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*First Aid in Brainscape* > AAW - microbiology/pharmacology > Flashcards

AAW - microbiology/pharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

MacConkey agar used to identify this

A

Lactose is KEE in macConKEE’S agar

Citrobacter, Klebsiella, E.coli, Enterobacter, Serratia

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2
Q

What has the K1 capsule

A

e. coli

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3
Q

what antibiotic class in notorious for causing tendon rupture

A

fluoroquinolones

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4
Q

mech of doxycycline

A

tetracycline class

bacteriostatic

binds 30S preventing attachment of aa-tRNA

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5
Q

what is the name for bacteria sex

what is the name for bacteria picking up random DNA from their environment and using it

A

conjugation

transformation

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6
Q

use of polymyxin

A

can be used in people but almost never is (except for klebsiella pneumo that is resistant to everything including carbapenems)

kills all gram negative bugs except for neisseria, used in VPN agar to grow neisseria

(vanco, polymyxin, nystatin)

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7
Q

Vanco

mech, tox,

A

(pay 2 dalas for vandalizing, red man)

inhibits glycosylation (formation of peptidoglycan) by binding D-Ala-D-Alanine residues (which PBP usually binds to) (resistance can occurs with change to D-Ala-D-Lac)

causes red man syndrome (prevent with antihistamines and slow infusion)

well, I’ll tolerate paying you, but I’m NOT happy (can cause Nephrotoxicity, Ototoxicity, Thrombophlebitis)

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8
Q

tazobactam

mech, use for?

A

penicillinase inhibitor (along with the CAST Clavulanic Acid, Sulbactam,Tazobactam)

helps penicillins not get destroyed

use with piperacillin to treat pseudomonas

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9
Q

cefepime

A

4th gen cephalosporine, cell wall inhibitor

has particularly good action against pseudomonas

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10
Q

imipenem

mech, spec,

A

it is a broad-spec, beta lactamase resistant carbapenem.

used for pseudomonal

always give with cilastatin (inhibitor of renal dehydropeptidase I)’

the old people smoking pipes in the side car (ticarcillin and pipercillic) are IMInently going to die (imipenem)

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11
Q

aztreonam

A

monobactam

resistant to beta lactamases

binds PBP3

gram negative rods only - no activity against gram positives or anaerobes

used for penicillin allergic patients and those with renal insufficiency who cannot tolerate aminoglycosides

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12
Q

a person has a pseudomonal infection, a penicillin allergy, and renal insufficiency

what antibiotic do you give them

A

aztreonam

only works on gram neg
doesn’t cause penecillin allergy
works with people who cannot tolerate aminoglycosides (renal failure)

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13
Q

fungal infections in patients who are neutropenic

A

candida, aspergillus (Acute Angles in Aspergillus, you see 45 degree angles hyphae)

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14
Q

mech of the azoles

A

causes accumulation of toxic sterol by stopping ergosterol synthesis

(block 14-alpha-demethylase)

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15
Q

alpha agonist used for nasal decongestion

A

phenelepherine

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16
Q

guaifenesin

A

mucinex

thins mucus

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17
Q

EMB agar is used for

A

identifying lactose fermenters (grow as purple/black colonies) (like maCkonKEE’S)

ecoli grows as purple colonies with a green sheen

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18
Q

nystatin

A

binds to ergosterol and forms pores in membranes, same as amphotericin

antifungal

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19
Q

penicilinase inhibitors

A

Clavulanic Acid, Sulbactam,
Tazobactam

CAST

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20
Q

common urease positive bugs

A 
all staph
proteus (gram -)
klebsiella, enterobacter, serratia (gram -)
Helicobacter (gram-)
nocardia (gram -)

others…

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21
Q

Paramyxoviruses

types
capsid
nucleic acid structre

What is the first thing it does when entering a cell?

A

PaRaMyxo

Parainfluenza—croup
RSV—bronchiolitis in babies, multinucleated cells; Rx—ribavirin
Measles, Mumps

helical capsid (like all SS - RNA viruses)

SS - RNA

Like all SS - RNA viruses, they first have to make a +RNA strand using their own RNA dependant RNA polymerases no make an mRNA to start translation

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22
Q

what antibiotic chelates with divalent cations

A

fluoroquinolones and tetracyclines- don’t give with antacids

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23
Q

tiotropium

A

long acting anticholinergic (muscarinic receptor antagonist) used in asthmatics

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24
Q

Omalizumab

A

binds to IgE and stops it from binding to mast cell receptors/eosinophils.
stops allergic reaction type stuff

O’maleeeeeeey

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25
Q

first gen antihistamines

second gen

A

diphenhydramine, chlorpheniramine, Meclizine

fexofenadine, loratidine, desloratadine cetirizine

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26
Q

P-glycoprotein

A

Also known as multidrug resistance protein 1 (MDR1). Expressed by some cancer cells (e.g., colon,
liver) to pump out toxins, including chemotherapeutic agents (one mechanism of r responsiveness
or resistance to chemotherapy over time).

also found inside the CNS. Pumps out some drugs so that they don’t work in the brain such as second gen antihistamines

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27
Q

steroids that are usually given in the aeresolized form

A

Budesonide

Fluticasone

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28
Q

protamine

A

give to reverse heparin

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29
Q

Tx for TB

A

RIPE

Rifamycins- Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase. Four R’s: Ramps up P-450, Red body fluids, Rapid resistance, RNA polymerase inhibitor

Isoniazid- Decrease synthesis of mycolic acids. Can be used prophylaxis. Can cause functional B6 deficiency

Pyrazinamide- Unknown. Maybe thought to acidify intracellular environment via conversion to pyrazinoic acid. Membrane disruption?

Ethambutol- Decrease carbohydrate polymerization of mycobacterium cell wall by blocking arabinosyltransferase

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30
Q

virus with eight segments

what is it?

A

Orthomyxoviruses, including influenza

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31
Q

the only baltimore type IV virus to have a helical capsid

A

coronavirus

all the other type IVs are icosahedral

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32
Q

MAOIs mneumonic

Toxicity

don’t take with

A

MAO Takes Pride In Shanghai

Tranylcypromine
Phenelzine
Isocarboxazid
Selegiline (selective for MAO-B)

SE: hypertensive crisis (w/ ingestion of tyramine, found in wine and cheese)

don’t take with SSRIs, TCAs, St. johns wort, meperidine, dextromethorphan

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33
Q

methylphenidate

A

aka ritalin

works similarly to amphetamines

releases NE stores.

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34
Q

clonidine

mech
use
SE

A

alpha-2 agonist

used for hypertensive urgency and does not decrease renal blood flow

used for ADHD, severe pain

SE: Parasympathetic activation (CNS depression, bradycardia, hypotension, respiratory depression, small pupil)

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35
Q

alpha-methyldopa

mech
use
SE

A

used in hypertension in pregnancy

alpha 2 agonist

SE: direct Coombs positive hemolytic anemia, SLE like syndrome

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36
Q

mirtazapine

mech
use
SE

A

alpha2 blocker

atypical antidepressant

increases the release of NE and 5-HT by way of antagonizing alpha 2 receptors, AND antagonizes 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors

ideal patient would be a depressed anorexic insomniac

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37
Q

guanethidine

A

inhibits NE release from neurons stopping hypertension

not used anymore

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38
Q

triamterene

A

potassium sparing diuretic

the K STAys

spironolactone
triamterene
amiloride

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39
Q

what does it mean if something grows on mannitol salt agar

A

it can ferment mannose

it’s probably staph a.

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40
Q

catalase positive organisms seen in chronic granulomatous disease

A

PLACESS for your CATs

Pseudomonas
Listeria
Aspergillus
Candida
E. Coli
Staph A.
Serratia
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41
Q

eaton agar use to colonize

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

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42
Q

what grows on sabouraud agar

A

cryptococcus neoformans

cryptosporidium (protozoa)

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43
Q

what kind of bug “swarms” on agar

A

Proteus mirabilis

because it has motility

its assc with struvite stones because it has urease, which can ferment urea to ammonia, which can raise the pH of the urine

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44
Q

nifedipine

A

calcium channel blocker

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45
Q

flumazenil

A

competitive benzodiazepine antagonist

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46
Q

buprenorphine

what is it commonly mixed with in order to prevent abuse

A

with naloxone

Partial agonist; long acting with fewer withdrawal symptoms than methadone. Naloxone is not
active when taken orally, so withdrawal symptoms occur only if injected (lower abuse potential)

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47
Q

mech of typical antipsychotics

A

all typical antipsychotics block dopamine D2 receptors (increase cAMP)

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48
Q

the high and low potency antipsychotics

A

haloperidol plus the -azines

High potency: Trifluoperazine, Fluphenazine,
Haloperidol (Try to Fly High)—neurologic
side effects (EPS symptoms).
Low potency: Chlorpromazine, Thioridazine
(Cheating Thieves are low)—non-neurologic
side effects (anticholinergic, antihistamine,
and α
1-blockade effects).

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49
Q

what antipsychotic gives you corneal deposits

A

Chlorpromazine - Corneal

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50
Q

what antipsychotic gives you retinal deposits

A

Thioridazine - reTinal

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51
Q

SE of antipsychotics

A

tardive dyskinesia - Tx is benztropine or diphenhydramine

hyperprolactinemia
Side effects arising from blocking muscarinic
(dry mouth, constipation), α1 (hypotension),
and histamine (sedation) receptors

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52
Q

what drugs can cause neuroleptic malignant syndrome and what is it

A

typical antipsychotics

rigidity, myoglobinuria, autonomic instability,
hyperpyrexia. Treatment: dantrolene, D2
agonists (e.g., bromocriptine)

For NMS, think FEVER:
Fever
Encephalopathy
Vitals unstable
Enzymes up
Rigidity of muscles
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53
Q

atypical antipsychotics

A

Olanzapine (may cause obesity), clozapine (obesity, agranulocytosis), quetiapine, risperidone (may increase prolactin),
aripiprazole, ziprasidone.

It’s atypical for OL ZAPING CLOZets to QUETIly RISPER from ARI to ZIP

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54
Q

buspirone mech and SE

A

for Generalized anxiety disorder. Does not cause
sedation, addiction, or tolerance. Takes 1–2
weeks to take effect. Does not interact with
alcohol (vs. barbiturates, benzodiazepines).

I’m always anxious if the BUS in ON time

stimulates 5-HT1a receptors

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55
Q

bupropion mech use, SE

A

increases release of NE and dopamine through unknown mech

atypical antidepressant used for smoking cessation

headache, stimulant effects, seizure in bulimic patients
no sexual SE

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56
Q

name the SSRIs

A

Fluoxetine, paroxetine, sertraline, citalopram.

The FLu PARalazes Sertain Citizens

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57
Q

treatment for serotonin syndrome

A

cyproheptadine

serotonin receptor antagonist

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58
Q

the SNRIs

SE

A

Venlafaxine, duloxetine

increase in blood pressure

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59
Q

SE of tricyclics

A

Tri-C’s: Convulsions, Coma, Cardiotoxicity (arrhythmias); also respiratory depression,

hyperpyrexia. Confusion and hallucinations in elderly due to anticholinergic side effects (use
nortriptyline) . Treatment: NaHCO3 for cardiovascular toxicity.

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60
Q

list of MAOI

A

Tranylcypromine, Phenelzine, Isocarboxazid, Selegiline

WARNING: if you were not involved in the creation of this mnemonic it may not work for you

MAO is a tranny, who buys those pesky phenelzines at the mall of america, but he is ISOlated in his CAR because he cannot SELEct the one he wants

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61
Q

if you ingest tyramine and get a hypertensive crisis, what drugs are you most likely on

A

MAOI

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62
Q

trazodone

A

Primarily blocks 5-HT2 and α1-adrenergic
receptors. Used primarily for insomnia, as high
doses are needed for antidepressant effects.
Toxicity: sedation, nausea, priapism, postural
hypotension.

trazoBONE for male SE

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63
Q

valproic acid

A

aka depakote

mood stabilizer

64
Q

what antidepressant do you not give to people that are bulemic

A

bupropion

people on bupropion are at a higher risk for seizure, and people with bulimia can have electrolyte imbalances which can lead to seizure

bupropion is not appropriate for bulemia

65
Q

drug used for narcolepsy

A

modafinil

66
Q

what drug is used to treat bipolar disorder that can cause polyuria?

what congenital abnormalities can it cause?

A

lithium

ebstein anomaly, where the tricuspid valve is displaced inferiorly

67
Q

phencyclidine

A

aka PCP

causes fever, agitation, vertical and horizontal nystagmus, tachycardia, delirium, etc

68
Q

pimozide

A

antipsychotic used often to treat tourettes

69
Q

drugs you can use in people with DTs and liver failure

A

benzos in general for DTs (stimulate GABA receptor)

OTL: Out The Liver; Oxazepam, Temazepam, Lorazepam

70
Q

bone related stuff you are worried about with people on PPIs

A

hip fractures

71
Q

common bacteria that cause dental plaques

A

S. mutans

they are in the mouth because they are not scared Of-The-Chin

(optochin resistant)

72
Q

amphotericin B mech

supplement with
SE

A

binds ergosterol in fungal cell membrane and creates pores

supplement with K and Mg because of altered renal tubule permeability

SE: fever/chills “shake and bake”, hypotension, nephrotoxic in like 80%, arrhythmias, anemia, IV phlebitis (“amphoterrible”)

73
Q

-Azole mech

SE

A

prevents ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting the cytochrome P-450 enzyme that converts lanosterol to ergosterol

Testosterone synthesis inhibition (gynecomastia, esp. with ketoconazole), liver dysfunction (inhibits cytochrome P-450

74
Q

nystatin mech

usage

A

binds ergosterol and makes pores in fungal membrane

only used topically because too toxic for systemic use

“Swish and swallow” for oral candidiasis, topical for diaper rash, vaginal candidiasis

75
Q

terbinafine mech

SE

A

inhibits squalene epoxidase

headaches, GI upset, taste disturbance

76
Q

Caspofungin
Micafungin
Anidulafungin

mech

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis in fungal cells

77
Q

what do you typically give in aids patients to prevent cryptococcal meningitis

A

Fluconazole

cryptic flu

78
Q

flucytosine mech\tox\usage

A

inhibits DNA and RNA biosynthesis by conversion to 5-fluorouracil by cytosine deaminase

bone marrow suppression

used for systemic fungal infections esp meningitis cause by cryptococcus in combination with amphotericin B

79
Q

EBV virus catagory

A

herpes virus number 4

double stranded DNA linear, envoloped

80
Q

helicobacter pylori classification

A

gram -
comma shaped, catalase and oxidase +

Urease + (makes ammonia from urea, which can raise the pH in its local environment and help it live in the acidic region of the stomach)

81
Q

cancers assc with H. pylori

A

MALT lymphoma (mucosa-assc lymphoid tissue)

tumor of B cells, long term inflammation is the culprit

Gastric adenocarcinoma - intestinal type

tumor of epithelial cells with which H. pylori is a risk factor in 65-80% of cases.

82
Q

what adrenergic receptor causes an increase in phospholipace c

A

Alpha 1

causes smooth muscle contraction by increasing calcium conc.

83
Q

Giemsa stain looks for what

A

Chlamydia, Borrelia, Rickettsiae,
Trypanosomes, Plasmodium.

(chlamydia, tick borne, chagas, and malaria)

84
Q

place holder

A

place holder

85
Q

clarithromycin

A

bacteriostatic
50s inhibitor
acid stable

CYP3A4 metabolism

used for H.pylori

86
Q

tetracycline

A

bacteriostatic
30s inhibitor

photosensitivity
discoloration of growing teeth (no pregs or kids)
chelates with divalent cations

you have 30 tetras in a fish tank who don’t like the bright fluorescent lights. You cannot dump a bunch of divalent cations into your fish tank

give with food to tx GI stuff (decrease absorption)

87
Q

rifabutin

A

Bactericidal. Inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase.

hypersensitivity, hepatotox, inhibit CYP450, stains body fluids orange-red

Rifampin RAMPS up cytochrome p-450, BUT rifaBUTin dues not

used for M. avium-intracellulare prophylaxis with axithromycin

88
Q

metronidazole

A

creates free radicals in the bacterial cell that damage DNA

anaerobic infection below the diaphragm

used for C.diff
part of triple therapy for h.pylori with ppi and clarithromycin
used for trichomonas

also used for protozoans like giardia, entamoeba

disulfiram-like reaction

89
Q

piemzipine

A

antimuscarinic

90
Q

ppis

A

Prazoles

91
Q

H2 blockers

A

tidines

cimetidine - least potent
famotidine - most potent
nizatidine
ranitidine
roxatidine

inhibits CYP450

92
Q

aluminum hydroxide

A

antacid - all can cause hypokalemia

overuse: Constipation and hypophosphatemia; proximal
muscle weakness, osteodystrophy, seizures

Aluminimum amount of feces.

93
Q

magnesium hydroxide

A

antacid - all can cause hypokalemia

overuse: osmotic diarrhea, hyporeflexia, hypotension, cardiac arrest (hypermagnesemia if renally insufficient)

Mg = Must Go to bathroom

94
Q

calcium carbonate

A

antacid - all can cause hypokalemia

overuse: belching (from the carbs), mild metabolic alkalosis, rebound acid secretion

Hypercalcemia in pts w/ impaired renal function if taken with dairy products (milk-alkali syndrome).

95
Q

sodium bicarb

A

antacid - all can cause hypokalemia

aka alka seltzer - rapid onset of action

overuse: belching (from the carbs), can cause severe metabolic alkalosis, milk-alkali sx, fluid retention

96
Q

bismuth subsalicylate

A

aka peptobismol

coats surface

97
Q

sucralfate

A

acid converts it into paste and it sticks to ulcers

constipation

for stress induced ulcer in ICU

98
Q

Misoprostol

A

replaced PGs

BAD SE: diarrhea, severe nausia, cramping,

used to cause abortions

99
Q

what drug do you give for hypertriglyceridemia?
Mech?
SE?

A

fibrates, which activates peroxisome proliferator activated receptor alpha (PPAR-alpha), a nuclear transcription factor, which increases lipoprotein triglyceride lysis via lipoprotein lipase

SE: **Myositis (increased risk with concurrent statins), Hepatotox, cholesterol gallstones (ESP with bile acid resins)

100
Q

ribavirin

mech
use

A

used for RSV (in babies), HCV

blocks guanine nucleotide synthesis

101
Q

gram pos (with LPS!)
bacilus
no spores

A

Listeria Monocytogenes

102
Q

gram neg
comma shaped, oxidase positive
has A-B toxin, grows in alkaline media

A

Vibrio cholera

103
Q 
gram pos
bacili
spore-forming
obligate anaerobe
non-motile
A

Clostridium perfringens

Clostridium difficile

104
Q 
gram -
bacili (spiral)
microaerophilic
motile
cold sensitive

in what aninals?

A

campylobacter jejuni

poultry

105
Q

guillain-barre syndrome assc with what bacteria

A

campylobacter jejuni

106
Q

gram -
bacili
lactose non fermenter
oxidase negative

name all

A

shigella
salmonella
proteus
yersinia

107
Q

diarrhea (often bloody)
fever
stomach cramps
does not produce hydrogen sulfide

was passed through feces and not food

A

shigella spp.

no flagella, cell to cell transmission; no hematogenous spread, only reservoirs are humans and primates

108
Q

shiga toxin mech and manifestations

A

binds to Gb3 receptors on the colonic epithelial cells.

the A subunit is what enters the cell, inactivates the ribosome 60s

get dysentery, enhanced cytokine release, hemolytic uremic syndrome

109
Q 
STEC
aka
VTEC
or
EHEC

what kind of toxin

A

shiga like

110
Q

0157 is what

A

EHEC responsible for outbreaks

111
Q

enterotoxigenic e. coli (ETEC)

toxin

A 
heat-labile toxin
Overactivates adenylate
cyclase (increases cAMP), increases Cl−
secretion in gut and H2O
efflux

heat-stable toxin
Overactivates guanylate
cyclase (increases cGMP), decreases resorption of NaCl
and H2O in gut

causes watery diarrhea “travelers diarrhea”

labile in the Air
stable on the Ground

112
Q

cholera toxin

A

Overactivates adenylate
cyclase (increases cAMP) by
permanently activating Gs. increased Cl− secretion in gut
and H2O efflux

“rice water” diarrhea (looks like white slightly opaque water)

113
Q

source of S. typhi

A

untreated water

114
Q

GI bacterial infecition that is gram variable

A

C. diff

115
Q

Anti-HAV (IgM)

Anti-HAV (IgG)

HBsAg

Anti-HBs

HBcAg

Anti-HBc

HBeAg

Anti-HBe

what do they mean

A

Anti-HAV (IgM) IgM antibody to HAV; best test to detect active hepatitis A.

Anti-HAV (IgG) IgG antibody indicates prior HAV infection and/or prior vaccination; protects against reinfection.

HBsAg Antigen found on surface of HBV; indicates hepatitis B infection.

Anti-HBs Antibody to HBsAg; indicates immunity to hepatitis B.

HBcAg Antigen associated with core of HBV.

Anti-HBc Antibody to HBcAg; IgM = acute/recent infection; IgG = prior exposure or chronic infection.
Positive during window period.

HBeAg A second, different antigenic determinant in the HBV core. HBeAg indicates active viral
replication and therefore high transmissibility.

Anti-HBe Antibody to HBeAg; indicates low transmissibility.

116
Q

Mneumonic for macrolide side effects

A

MACRO

gastric Motility problems
Arrhythmia (MACRO sized QT)
acute Cholestatic hepatitis
Rash
eOsinophilia

also you know from another mneumonic that they inhibit CYP-p450

117
Q

name a 5-HT3 antagonist

A

ondansetron

118
Q

sumatriptan mech

A

5-HT1B/1D agonist. Inhibits trigeminal nerve activation; prevents vasoactive peptide release; induces vasoconstriction.

used for acute migraine, cluster headache attacks.

contraindicated in patients with CAD or prinzmetal angina because you can get coronary vasospasm

119
Q

what stimulates 5-HT1A receptors?

A

buspirone, used for GAD. does not interact with alcohol.

120
Q

name a 5-HT2 receptor antagonist

A

cyproheptadine, used to treat toxicity of SSRIs

121
Q

what increases the release of NE and 5-HT by way of antagonizing alpha 2 receptors, AND antagonizes 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 receptors

A

Mirtazapine, and atypical antidepressant

can cause sedation (may help a depressed dude sleep)

and may cause increased appetite

122
Q

Tumbling motility, meningitis in newborns, unpasteurized milk and deli meats

A

Listeria monocytogenes

123
Q

gram positive, branching filaments, acid fast

A

norcardia

124
Q

rilouzole

A

for LOU gehrig disease (ALS), give rilouzole

125
Q

common cause of toxic shock syndrome and what causes it

A

leaving medical gauze or a tampon in too long

staph A. super antigen TSST-1

(it’s like lightning bolt cape - the cape stands for “super” (super antigen) and the lightning bolt for shock (toxic shock syndrome))

strep pyo causes toxic shock like syndrome (beefy red tounge, red skin sparing the face)

126
Q

bug that causes erysipelas most commonly

A

strep pyo

group A beta hemolytic,

127
Q

what molecule makes up the strep capsule?

A

Hyaluronic acid

128
Q

redness and swelling of the toung - what exotoxin? What disease?

A

streptococcal pyogenic exotoxin - in scarlet fever

129
Q

necrotizing fasciitis - what bug, what antigen?

A

strep pyo

superantigen B (SpeB)
(the gingerbread man is Burnt, and his leg is falling off)

(SpeA and SpeC are the superantigens that cause TSLS)

130
Q

what does streptokinase do

A

converts plasminogen to plasmin

is produced by strep pyo, but is also given during an MI

131
Q

uses for first gen cephalosporins and their names

A

cefazolin, cephalexin

PEcK the cocci

Proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella pneumonia, and gram positive cocci

132
Q

mech of acyclovir?
used to treat?
advantages of valacyclovir? what about famciclovir?

A

inactive precursor that is activated by viral thymidine kinase (treats HSV, VSV, weak activity against EBV) when absorbed by infected cells. Used for herpes encephalitis

when activated, it forms a guanine analog that results in chain termination when read by a viral DNA polymerase

valcyclovir, a prodrug of acyclovir, has better oral bioavailability

famciclovir works better against VSV

133
Q

arnold chiari I malformation

what associated spinal cord thing are you thinking of and what tract can be damaged

A

syringomyelia

damages the anterior white commissure of the spinothalamic tract, get bilateral loss of pain and temp in cape like distributions

134
Q

intranuclear eosinophilic droplet-like bodies

what you think

A

cowdry type A bodies (HSV/VSV or CMV)

135
Q

interferon
alpha
beta
gamma

used to treat what?

A

alpha - hep B and C, kaposi’s sarcoma, malignant melanoma, leukemias

beta - MS

gamma - chronic “gammalomatous” (granulomatous) disease

136
Q

most common cause of otitis externa

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

followed by staph epi

137
Q

cervical disk C6-C7 is herniated

what nerve root is damaged

A

C7

138
Q

trastuzumab

A

aka herceptin

monoclonal antibody against HER-2/neu receptor (human epidermal growth factor receptor 2)

tras2zimab for HER2

also HERceptin damages the HEART

139
Q

alemtuzumab

targets what
treats what

A

targets CD53

used for CLL

“ALYMtuzumab” for chronic lymphocytic leukemia

140
Q

Bevacizumab

targets what
treats what

A

VEGF

colorectal cancer, renal cell carcinoma

I ate a bunch of VEGtables at mark and BEV’s house, so I can keep my colon and my kidney free of cancer

141
Q

cetuximab

targets what
treats what

A

EGFR

Stage IV colorectal cancer, head and neck cancer

CET a TUX on your epithelial cells

142
Q

Rituximab

targets what
treats what

A

CD20

NHL, RA (with MTX), ITP

a 20 year old with a ritzy tux plays hockey (NHL), but he has rheumatoid arthritis and ITP (i dunno…)

143
Q

Infliximab

targets what
treats what

A

TNF-alpha

IBD, RA, Ankylosing spondylitis, psoriasis

A DALI lamma INFLIX pain on TNF (ADALImumab is the other that works on TNF-alpha)

144
Q

natalizumab

targets what
treats what

A

alpha4-integrin - involved in leukocyte adhesion

multiple sclerosis, crohn’s

natalie crohn has MS

risk of PML (progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy) in patients with LC virus

145
Q

denosumab

targets what
treats what

A

RANKL

osteoporosis; inhibits osteoclast maturation

a DEN full of BONES

146
Q

palivizumab

targets what
treats what

A

targets RSV F protein

RSV prophylaxis for high-risk infants

be a PAL to little kids and stop them from getting a cough.

147
Q

cefoperazone

A

third gen cephalosporin that has good activity against pseudomonas

148
Q

ceftazidimide

A

third gen cephalosporin that has good activity against pseudomonas

149
Q

pentamidine

A

used to treat pneumocystis jirovecii, esp in patients who have a sulfa allergy to TMP-SMX

150
Q

single cell yeast endospore containing spherules

A

coccidioides

151
Q

DDx for raised red lesions on body in a person with an immunocomprimised state

A

bacilliary angiomatosis - caused by bartonella - warthin-starry stain

kaposi sarcoma - HHV8

152
Q

mech of sulfonamides

A

inhibition of dihydropteroate synthesis (by PABA antimetobolites), thus inhibiting folate synthesis

153
Q

etanercept

A

etanercept is a TNF decoy reCEPTor

154
Q

azathioprine

A

antimetabolite precursor of 6-MP!

inhibits lymphocyte proliferation by blocking nucleotide synthesis

immunosuppressive, can cause leukopenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia

degraded by xanthine oxidase, toxicity is increased by allopurinol

155
Q

Mnemonic for non-receptor tyrosine kinase acting endocrine hormones

A 
Prolactin
Immunomodulators
GH
G-CSF
Erythropoietin
Thrombopoietin

PIGG-ET

Acid grows tits (acidophiles), immunomodulators, and marrow

JAK/STAT pathway

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