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1
Q

[n. Exit through] Cribiform plate

A

Olfactory nerve (CNI)

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2
Q

[n. Exit through] Optic foramen

A

Optic Nerve (CNII)

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3
Q

[n. Exit through] Superior orbital fissue

A

Occulomotor (CN III); Trochlear (CN IV); Abducens (CN VI); Trigeminal (V1) “opthalmic n. “

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4
Q

[n. Exit through] Round foramen

A

Trigeminal (V2) - “Maxillary n.”

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5
Q

[n. Exit through] Oval Foramen

A

Trigeminal V3 - “Mandibular n.”

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6
Q

[n. Exit through] internal auditory canal

A

Facial (CN VII); Vestibulocochlear (CNVIII)

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7
Q

[n. Exit through] Jugular foramen

A

Glossopharyngeal (CN IX); Vagus (CN X); Accessory (CN XI)

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8
Q

[n. Exit through] Hypoglossal canal

A

Hypoglossal (CN XII)

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9
Q

Nerve injury leading to Hyper acusis

A

Facial (CN VII) - stapedius muscle (ear) is innervated by the stapedious nerve (branch of the facial n); Paralysis of stapedius muscle –> increased sensitivity to sound

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10
Q

[stones] Calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate

A

70-80%; radioOpaque; Colorless octahedron (square crossed by diagonal 2D view)

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11
Q

[stones] Struvite (Mg-ammoiumsulfate or triple phophate)

A

15%; radioOpaque; Rectangular prism (coffin lids)

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12
Q

[stones] Uric acid

A

5%, Radioluent; Yellow or red brown diamond or rhombus

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13
Q

[stones] Cystine

A

1%; radioOpaque

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14
Q

Perforated appendicits –> intrabdominal abscess — Which Organism?

A

B. Fragilis (MC anaerobeic gram neg bacillus); E. coli; enterococci; streptococci

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15
Q

Protein responsible for Pus

A

IL-8 –> trigger neutrophils to enter infected site (chemotaxis)

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16
Q

Chemotactic agents

A

IL-8, n-formylated peptides, leukotriene B4, 5-HETE (leukotriene precursor), C5a

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17
Q

Secodary TB– specific cell marker CD__?

A

CD14

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18
Q

[Cog test] Orientation

A

Providing name, location, and current date

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19
Q

[Cog test] Comprehension

A

Following multistep commands

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20
Q

[Cog test] Cocnetration

A

Reciting months of the year backwards

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21
Q

[Cog test] Short term memory

A

recalling 3 unrelated words after 5 minutes

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22
Q

[Cog test] Long-term memory

A

providing detailes of significant life events

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23
Q

[Cog test] Language

A

Writing a complete sentesce w/ noun-verb aggrement

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24
Q

[Cog test] Visual spatial

A

Drawing intersecting pentagons

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25
Q

[Cog test] Executive function

A

Drawing a clock oriented to the time requested

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26
Q

Mytonic Muscular Dystrophy

A

Difficulty loosinging one’s grip after a handshake; AD; 2/2 abnormal trinucleodtide expantion (CTG) -codes for myotonia-protein kinase; assoc: cataracts, frontal balding, gonadal atrophy; Type 1 muscle fiber predom.

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27
Q

Immunitity reinfection with influenza Type A

A

2/2 circulating antibodies against hemagglutinin [IgG in circulation and IgA in nasopharynx]

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28
Q

Most likely CNS infection in an HIV (+) patient? Findning in CSF? Virulence factor?

A

Crypto; Budding yeast; thick polysaccaride capsule

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29
Q

Minute ventilation

A

total volume of new air that enters the respiraory pathway/min – INCLUDES deadspace

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30
Q

Alveolar ventilation

A

volume of new air reaching the gas exchange areas per minute; DOES NOT INCLUDE DEAD SPACE

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31
Q

Hepatocellular carcinome strongly associtated with H_V infection? How are neoplastic changes triggered?

A

HBV; Intergration of viral DNA into the genome of host hepatocytes

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32
Q

Risk factors of hepatocellular carcinoma

A

HCV, ETOH cirrhosis, aflatoxin, hemachromatosis

33
Q

Hepatitis E virus

A

unenveloped, ssRNA, spread fecal oral

34
Q

Conus medullaris syndrome

A

Lesions at L2; Flaccid paralysis of bladder and rectum; impotense and saddle anesthesia (S3-S5); 2/2 disk herniatuinm tumors, and spinal fractures

35
Q

Cauda Equina syndrome

A

low back pain radiating to 1 or both legs; 2/2 massive rupture of an intervertebral disk that is capable of causing compression of 2+ of the 18 spinal nerve roots [that provide sensory and motor innervation to most of the lower extermities, pelvic floor and spinkers]

36
Q

Staphylococcal Scalderd Skin Syndrom (SSSS)

A

2/2 strains of Staph that produce EXFOLIATIN EXOTOXIN

37
Q

Viruses that invade the dorsal root ganglia

A

HSV1 HSV2, Zoster (VZV)

38
Q

What is synaptophysin? Where is it found?

A

Transmembrane glycoprotein; presynaptoc vesicles of neurons, neuroectermal, and neuroendocrine cells

39
Q

GFAP stains for____?

A

Neoplasms of glial origin - astrocytomas, ependymomas, oligodendrogliomas

40
Q

[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Obterator

A

L2-L4; Anterior hip dislocation/ pelvic surgery; inner thigh; thigh adduction

41
Q

[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Femoral

A

L2-L4; Pelvic fracture or mass involving iliopsoas/iliacus muscle (hematoma or abcess); anterior thigh, medial leg; flextion of thigh and extention of leg

42
Q

[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Common Peroneal

A

L4-S2; fibula neck fracture or nerve compresion at fibular neck; dorsum of foot and lateral leg; foot eversion, dorsiflextion, toe extention

43
Q

[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Tibial

A

L4-S3; trauma to knee; plantar foot; foot inversion, plantar flextion and toe flextion

44
Q

[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Superior gluteal

A

L4-S1; iatrogenic (poterior hip dislocation or butt injection); none; thigh abduction

45
Q

[Nerve root/cause of injury/ sensory deficit/motor deficit] Inferior gluteal

A

L5-S2; iatrogenic (poterior hip dislocation or butt injection); none; thigh extention

46
Q

Organisms that produce IgA protease

A

N. meningitidis, N gonorrhoeae, Strep pneumo, H. flu

47
Q

IgA protease function? Secretory IgA function

A

Cleaves secretory IgA at its hinge region –> becomes ineffective; secretory IgA exist on mucosal surfaces and in secretions –> bind and inhibit actions of pili and other suurface Ag.

48
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

non-motile, unencapsulated gram-positive rod; contain metachromic granules that stain with aniline dyes like methlene blue; Produce a two subunit (AB) exotoxin

49
Q

AB extotoxin of c. diphtheriae

A

B (binding) subunit binds specifically to the heparin-binding epidermal growthfactor on cardiac and neural cells –> ENDOcytosis of toxin; THEN the A (active) subunit inhibits host celll proteint synthesis –> catalyzing ADP ribosylaton of protein elongation factor 2 (EF-2)

50
Q

EF-2 funtion?

A

necessarty for tRNA to insert new amino acids into the growing protein chaing during translation

51
Q

Myathenia gravis treatment

A

cholinesterate inhibitors - physotigmine, neostigmine, pyriodostigmine

52
Q

Test to distinguish - Exacerbation of myasthenia gravis vs. cholinergic crisis

A

Tensilon test - clinincal improvement after edrophonium –> myasthenia (undertreated)

53
Q

Measles virus

A

envoloped; ssRNA; paramyxovirus; genome encodes for hemagglutinin (mediates cell surface adhesion) and matrix protein (viral assemply)

54
Q

Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

A

rare complication of measles; mutated or absent matrix protein –> prevents mature (envoloped) virion partivles from forming – virus continues to replicate and evades eradication –> ACCUMULATE VIRAL NUCLEOCAPSID w/in neurons and oligodendrocytes –> form intracellular inclusions –> inflammation, demylenation, gliosis

55
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris

A

bursting bullae; autoimmune bullous disease characterised by autoantibodies directed agains DESMOSOME proteint 3 and 1

56
Q

Bullous Pemphigoid

A

intacte bullae; autoantibodies agains hemidesmosomes

57
Q

Chronic rejection of lung transplant most likely affect what area?

A

Small Airways; infflamation of small bronchioles “bronchiolitis obliterans”

58
Q

Hyperacute rejection [transplant]

A

w/in minutes; preformend antibodies

59
Q

Acute rejection

A

1-2 weeks after transplant; recipients reaction to the HLA of the graft – CELL MEDIATED —CD8 T cells – VASCULAR damage; prevascular and peribronchial lymphocytic infiltrates

60
Q

Proto-oncogenes (tumor promotors)

A

ras, N-myc, ERB-B1, ERB-B2, TGFalpha, sis, abl

61
Q

Anti-oncogenes (tumor suppressors)

A

BRCA-1, BRCA-2 [DNA repair genes], NF-1, APC/beta-catenin, DCC, P53, RB, WT-1

62
Q

[type of oncogene; location] ras

A

Proto-oncogene; cancer of bladder, lung, colon, pancreas, kidney

63
Q

[type of oncogene; location] N-myc

A

Proto-oncogene; neuroblastoma, small cell carcinoma of the lung

64
Q

[type of oncogene; location] ERB-B1

A

Proto-oncogene; squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

65
Q

[type of oncogene; location] ERB-B2

A

Proto-oncogene; breast and ovarian cancer

66
Q

[type of oncogene; location] TGF-alpha

A

Proto-oncogene; astrocytoma, hepatocellular carcinoma

67
Q

[type of oncogene; location] sis

A

Proto-oncogene; astrocytoma, osteosarcoma

68
Q

[type of oncogene; location] abl

A

Proto-oncogene; CML, ALL

69
Q

[type of oncogene; location] BRCA-1, BRCA-2

A

Anti-oncogene; [DNA repair genes), breast and ovarian cancer

70
Q

[type of oncogene; location] NF-1

A

Anti-oncogene; neuroblastoma, neurofibromatosis type 1, sarcomas

71
Q

[type of oncogene; location] APC/beta-catenin

A

Anti-oncogene; gastric, colonic, and pancreatic cancer, Familial Adenomatous Polyposis coli

72
Q

[type of oncogene; location] DCC

A

Anti-oncogene; colon cancer

73
Q

[type of oncogene; location] P53

A

Anti-oncogene; the majority of canccer, Li-Fraumeni syndrome

74
Q

[type of oncogene; location] RB

A

Anti-oncogene; retinoblastoma, osterosarcoma, other tumors

75
Q

[type of oncogene; location] WT-1

A

Anti-oncogene; Wilms tumor

76
Q

Recurrent lovar hemorrage?

A

Cerebral amyloid angiopathy

77
Q

Signs of hemolytic anemia (3)

A

anemia, elevated LDH level, indirect bilirubinemia

78
Q

Complication of hemolytic anemia

A

pigmented gallstones (mixture of calcium bilirubinate, bilirubin polymers, and calcium salts)

STEP1 (13 decks)

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