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Bact211 > Enterobacteriaceae > Flashcards

Enterobacteriaceae Flashcards

1
Q

Which species are non-motile?

A

Klebsiella, shigella, and yersinia

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2
Q

Which specie is catalase negative?

A

Shigella dysenteriae type 1

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3
Q

Which specie is oxidase positive?

A

Plesiomonas

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4
Q

Which species are encapsulated?

A
  • klebsiella
  • enterobacter
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5
Q

Most commensal of GI tract except

A
  • plesiomonas
  • salmonella
  • shigella
  • yersinia
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6
Q

May grow at 1-5 degrees celsius

A
  • serratia
  • yersinia
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7
Q

Do not produce cytochrome oxidase except

A

Plesiomonas

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8
Q

What is the colony morphology of enterobacteria in gram stain?

A

Gram negative coccobacilli

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9
Q

This media has no value for initial identification of enterobacteria

A

SBA or CAP

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10
Q

Which species grows large and very mucoid in SBA and CAP?

A

Klebsiella (sometimes enterobacter)

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11
Q

Enumerate the selective and differential media

A

EMB - Eosin Methylene Blue
MAC - MacConkey agar
HEA - Hektoen Enteric Agar
XLD - Xylose-Lysine Desoxycholate

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12
Q

These are highly selective medium

A

Hektoen Enteric Agar
Xylose-Lysine Desoxycholate

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13
Q

HEA AND XLD contains _____ which produce blackening of hydrogen sulfide

A

Sodium thiosulfate and ferric ammonium citrate

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14
Q

Lack of color change and colonies retain origu al color of medium

A

Non-fermenting

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15
Q

Indicated by a color change on the medium — results from a decrease in pH detected by a pH indicator incorporated into the medium

A

Fermentation

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16
Q

What is the most important media used to differentiate lactose fermenter and non-lactose fermenter?

A

MacConkey agar

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17
Q

What is the color of LF in MAC?

A

Pink colony appearance

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18
Q

What is the color of NLF in MAC?

A

Colorless colony appearance

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19
Q

What other selective and differential media used to isolate distinguishes between LF and NLF?

A
  • Eosin methylene blue
  • Salmonella Shigella agar
  • Triple Sugar Iron
  • MacConkey agar (most important)
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20
Q

Enumerate lactose fermenter bacteria

A
  • Escherichia coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Enterobacter
  • Serratia
  • Citrobacter
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21
Q

Enumerate non-lactose fermenter bacteria

A

MESSHPPY

  • morganella
  • edwardsiella
  • salmonella
  • shigella
  • hafnia
  • proteus
  • providencia
  • yersinia
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22
Q

Enumerate members of coliform bacilli AND what is the most common member of it?

A
  • e. coli
  • klebsiella
  • enterobacter
  • citrobacter

> E. coli (most common member)

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23
Q

Often a part of the usual intestinal microbiota of both humans and animals

A

Opportunistic pathogens

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24
Q

Heat labile antigen found on the surface of flagella

A

H antigen

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25
Q

Heat stable antigen located on the cell wall

A

O antigen

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26
Q

Heat labile polysaccharide found only in certain encapsulated species

A

K antigen

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27
Q

O antigen also known as

A

Somatic antigen

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28
Q

H antigen also known as

A

Flagellar antigen

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29
Q

K antigen also known as

A

Capsular antigen

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30
Q

Give example of K antigen

A
  • K1 antigen found in E. Coli
  • Vi antigen
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31
Q

Biochemical testing was originally done in ______ which is more accurate

A

Test tube

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32
Q

Ability to ferment glucose, lactose, and sucrose and to produce hydrogen sulfide

A

Triple sugar iron

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33
Q

What is the composition of TSI

A

1% lactose, 1% sucrose, 0.1% glucose

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34
Q

Similar to TSI but only incorporates the carbohydrate glucose and lactose

A

KIA - Kligler’s Iron agar

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35
Q

What is the incubation period of TSI and KIA?

A

18-24 hours

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36
Q

Red slant / red butt

A

No fermentation
Alk/alk
K/k

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37
Q

Red slant / yellow butt

A

Glucose fermentation only
K/A

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38
Q

Yellow slant / yellow butt

A

Lactose fermenter
A/A

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39
Q

Blackening of the medium

A

H2s production

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40
Q

With gas production

A

Aerogenic

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41
Q

No gas production

A

Non-aerogenic

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42
Q

Bubbles or splitting in the agar

A

Gas production

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43
Q

Enumerate the biochemical test in IMVIC

A
  • indole test
  • methyl red test
  • voges proskauer test
  • citrate utilization test
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44
Q

Test the ability of the bacteria to produce the enzyme tryptophanase and deaminate tryptophan to indole, pyruvic acid, and ammonia

A

Indole test

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45
Q

What is the enzyme of indole test?

A

Tryptophanase

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46
Q

What is the component of indole test?

A

PDAB - para-dimethyl-aminobenzaldehyde

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47
Q

What are the two reagents of indole test?

A
  • Ehrlich’s reagent
  • kovac’s reagent
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48
Q

What is the positive reaction of indole test?

A

Red ring at the top

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49
Q

What is the positive reaction of methyl red

A

Red color

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50
Q

What is the negative reaction of methyl red?

A

Yellow

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51
Q

It measures the productiin of acetoin after the addition of alphanapthol followed by 40% potassium hydroxide or sodium hydroxide

A

Voges proskauer test

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52
Q

What is the positive reaction for voges proskauer test?

A

Red complex

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53
Q

Determines whether an organisms can use sodium citrate as a sole carbon source

A

Citrate utilization test

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54
Q

Nitrogen source in the medium and utilization of these salts results in the release of ammonia causing pH change

A

Ammonium salts

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55
Q

What is the pH indicator of SCA

A

bromothymol blue

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56
Q

Determines whether an organism has the ability to reduct nitrate to nitrite

A

Nitrate reduction test

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57
Q

What is the positive reaction of nitrate reduction test?

A

Red color

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58
Q

Determines the presence of cytochrome oxidase system that oxidizes reduced cytochrome with molecular oxygen

A

Oxidase test

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59
Q

What biochemical test used to differentiates enterobacteriaceae from pseudomonads?

A

Oxidase test

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60
Q

Determines whether a microorganisms can hydrolyze urea releasing a sufficient amount pf ammonia to produce a color change by a pH indicator

A

Urease test

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61
Q

What is the medium used for urease test?

A

Christensen’s Urea agar

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62
Q

What is the positive reaction of urease test?

A

Bright pink color

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63
Q

What biochemical test used to differentiate proteus from other enteric bacteria?

A

Urease test

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64
Q

What is the positive reaction of Gelatin Hydrolysis test?

A

Liquefaction of the gelatin

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65
Q

What is the positive reaction of oxidase test?

A

Purple

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66
Q

Bacteria that produce gelatinases that break down gelatin into amino acids

A

Gelatin Hydrolysis Test

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67
Q

Utilizes the sodium thiosulfate source to form H2s, a colorless gas -H2s combines with the indicator ferrous sulfate

A

Hydrogen sulfide production

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68
Q

What are the media that can be used for h2s test?

A

SIM - sulfide indole motility
Salmonella Shigella agar
Hektoen Enteric agar
TSI
KIA
LIA

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69
Q

What is the agar concentration for motility test?

A

0.4% agar

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70
Q

What is the routine medium used for motility test?

A

SIM

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71
Q

What is the positive reaction of motility test?

A

Movement away the stab line or hazy appearance

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72
Q

Enumerate the amino acid utilization

A
  • Decarboxylase and Dihydrolase test
  • PAD test (Phenylalanine deaminase test)
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73
Q

Determine whether the bacterial species possess enzymes capable of decarboxylating specific amino acid in the test medium

A

Decarboxylase and dihydrolase tsst

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74
Q

What are the two amino acids commonly used?

A

Lysine and ornithine

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75
Q

What are the products of decarboxylation?

A

Amine or diamine

76
Q

Lysine decarboxylase

A

Cadaverine

77
Q

Ornithine decarboxylase

A

Putrescine

78
Q

What are the media that can be used in decarboxylase and dihydrolase test?

A

LIA, Motility indole ornithine, moeller decarboxylase base medium

79
Q

What is the positive reaction for decarboxylase and dihydrolase test?

A

Purple

80
Q

What is the negative result for decarboxylase and dihydrolase test?

A

Yellow

81
Q

Determines whether an organisms possesses thr enzyme that deaminates phenylalanine to phenylpyruvic acid

A

Phenylalanine deaminase test

82
Q

What is the reagent used in PAD test?

A

10% ferric chloride

83
Q

What is the positive reaction of PAD test?

A

Green color

84
Q

What bacteria are pisi tube in PAD test?

A

Proteus, providencia, and morganella

85
Q

Used primarily to determine whether the bacteria decarboxylate or deaminate lysine

A

Lysine iron agar

86
Q

What media are used to differentiate salmonella from citrobacter?

A

Lysine iron agar

87
Q

What media are used to differentiate proteus, morganella, and providence from other enterobacteriaceae?

A

LIA

88
Q

What is the ph indicator of LIA?

A

Bromocresol purple

89
Q

What is the most significant species in the genus Escherichia?

A

Escherichia coli or colon bacillus

90
Q

What is the morphology of e. coli when inoculated in MAC?

A

Pink colonies

91
Q

What is the morphology of e. coli when inoculated in EMB?

A

Greenish metallic sheen

92
Q

E. Coli
IMVIC

A

Indole positive
Methyl red positive
Voges proskauer negative
Citrate negative

Does not produce h2s, dnase, urease, or PAD test

93
Q

What is the strain of E. Coli that is considered as the most common cause of UTIs in humans?

A

UPEC - Uropathogenic E. Coli

94
Q

What are the two pathogenic strains of E. Coli?

A
  • Uropathogenic e. coli (UPEC)
  • Enterovirulent or Diarrheogenic e. coli
95
Q

Primary virulencr factor associated with the ability of E. Coli to cause UTIs

A

Pili

96
Q

Based on virulence factors clinical manifestations epidemiology and different O and H serotypes

A

Enterovirulent or diarrheogenic e. coli

97
Q

Associated with diarrhea of adults and especially children in tropical and subtropical climates

A

Enterotoxigenic e. coli (ETEC)

98
Q

Causes “infantile diarrhea”

A

Enteropathogenic e. coli (EPEC)

99
Q

Enterotoxigenic e. coli is the most common cause of diarrheal disease also referred to as

A

Traveler’s diarrhea

100
Q

Deficiency of hydrochloric acid within the stomach

A

Achlorydia

101
Q

Pathogenic strain of e. coli produces shiga-like toxins

A

EHEC - Enterohemorrhagic e. coli

102
Q

characterized by watery diarrhea, abdominal cramps, nausea usually with no vomit or fever

A

ETEC - Enterotoxigenic e. coli

103
Q

Characterized by low-grade fever, malaise, vomiting and diarrhea

A

EPEC - Enteropathogenic e. coli

104
Q

Outbreak occurs in hospital nurseries and daycare centers

A

EPEC

105
Q

Characterized by fever, severe abdominal cramps, malaise and watery diarrhea

A

EIEC - EnteroInvasive E. Coli

106
Q

Produce dysentery with direct penetration, invasion, and destruction of the intestinal mucosa

A

EIEC

107
Q

It was first recognized during the outbreak of hemorrhagic diarrhea and colitis

A

EHEC

108
Q

What is the carbohydrate used in MAC for primary screening test in enterohemorrhagic e. coli?

A

Sorbitol

109
Q

Most common cause of septicemia and meningitis in neonates

A

Extraintestinal infections

110
Q

Most documented virulencr factor associated with neonatal meningeal infections

A

K1 capsular antigen

111
Q

E coli strain isolated from humans with infected wounds

A

E. vulneris

112
Q

E. coli strain isolated from CSF, Wounds and blood

A

E. hermannii

113
Q

E. coli strain associated with diarrheal disease in children

A

E. albertii

114
Q

Found in the intestinal tract of humans and animals of free living in soil, water, and on plants

A

Klebsiella

115
Q

What media does klebsiella most grow?

A

SCA - Simmons citrate agar
KCN - Potassium Cyanide Broth

116
Q

Plasmid transfer of antimicrobial resistance

A

K. pneumoniae

117
Q

What is other name for klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Friedlandler’s bacillus

118
Q

Causes community acquired pneumonia- cough up currant jelly like sputum

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

119
Q

What is the virulence factor of klebsiella pneumoniae?

A

Polysaccharide capsule

120
Q

What is the differential test for k. pneumoniae?

A

String test

121
Q

What is the IMVIC reaction for k. pneumoniae?

A
    • ++
122
Q

What is the TSI reaction for k. pneumoniae?

A

A/A, gas+, h2s -

123
Q

Linked to Antimicrobial associated hemorrhagic colitis

A

K. Oxytoca

124
Q

Causes astrophic rhinitis - a tissue destructive disease restricted to the nose (foul smelling astrophic rhinitis)

A

K. pneumoniae subsp ozaenae

125
Q

Causes rhinoscleroma - an infection of the nasal cavity that manifests as an intense swelling and malformation of the entire face and neck

A

K. pneumoniae subsp rhicosleromatis

126
Q

Isolated from wounds, urine, blood, and CSF

A

Enterobacter cloacae and E. aerogenes

127
Q

Nationwide outbreak of septicemia resulting from contaminated IV fluids

A

Pantoea agglomerans

128
Q

This specie of enterbacter Found in respiratory samples and is rarely isolated from blood cultures

A

Enterobacter gergoviae

129
Q

Produces a yellow pigment and has been documented as a pathogen in neonates causing meningitis and bacteremia often coming from powdered infant formula

A

Cronobacter sakazakii

130
Q

Isolated from human resources such as blood, wounds, sputum

A

Enterobacter hormaechei

131
Q

Similar biochemically to e. cloacae and has been isolated from blood, urine, feces, sputum, and wounds

A

Enterobacter asburiae

132
Q

What is the IMVIC reaction of enterobacter?

A

Neg
Neg
Pos
Pos

133
Q

What is the TSI reaction of enterobacter?

A

A/A, gas+, h2s -

134
Q

What is the color of the colony produced by serratia marcescens, s. rubidea, and s. plymuthica?

A

Prodigiosin or pink-red pigment

135
Q

This specie of serratia has Musty and pungent odor or “rotten potato-like” odor

A

Serratia odorifera

136
Q

This specie of serratia Ferments arabinose growth in KCN media

A

Serratia liquifaciens

137
Q

Causes outbreak in nurseries, burn units and cardiac surgery units

A

Serratia marcescens

138
Q

What is the IMVIC reaction for serratia?

A
    • ++
139
Q

What is the tsi reaction for serratia?

A

K/A, gas + , h2s -

140
Q

It is gastroenteritis and is occasionally isolated from stool culture.
Major characteristic is delayed positive citrate reaction

A

Hafnia alvei

141
Q

These proteus species are widely recognized human pathogens

A

Proteus vulgaris and proteus mirabilis

142
Q

Most common clinical isolate of proteus

A

Proteus mirabilis

143
Q

These genus can produce swarming colonies on nonselective media

A

Proteus spp

144
Q

What is the tsi reaction of proteus?

A

A/A

145
Q

This specie has burnt chocolate odor

A

Proteus spp

146
Q

It causes UTI and neonatal sepsis

A

Morganella spp

147
Q

What is the IMVIC reaction of morganella?

A

++ - -

148
Q

What is the LIA and TSI reaction for morganella?

A

Lia - R/A
TSI - K/A, gas+ , h2s -

149
Q

This specie of providencia is the most commonly found in the feces of children with diarrhea

A

Providencia alcalifaciens

150
Q

outbreaks in burn units; isolated from urine culture

A

Providencia stuartii

151
Q

This specie of providencia documented pathogens of urinary tract ; also diarrheal disease among travelers

A

Providencia rettgeri

152
Q

This specie of providencia formerly identified as a strain of P. alcalifaciens

A

Providencia rustigianii

153
Q

What is the specie of edwardsiella that is only recognized human pathogen; causes bacteremia and wound infections

A

Edwardsiella tarda

154
Q

What is the IMVIC reaction for edwardsiella?

A

++ - -

155
Q

What is the TSI reaction of edwardsiella?

A

K/A , gas+ , h2s +

156
Q

What is the IMVIC reaction of plesiomonas?

A

+ + - -

157
Q

What is the tsi reaction of plesiomonas?

A

K/A , gas - , h2s -

158
Q

Organisms produce GI illness in humans - not considered normal biota of the human intestinal tract

A

Salmonella and shigella

159
Q

Usually indicates improper sanitary conditions and poor personal hygiene

A

Shigella dysentery

160
Q

Groups within a single species of microorganisms which share distinctive surface structures

A

Serotype or serovar

161
Q

Found in cold blooded animals as well as in rodents and birds

A

Salmonella

162
Q

Salmonella on MAC is

A

Clear or colorless non-lactose fermenter

163
Q

Role in adherence in initiating intestinal infection

A

Fimbriae

164
Q

Most severe form of enteric fever

A

Typhoid fever

165
Q

One of the most common forms of food poisoning

A

Salmonella gastroenteritis

166
Q

What are the virulence factor of salmonella?

A
  • fimbriae
  • Enterotoxin
167
Q

What is the Antimicrobial of choice of gastroenteritis?

A
  • ampicillin
  • chloramphenicol
168
Q

What week does rose spots appear in typhoid fever?

A

2nd week

169
Q

Who recover from infection may harbor the organisms in the gallbladder

A

Carrier state

170
Q

Shigella is named after japanese microbiologist

A

Kiyoshi shiga

171
Q

What is the most virulent species of shigella

A

Shigella dysenteriae

172
Q

One of the causes of gay bowel syndrome

A

Shigella flexneri

173
Q

Shigella serotype A

A

Shigella dysenteriae

174
Q

Shigella serotype B

A

Shigella flexneri

175
Q

Shigella serotype C

A

Shigella boydi

176
Q

Shigella serotype D

A

Shigella sonnei

177
Q

Unique in its ability to’ decarboxylate ornithine.

Produces a “delayed” positive fermentation of lactose with the formation of pink colonies on MAC

A

Shigella sonnei

178
Q

What is the mode of transmission for shigella?

A

Direct Person to person

179
Q

What are the three species of yersinia?

A
  • yersinia pestis
  • yersinia pseudotuberculosis
  • tersinia enterolitica
180
Q

Produced an infection that mimics appendicitis

A

Yersinia enterolituca

181
Q

Causative agent of plague, a disease primarily of rodents transmitted to humans by fleas

A

Yersinia pestis

182
Q

Caused sporadic cases of mesenteric lymphadenitis in humans

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

183
Q

What are the three forms of plague in humans?

A
  • bubonic or glandular form
  • septicemic form
  • pneumonic form
184
Q

Most common ; resukts from the bite of an infected flea

A

Bubonic or glandular form

185
Q

Bacteria spread to the bloodstream

A

Septicemic form

186
Q

it is referred to as the bipolar staining “safety pin” appearance

A

Yersinia pestis

187
Q

What is the pattern of yersinia pestis in broth if not shaken?

A

Stalactite shaped

Bact211 (10 decks)

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