin, Erythromycin, Colchicine, Orlistat, Acarbose

123
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Focal to massive hepatic necrosis

A

Halothane, Amanita phalloides (death cap mushrooms), Valproic Acid, Acetaminophen

124
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Hepatitis

A

INH (Isoniazid)

125
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Pancreatitis

A

Didanosine, Corticosteroids, Alcohol, Valproic acid, Axathioprine, Diuretics (furosemide, HCTZ)

126
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Pseudomembranous Colitis

A

Clindamycin, ampicillin, cephalosporins; antibiotics predispose to superinfection by resistant C difficile

127
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Agranulocytosis

A

Dapsone, Clozapine, Carbamazepine, Colchicine, Methimazole, Propylthiouracil,

128
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Aplastic anemia

A

Carbamazepine, Methimazole, NSAIDs, Benzene, Chloramphenicol, Propythiouracil

129
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Direct coombs- positive hemolytic anemia

A

Methyldopa, penicillin

130
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Gray baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol

131
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Hemolysis in G6PD deficiency

A

INH (isoniazid), Sulfonamides, Dapsone, Primaquine, Aspirin, ibuprofen, Nitrofurantion; hemolysis IS D PAIN

132
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Megaloblastic anemia

A

Phenytoin, Methotrexate, sulfa drugs; having a blast with PMS

133
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Thrombocytopenia

A

Heparin, Cimetidine

134
Q

What is the likely drugs to cause: Thrombotic complications

A

OCPs (e.g. estrogens)

135
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Fat redistribution

A

Protease inhibitors, Glucocorticoids

136
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Gingival hyperplasia

A

Phenytoin, verapamil, cyclosporine, nifedipine

137
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Hyperuricemia (gout)

A

Pyrazinamide, Thiazides, Furosemide, Niacin, Cyclosporine

138
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Myopathy

A

Fibrates, niacin, colchicine, hydroxychloroquine, interferon alpha, penicillamine, statins, glucocorticoids

139
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Osteoporosis

A

Corticosteroids, heparin

140
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Photosensitivity

A

Sulfonamides, Amiodarone, Tetracyclines, 5-FU

141
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Rash (steven-johnson syndrome)

A

Anti-epileptic drugs (ethosuximide, carbamazepine, lamotrigine, phenytoin, phenobarbital), Allopurinol, Sulfa drugs, Penicillin

142
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: SLE-like syndrome

A

Sulfa drugs, hydralazine, INH, Procainamide, Phenytoin, Etanercept

143
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Teeth discoloration

A

tetracyclines

144
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Tendonitis/tendon rupture/ cartilage damage

A

Fluoroquinolones

145
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Cinchonism

A

Quinidine, quinine

146
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Parkinson like syndrome

A

antipsychotics, Reserpine, Metoclopramide

147
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Seizures

A

INH (vitamin B6 deficieny), Bupropion, Imipenem/cilastatin, Tramadol, Enflurane, Metoclopramide

148
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Tardive dyskinesia

A

Antipsychotics, metoclopramide

149
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Diabetes insipidus

A

Luthium, demeclocycline

150
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Fanconi syndrome

A

expired tetracycline

151
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Hemorrhagic cystitis

A

Cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide (give with mesna to prevent

152
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: interstitial nephritis

A

Methicillin, NSAIDs, Furosemide

153
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: SIADH

A

Carbamazepine, Cyclophosphamide, SSRIs

154
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: dry cough

A

ACE inhibitors

155
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: pulmonary fibrosis

A

Bleomycin, amiodarone, busulfan, Methotrexate

156
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Antimuscarinic

A

atropine, TCAs, H1 blockers, antipsychotics

157
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Disulfiram-like reaction

A

Metronidazole, certain cephalosporins, griseofulvin, procarbazine, 1 st generation sulfonylureas

158
Q

What drugs cause the side effect of: Nephrotoxicity/ ototoxicity

A

Aminoglycosides, vancomycin, loop diuretics, cisplatine

159
Q

Positive inducers of Cytochrome P-450

A

Chronic alcohol use, modafinil, st john’s wort, Phenytoin, Phenobarbital, Nevirapine, Rifampin, Griseofulvin, Carbamazepine: Chronic alcoholic Mona Steals Phen-Phen and Never Refuses Greasy Carbs

160
Q

Substrates for Cytochrome P-450

A

Anti-epileptics, Antidepressants, Antipsychotics, anesthetics, Theophylline, Warfarin, statins, OCPs

161
Q

Negative inhibitors of Cytochrome p-450

A

Acute alcohol use, Gemifibrozil, Ciprofloxacin, Isoniazid, Grapefruit juice, Quinidine, Amiodarone, Ketoconazole, Macrolides, Sulfonamides, Cimetidine, Ritonavir, Acute Gentleman “Cipped” Iced grapefruit juice quickly and kept munching on soft cinammon rolls

162
Q

Name all the sulfa drugs, what are the side effects

A

Probenecid, Furosemide, Acetazolamide, Celecoxib, Thiazides, Sulfonamide antibiotics, Sulfasalazine, Sulfonylureas;
Patients with sulfa allergies may develop fever, urinary tract infeciton, steven johnson, hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, agranulocytosis, and urticaria, symptoms can be mild to life threatening

163
Q

Drugs ending in: -azole

A

Ergosterol synthesis inhibitors

164
Q

Drugs ending in: -bendazole

A

antiparasitic/antihelmintic

165
Q

Drugs ending in: -cillin

A

peptidoglycan synthesis inhibitors

166
Q

Drugs ending in: -cycline

A

protein synthesis inhibitors

167
Q

Drugs ending in: -ivir

A

Neuraminidase inhibitor

168
Q

Drugs ending in: -navir

A

protease inhibitor

169
Q

Drugs ending in: -ovir

A

DA polymerase inhibitor

170
Q

Drugs ending in: -thromycin

A

Macrolide antibiotic

171
Q

Drugs ending in: -ane

A

inhalation general anesthetic (halothane)

172
Q

Drugs ending in: -azine

A

Typical antipsychotic (thioridazine)

173
Q

Drugs ending in: -barbital

A

Barbiturate (phenobarbital)

174
Q

Drugs ending in: -caine

A

local anesthetic (lidocaine)

175
Q

Drugs ending in: -etine

A

SSRI (fluoxetine)

176
Q

Drugs ending in: -ipramine

A

TCAs (imipramine)

177
Q

Drugs ending in: -triptan

A

5HT 1B/1D agonist (sumatriptan)

178
Q

Drugs ending in: -Triptyline

A

TCA (amitriptyline)

179
Q

Drugs ending in: -zepam

A

Benzodiazepine (diazepam)

180
Q

Drugs ending in: -zolan

A

Benzodiazepine (alprazolam)

181
Q

Drugs ending in: -chol

A

cholinergic agonist (betanechol/carbachol)

182
Q

Drugs ending in: -curium or -curonium

A

non-depolarizing paralytic (atracurium or vecuronium )

183
Q

Drugs ending in: -olol

A

beta blocker

184
Q

Drugs ending in: -stigmine

A

AChE inhibitor (neostigmine)

185
Q

Drugs ending in: -terol

A

beta2-agonist albuterol

186
Q

Drugs ending in: -zosin

A

Alpha 1-antagonist (Prazosin)

187
Q

Drugs ending in: -afil

A

PDE-5 inhibitor (sildenafil)

188
Q

Drugs ending in: -dipine

A

Dihydropyridine CCB (amlodipine)

189
Q

Drugs ending in: -pril

A

ACE inhibitor (captopril)

190
Q

Drugs ending in: -Sartan

A

Angiotensin-II receptor blocker (Losartan)

191
Q

Drugs ending in: -statin

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (Atorvastatin)

192
Q

Drugs ending in: -dronate

A

Bisphosphonate (Alendronate)

193
Q

Drugs ending in: -glitazone

A

PPAR-gamma activator (Rosiglitazone)

194
Q

Drugs ending in: -prazole

195
Q

Drugs ending in: -prazole

A

prostaglandin analog (latanoprost)

196
Q

Drugs ending in: -tidine

A

H2 antagonist (cimetidine)

197
Q

Drugs ending in: -tropin

A

Pituitary hormone (somatotropin)

198
Q

Drugs ending in: -ximab

A

chimeric monoclonal Ab (Basiliximab)

199
Q

Drugs ending in: -zumab

A

Humanized monoclonal Ab (Daclizumab)

200
Q

Calculation for steady state when drug is given continuously IV

A

Css=Dosing rate/Clearance

*First Aid in Brainscape* (37 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions