Step1_qbank_random Flashcards

1
Q

[n. Exit through] Cribiform plate

A

Olfactory nerve (CNI)

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2
Q

[n. Exit through] Optic foramen

A

Optic Nerve (CNII)

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3
Q

[n. Exit through] Superior orbital fissue

A

Occulomotor (CN III); Trochlear (CN IV); Abducens (CN VI); Trigeminal (V1) “opthalmic n. “

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4
Q

[n. Exit through] Round foramen

A

Trigeminal (V2) - “Maxillary n.”

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5
Q

[n. Exit through] Oval Foramen

A

Trigeminal V3 - “Mandibular n.”

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6
Q

[n. Exit through] internal auditory canal

A

Facial (CN VII); Vestibulocochlear (CNVIII)

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7
Q

[n. Exit through] Jugular foramen

A

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX); Vagus (CN X); Accessory (CN XI)

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8
Q

[n. Exit through] Hypoglossal canal

A

Hypoglossal (CN XII)

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9
Q

Nerve injury leading to Hyper acusis

A

Facial (CN VII) - stapedius muscle (ear) is innervated by the stapedious nerve (branch of the facial n); Paralysis of stapedius muscle –> increased sensitivity to sound

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10
Q

[stones] Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate

A

70-80%; radioOpaque; Colorless octahedron (square crossed by diagonal 2D view)

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11
Q

[stones] Struvite (Mg-ammoiumsulfate or triple phophate)

A

15%; radioOpaque; Rectangular prism (coffin lids)

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12
Q

[stones] Uric acid

A

5%, Radioluent; Yellow or red brown diamond or rhombus

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13
Q

[stones] Cystine

A

1%; radioOpaque

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14
Q

Perforated appendicits –> intrabdominal abscess — Which Organism?

A

B. Fragilis (MC anaerobeic gram neg bacillus); E. coli; enterococci; streptococci

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15
Q

Protein responsible for Pus

A

IL-8 –> trigger neutrophils to enter infected site (chemotaxis)

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16
Q

Chemotactic agents

A

IL-8, n-formylated peptides, leukotriene B4, 5-HETE (leukotriene precursor), C5a

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17
Q

Secodary TB– specific cell marker CD__?

A

CD14

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18
Q

[Cog test] Orientation

A

Providing name, location, and current date

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19
Q

[Cog test] Comprehension

A

Following multistep commands

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20
Q

[Cog test] Cocnetration

A

Reciting months of the year backwards

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21
Q

[Cog test] Short term memory

A

recalling 3 unrelated words after 5 minutes

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22
Q

[Cog test] Long-term memory

A

providing detailes of significant life events

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23
Q

[Cog test] Language

A

Writing a complete sentesce w/ noun-verb aggrement

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24
Q

[Cog test] Visual spatial

A

Drawing intersecting pentagons

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25
[Cog test] Executive function
Drawing a clock oriented to the time requested
26
Mytonic Muscular Dystrophy
Difficulty loosinging one's grip after a handshake; AD; 2/2 abnormal trinucleodtide expantion (CTG) -codes for myotonia-protein kinase; assoc: cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy; Type 1 muscle fiber predom.
27
Immunitity reinfection with influenza Type A
2/2 circulating antibodies against hemagglutinin [IgG in circulation and IgA in nasopharynx]
28
Most likely CNS infection in an HIV (+) patient? Findning in CSF? Virulence factor?
Crypto; Budding yeast; thick polysaccaride capsule
29
Minute ventilation
total volume of new air that enters the respiraory pathway/min -- INCLUDES deadspace
30
Alveolar ventilation
volume of new air reaching the gas exchange areas per minute; DOES NOT INCLUDE DEAD SPACE
31
Hepatocellular carcinome strongly associtated with H_V infection? How are neoplastic changes triggered?
HBV; Intergration of viral DNA into the genome of host hepatocytes
32
Risk factors of hepatocellular carcinoma
HCV, ETOH cirrhosis, aflatoxin, hemachromatosis
33
Hepatitis E virus
unenveloped, ssRNA, spread fecal oral
34
Conus medullaris syndrome
Lesions at L2; Flaccid paralysis of bladder and rectum; impotense and saddle anesthesia (S3-S5); 2/2 disk herniatuinm tumors, and spinal fractures
35
Cauda Equina syndrome
low back pain radiating to 1 or both legs; 2/2 massive rupture of an intervertebral disk that is capable of causing compression of 2+ of the 18 spinal nerve roots [that provide sensory and motor innervation to most of the lower extermities, pelvic floor and spinkers]
36
Staphylococcal Scalderd Skin Syndrom (SSSS)
2/2 strains of Staph that produce EXFOLIATIN EXOTOXIN
37
Viruses that invade the dorsal root ganglia
HSV1 HSV2, Zoster (VZV)
38
What is synaptophysin? Where is it found?
Transmembrane glycoprotein; presynaptoc vesicles of neurons, neuroectermal, and neuroendocrine cells
39
GFAP stains for____?
Neoplasms of glial origin - astrocytomas, ependymomas, oligodendrogliomas
40
[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Obterator
L2-L4; Anterior hip dislocation/ pelvic surgery; inner thigh; thigh adduction
41
[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Femoral
L2-L4; Pelvic fracture or mass involving iliopsoas/iliacus muscle (hematoma or abcess); anterior thigh, medial leg; flextion of thigh and extention of leg
42
[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Common Peroneal
L4-S2; fibula neck fracture or nerve compresion at fibular neck; dorsum of foot and lateral leg; foot eversion, dorsiflextion, toe extention
43
[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Tibial
L4-S3; trauma to knee; plantar foot; foot inversion, plantar flextion and toe flextion
44
[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Superior gluteal
L4-S1; iatrogenic (poterior hip dislocation or butt injection); none; thigh abduction
45
[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Inferior gluteal
L5-S2; iatrogenic (poterior hip dislocation or butt injection); none; thigh extention
46
Organisms that produce IgA protease
N. meningitidis, N gonorrhoeae, Strep pneumo, H. flu
47
IgA protease function? Secretory IgA function
Cleaves secretory IgA at its hinge region --> becomes ineffective; secretory IgA exist on mucosal surfaces and in secretions --> bind and inhibit actions of pili and other suurface Ag.
48
Corynebacterium diphtheriae
non-motile, unencapsulated gram-positive rod; contain metachromic granules that stain with aniline dyes like methlene blue; Produce a two subunit (AB) exotoxin
49
AB extotoxin of c. diphtheriae
B (binding) subunit binds specifically to the heparin-binding epidermal growthfactor on cardiac and neural cells --> ENDOcytosis of toxin; THEN the A (active) subunit inhibits host celll proteint synthesis --> catalyzing ADP ribosylaton of protein elongation factor 2 (EF-2)
50
EF-2 funtion?
necessarty for tRNA to insert new amino acids into the growing protein chaing during translation
51
Myathenia gravis treatment
cholinesterate inhibitors - physotigmine, neostigmine, pyriodostigmine
52
Test to distinguish - Exacerbation of myasthenia gravis vs. cholinergic crisis
Tensilon test - clinincal improvement after edrophonium --> myasthenia (undertreated)
53
Measles virus
envoloped; ssRNA; paramyxovirus; genome encodes for hemagglutinin (mediates cell surface adhesion) and matrix protein (viral assemply)
54
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)
rare complication of measles; mutated or absent matrix protein --> prevents mature (envoloped) virion partivles from forming -- virus continues to replicate and evades eradication --> ACCUMULATE VIRAL NUCLEOCAPSID w/in neurons and oligodendrocytes --> form intracellular inclusions --> inflammation, demylenation, gliosis
55
Pemphigus Vulgaris
bursting bullae; autoimmune bullous disease characterised by autoantibodies directed agains DESMOSOME proteint 3 and 1
56
Bullous Pemphigoid
intacte bullae; autoantibodies agains hemidesmosomes
57
Chronic rejection of lung transplant most likely affect what area?
Small Airways; infflamation of small bronchioles "bronchiolitis obliterans"
58
Hyperacute rejection [transplant]
w/in minutes; preformend antibodies
59
Acute rejection
1-2 weeks after transplant; recipients reaction to the HLA of the graft -- CELL MEDIATED ---CD8 T cells -- VASCULAR damage; prevascular and peribronchial lymphocytic infiltrates
60
Proto-oncogenes (tumor promotors)
ras, N-myc, ERB-B1, ERB-B2, TGFalpha, sis, abl
61
Anti-oncogenes (tumor suppressors)
BRCA-1, BRCA-2 [DNA repair genes], NF-1, APC/beta-catenin, DCC, P53, RB, WT-1
62
[type of oncogene; location] ras
Proto-oncogene; cancer of bladder, lung, colon, pancreas, kidney
63
[type of oncogene; location] N-myc
Proto-oncogene; neuroblastoma, small cell carcinoma of the lung
64
[type of oncogene; location] ERB-B1
Proto-oncogene; squamous cell carcinoma of the lung
65
[type of oncogene; location] ERB-B2
Proto-oncogene; breast and ovarian cancer
66
[type of oncogene; location] TGF-alpha
Proto-oncogene; astrocytoma, hepatocellular carcinoma
67
[type of oncogene; location] sis
Proto-oncogene; astrocytoma, osteosarcoma
68
[type of oncogene; location] abl
Proto-oncogene; CML, ALL
69
[type of oncogene; location] BRCA-1, BRCA-2
Anti-oncogene; [DNA repair genes), breast and ovarian cancer
70
[type of oncogene; location] NF-1
Anti-oncogene; neuroblastoma, neurofibromatosis type 1, sarcomas
71
[type of oncogene; location] APC/beta-catenin
Anti-oncogene; gastric, colonic, and pancreatic cancer, Familial Adenomatous Polyposis coli
72
[type of oncogene; location] DCC
Anti-oncogene; colon cancer
73
[type of oncogene; location] P53
Anti-oncogene; the majority of canccer, Li-Fraumeni syndrome
74
[type of oncogene; location] RB
Anti-oncogene; retinoblastoma, osterosarcoma, other tumors
75
[type of oncogene; location] WT-1
Anti-oncogene; Wilms tumor
76
Recurrent lovar hemorrage?
Cerebral amyloid angiopathy
77
Signs of hemolytic anemia (3)
anemia, elevated LDH level, indirect bilirubinemia
78
Complication of hemolytic anemia
pigmented gallstones (mixture of calcium bilirubinate, bilirubin polymers, and calcium salts)