Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bact211 > STAPHYLOCOCCUS > Flashcards

STAPHYLOCOCCUS Flashcards

1
Q

recovered in wounds, septicemia, UTI and native valve infections.

A

staphylococcus haemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

catheter related bacteremia and endocarditis

A

staphylococcus lugdunensis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

found in head

A

staphylococcus capitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Found in ear

A

staphylococcus auricularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

associated mainly with urinary tract infections, predominately in adolescent girls and young women.

A

staphylococcus saprophyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

has been known to cause various health care-acquired or nosocomial infections

A

staphylococcus epidermidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

causes bacterial cells to agglutinate in plasma

A

clumping factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

help the bacteria to invade the host caused the disease and evade host defenses

A

virulence factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

hemolysins and leukocidins

A

cytolytic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pathogenic factor; destroys RBC

A

Hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

in addition to lysine erythrocyte, it can damage the platelets and macrophages, and can cause severe tissue damage

A

Alpha hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

acts on sphingomyelin in the plasma membrane of erythrocyte and also called HOT-COLD lysine.

A

Beta-hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Beta-hemolysin also known as

A

Sphingomyelinase C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

associated with Panton-Valentine leukocidin

A

Gamma-hemolysin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

rupture of WBCs

A

Panton-Valentine leukocidin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

heat-stable at 100•C for 30 mins that cause various symptoms including diarrhea and vomiting.

A

Enterotoxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What group causes of food poisoning

A

Enterotoxin A, B, and D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

the most commonly associated with enterotoxin.

A

Enterotoxin A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

has been linked to staphylococcal pseudomambraneous enterocolitis

A

Enterotoxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

belong to a class of polypeptides known as superantigen

A

Toxic shock syndrome toxin - 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

TSST - 1 formerly known as

A

enterotoxin F and pyrogenic exotoxin C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Superantigen potent activators of T lymphocytes leading to the release of cytokines such as interleukins and tumor necrosis factor

A

Exfoliative toxin or epidermolytic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

responsible for the staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome. It is also has been implicated in bullous impetigo

A

epidermolytic toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Epidermolytic also known as

A

Exfoliatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Epidermolytic Toxin also called as
Exfoliative toxin
26
SSSS or Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome also known as
Ritter disease
27
Exfoliative Toxin A is
Heat stable
28
Exfoliative Toxin B
Heat labile
29
responsible for lysin clot
Fibrolysin or Staphylokinase
30
activates plasminogen to form plasmic which digest the fibrin clots
Staphylokinase or fabrolysin
31
responsible for anti-phagocytosis
Protein A or Polysaccharide A
32
- has the ability to bind to the fc portion of the immunoglobulin in this manner can block phagocytosis and negate protective effect of the immunoglobulin
Protein A or Polysaccharide A
33
localized absecess ; virulence factor
Staphylocoagulase
34
enzyme that is important in the virulence of staphylococcus aureus are
coagulase, hyaluronidase, lipase, and DNAse
35
degrades DNA components of tissue ; spreading factor
Hyaluronidase
36
spreading factor; act on lipids present on the surface of the skin, particularly fats and oil secreted by the sebaceous glands
Lipase
37
What are the other enzymes used to identify s. aureus?
Catalase, gelatinase, penicillinase, thermonuclease
38
Inflammation of hair follicle or oil gland; infected area is raised and red
Folliculitis
39
Extension of folliculitis ; large, raised and superficial abscess
Furuncles
40
Cluster of boils
Carbuncles
41
Larger than streptococcal nonbullous impetigo; surrounded by a small zone of erythema
Bullous impetigo
42
Examples of deep infections
Tonsilitis, pharyngitis, meningitis, sinusitis, septicemia
43
Most cases occur in menstruating women who use tampons
Toxic Shock Syndrome
44
Bullous exfoliative dermatitis that occurs primarily in newborns and previously healthy young children
Epidermolytic toxin
45
What is the sever form of SSS
Ritter’s disease
46
What is the milder form of sss
Pemphigus neonatorum
47
Grow easily on routine laboratory culture media
Sheep Blood Agar
48
________ and ________ are incorporated in the medium to distinguish s. aureus
Mannitol and Phenol
49
Stain readily with _________ and are uniformly gram positive
Aniline dyes
50
What is the difference between micrococcus and staphylococcus?
Arrangement
51
Arranged in tetrads or pairs
Micrococcus
52
Round, smooth, white, creamy colonies
Sheep blood agar
53
Smooth glistening, an entire edge, a soft butyrous consistency and an opaque, pigmented appearance
Nutrient agar
54
Become bright pink when culture plate is inverted over ammonia for a minute or so. An indicator medium to identify s. aureus in mixed culture
PPA or Phenolphtalein Phosphate Agar
55
Used to differentiate bacteria that produce enzyme catalase such as staphylococcus and micrococcus
Catalase test
56
How many percent of hydrogen peroxide is used for aerobic
3% hydrogen peroxide
57
Differentiate staphylococcus from streptococcus
Catalase test
58
Biochemical test used to differentiate staphylococcus from other staphylococcus
Coagulase test
59
What is the specimen in coagulase test?
Plasma
60
Detects bound coagulase
Slide method
61
Tube method also known as
Confirmatory test
62
Slide method also known as
Screening test
63
Detexts unbound coagulase
Tube method
64
What is the positive result of catalase test?
Bubble formation or effervescence
65
What is the positive result for coagulase test?
Coagulum or clot
66
What staphylococcus are positive in clumping factor?
Staphylococcus lugdunensis and staphylococcus schleiferi
67
Exocellular molecule that causes a clot to form when the bacterial cells ate incubated with plasma
Staphylocoagulase
68
Small to medium sized, nonhemolytic, gray to white colonies; some weakly hemolytic
Staphylococcus epidermidis
69
Slighty larger colonies with about 50% of the strains producing yellow pigment
Staphylococcus saprophyticus
70
Medium sized colonies with moderate or weak hemolysis
Staphylococcus haemolyticus
71
Small to medium sized colonies, often hemolytic
Staphylococcus lugdunensis
72
Most strains produce golden yellow pigment
Staphyloxanthin
73
Used to differentiate staphylococcus from micrococcus
Oxidation-Fermentation reactions
74
What is the medium used in oxidation-fermentation?
O/F Glucose Medium
75
If both tube is positive it is
Staphylococcus
76
If closed tube is negative and open tube is positive it is
Micrococcus
77
If both tube is negative it is
Saccharolytic organism
78
Positive in open tube only
Oxidative utilization
79
Positive in closed tube only
Fermentation utiliza
80
What is the positive result for modified oxidase test?
Blue to purple to black complex
81
If there’s no color change, most probably it is
Staphylococcus
82
Reagent impregnated recommended for use in qualitative procedures to aid in the differentiation of staphylococcus and micrococcus
Oxidase test
83
What is the color of positive result in Mannitol Salt Agar?
Yellow
84
What is the indicator for MSA?
Phenol red
85
What is the positive result for DNAse test?
Zone of inhibition
86
Protein derived from the connective tissue of vertebrates that is collagen. It is produced when collagen is boiled in water
Gelatin
87
Can clinically mimic s. aureus
S. Lugdunensis
88
What is the most effective antibiotic if the strain is sensitive
Benzyl penicillin
89
What antibiotics are used when penicillinase resistant
Cloxacillin, oxacillin, and flucloxacillin
90
Agent of choice in the Treatment of systematic infection but expensive
Glycopeptide
91
This ability can spread throughout the bavterial population by a small ring of DNA in a process
Conjugation
92
For mild superficial lesions - topical application
Bacitracin

Bact211 (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions