STAPHYLOCOCCUS Flashcards

1
Q

recovered in wounds, septicemia, UTI and native valve infections.

A

staphylococcus haemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

catheter related bacteremia and endocarditis

A

staphylococcus lugdunensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

found in head

A

staphylococcus capitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Found in ear

A

staphylococcus auricularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

associated mainly with urinary tract infections, predominately in adolescent girls and young women.

A

staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

has been known to cause various health care-acquired or nosocomial infections

A

staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

causes bacterial cells to agglutinate in plasma

A

clumping factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

help the bacteria to invade the host caused the disease and evade host defenses

A

virulence factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hemolysins and leukocidins

A

cytolytic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathogenic factor; destroys RBC

A

Hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in addition to lysine erythrocyte, it can damage the platelets and macrophages, and can cause severe tissue damage

A

Alpha hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of erythrocyte and also called HOT-COLD lysine.

A

Beta-hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Beta-hemolysin also known as

A

Sphingomyelinase C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

associated with Panton-Valentine leukocidin

A

Gamma-hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

rupture of WBCs

A

Panton-Valentine leukocidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

heat-stable at 100•C for 30 mins that cause various symptoms including diarrhea and vomiting.

A

Enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What group causes of food poisoning

A

Enterotoxin A, B, and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the most commonly associated with enterotoxin.

A

Enterotoxin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

has been linked to staphylococcal pseudomambraneous enterocolitis

A

Enterotoxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

belong to a class of polypeptides known as superantigen

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin - 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TSST - 1 formerly known as

A

enterotoxin F and pyrogenic exotoxin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Superantigen potent activators of T lymphocytes leading to the release of cytokines such as interleukins and tumor necrosis factor

A

Exfoliative toxin or epidermolytic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

responsible for the staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. It is also has been implicated in bullous impetigo

A

epidermolytic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Epidermolytic also known as

A

Exfoliatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Epidermolytic Toxin also called as

A

Exfoliative toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

SSSS or Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome also known as

A

Ritter disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Exfoliative Toxin A is

A

Heat stable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Exfoliative Toxin B

A

Heat labile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

responsible for lysin clot

A

Fibrolysin or Staphylokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

activates plasminogen to form plasmic which digest the fibrin clots

A

Staphylokinase or fabrolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

responsible for anti-phagocytosis

A

Protein A or Polysaccharide A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  • has the ability to bind to the fc portion of the immunoglobulin in this manner can block phagocytosis and negate protective effect of the immunoglobulin
A

Protein A or Polysaccharide A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

localized absecess ; virulence factor

A

Staphylocoagulase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

enzyme that is important in the virulence of staphylococcus aureus are

A

coagulase, hyaluronidase, lipase, and DNAse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

degrades DNA components of tissue ; spreading factor

A

Hyaluronidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

spreading factor; act on lipids present on the surface of the skin, particularly fats and oil secreted by the sebaceous glands

A

Lipase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the other enzymes used to identify s. aureus?

A

Catalase, gelatinase, penicillinase, thermonuclease

38
Q

Inflammation of hair follicle or oil gland; infected area is raised and red

A

Folliculitis

39
Q

Extension of folliculitis ; large, raised and superficial abscess

A

Furuncles

40
Q

Cluster of boils

A

Carbuncles

41
Q

Larger than streptococcal nonbullous impetigo; surrounded by a small zone of erythema

A

Bullous impetigo

42
Q

Examples of deep infections

A

Tonsilitis, pharyngitis, meningitis, sinusitis, septicemia

43
Q

Most cases occur in menstruating women who use tampons

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome

44
Q

Bullous exfoliative dermatitis that occurs primarily in newborns and previously healthy young children

A

Epidermolytic toxin

45
Q

What is the sever form of SSS

A

Ritter’s disease

46
Q

What is the milder form of sss

A

Pemphigus neonatorum

47
Q

Grow easily on routine laboratory culture media

A

Sheep Blood Agar

48
Q

________ and ________ are incorporated in the medium to distinguish s. aureus

A

Mannitol and Phenol

49
Q

Stain readily with _________ and are uniformly gram positive

A

Aniline dyes

50
Q

What is the difference between micrococcus and staphylococcus?

A

Arrangement

51
Q

Arranged in tetrads or pairs

A

Micrococcus

52
Q

Round, smooth, white, creamy colonies

A

Sheep blood agar

53
Q

Smooth glistening, an entire edge, a soft butyrous consistency and an opaque, pigmented appearance

A

Nutrient agar

54
Q

Become bright pink when culture plate is inverted over ammonia for a minute or so.

An indicator medium to identify s. aureus in mixed culture

A

PPA or Phenolphtalein Phosphate Agar

55
Q

Used to differentiate bacteria that produce enzyme catalase such as staphylococcus and micrococcus

A

Catalase test

56
Q

How many percent of hydrogen peroxide is used for aerobic

A

3% hydrogen peroxide

57
Q

Differentiate staphylococcus from streptococcus

A

Catalase test

58
Q

Biochemical test used to differentiate staphylococcus from other staphylococcus

A

Coagulase test

59
Q

What is the specimen in coagulase test?

A

Plasma

60
Q

Detects bound coagulase

A

Slide method

61
Q

Tube method also known as

A

Confirmatory test

62
Q

Slide method also known as

A

Screening test

63
Q

Detexts unbound coagulase

A

Tube method

64
Q

What is the positive result of catalase test?

A

Bubble formation or effervescence

65
Q

What is the positive result for coagulase test?

A

Coagulum or clot

66
Q

What staphylococcus are positive in clumping factor?

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis and staphylococcus schleiferi

67
Q

Exocellular molecule that causes a clot to form when the bacterial cells ate incubated with plasma

A

Staphylocoagulase

68
Q

Small to medium sized, nonhemolytic, gray to white colonies; some weakly hemolytic

A

Staphylococcus epidermidis

69
Q

Slighty larger colonies with about 50% of the strains producing yellow pigment

A

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

70
Q

Medium sized colonies with moderate or weak hemolysis

A

Staphylococcus haemolyticus

71
Q

Small to medium sized colonies, often hemolytic

A

Staphylococcus lugdunensis

72
Q

Most strains produce golden yellow pigment

A

Staphyloxanthin

73
Q

Used to differentiate staphylococcus from micrococcus

A

Oxidation-Fermentation reactions

74
Q

What is the medium used in oxidation-fermentation?

A

O/F Glucose Medium

75
Q

If both tube is positive it is

A

Staphylococcus

76
Q

If closed tube is negative and open tube is positive it is

A

Micrococcus

77
Q

If both tube is negative it is

A

Saccharolytic organism

78
Q

Positive in open tube only

A

Oxidative utilization

79
Q

Positive in closed tube only

A

Fermentation utiliza

80
Q

What is the positive result for modified oxidase test?

A

Blue to purple to black complex

81
Q

If there’s no color change, most probably it is

A

Staphylococcus

82
Q

Reagent impregnated recommended for use in qualitative procedures to aid in the differentiation of staphylococcus and micrococcus

A

Oxidase test

83
Q

What is the color of positive result in Mannitol Salt Agar?

A

Yellow

84
Q

What is the indicator for MSA?

A

Phenol red

85
Q

What is the positive result for DNAse test?

A

Zone of inhibition

86
Q

Protein derived from the connective tissue of vertebrates that is collagen. It is produced when collagen is boiled in water

A

Gelatin

87
Q

Can clinically mimic s. aureus

A

S. Lugdunensis

88
Q

What is the most effective antibiotic if the strain is sensitive

A

Benzyl penicillin

89
Q

What antibiotics are used when penicillinase resistant

A

Cloxacillin, oxacillin, and flucloxacillin

90
Q

Agent of choice in the Treatment of systematic infection but expensive

A

Glycopeptide

91
Q

This ability can spread throughout the bavterial population by a small ring of DNA in a process

A

Conjugation

92
Q

For mild superficial lesions - topical application

A

Bacitracin