staph Flashcards

1
Q

Is staphylococcus gram positive cocci?

A

yes

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2
Q

is neisseria gram positive cocci?

A

no

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3
Q

is moraxella gram positive cocci?

A

no

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4
Q

is veillonella gram positive cocci?

A

no

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5
Q

is streptococcus gram positive vocci?

A

yes

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6
Q

is micrococcus gram positive cocci?

A

yes

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7
Q

morphologically round in shape and is color violet/purple

A

gram positive cocci

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8
Q

is a biological kingdom that is made up of
prokaryotes, particularly bacteria. it lacks nucleus

A

monera

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9
Q

small pinpoint colonies

A

steptrococcus

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10
Q

appears in cluster

A

staphylococcus

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11
Q

obligate aerobe

A

micrococcus

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12
Q

facultative anaerobe

A

streptococcus, and staph

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13
Q

medium large, pinhead colonies

A

staphylococcus

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14
Q

small-medium colonies, not pinhead, not pin-oint

A

micrococcusq

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15
Q

non hemolytic genus

A

micrococcus

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16
Q

beta-hemolytic genus

A

staphylococcus

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17
Q

alpha, beta, gamma hemolysis

A

streptococcus

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18
Q

among the three’ micrococcus, staph and strep. Which are the catalase positive and catalase negative

A

catalase positive are the micrococcus and staphylococcus
catalase negative is streptococcus

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19
Q

the genus staphylococcus is deriveed from the greek word __ meaning brabches of grapes

A

staphle

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20
Q

among the staphs, which are the only pathogenic to human that is COAGULASE POSITIVE

A

Staphylococcus Aureus

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21
Q

staphylococcus:
golden-yellow colonies; pathogenic

A

S. Aureus

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22
Q

staphylococcus:
white pigment, a chromogenic opportunistic pathogen

A

S. citreus

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23
Q

staphylococcus:
white pigment only

A

S. albus

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24
Q

staphylococcus:
animal pathogen

A

S. hyicus

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25
Q

staphylococcus:
predominant normal flora on the skin;leading cause of iantrogenic infection

A

S. epidermis

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26
Q

staphylococcus:
opportunistic pathogen; normal flora of skin that is frequently cause of UTI , abortion/miscarriages

A

S. saprophyticus

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27
Q

staphylococcus:
recovered in wounds

A

S. haemolyticus

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28
Q

Common inhabitant of the skin and mucous
membranes, responsible for several suppurative
infections

A

staphylococcus

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29
Q

Gram-positive cocci, catalase-positive

A

staphy and micro

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30
Q

Spherical cells arranged in irregular clusters, appear
singly, in pairs

A

staphy

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31
Q

is staphy motile?

A

No, it cannot move

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32
Q

is staphy spore forming?

A

no

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33
Q

In staphy, aerobic or facultative anaerobic except for one specie that is obligate anaerobe. What is it

A

S. saccharolyticus

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34
Q

“buttery looking”, cream colored, medium sized of 4-8 mm, white nad rarely gold

A

staph

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35
Q

Is the most dangerous of all the many common
staphylococcal bacteria.

A

S. aureus

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36
Q

coagulase postive of staph

A

S. aureus

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37
Q

It causes various cutaneous infections and purulent
abscesses.
- These cutaneous infections can progress to
deeper abscesses involving other organ systems
and produce bacteremia and septicemia.

A

s. aureus

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38
Q

S. lugdunensis and S. schleiferi –
mistaken as coagulase positive
staphylococci because of the presence of

A

clumping factor

39
Q

virulence factors of s.aureus

A

cytolytic toxins
-hemolysin
enterotoxins
toxic shock syndrome
epidermolytic toxin (exfoliative toxin)
fibrolysin/staphylokinase
protein a and polysaccharide a
staphylocoagulase
hyaluronidase
lipase
dnase

40
Q

hemolysin belongs to cytolytic toxins. hemolysin compoosed of alpha, betta, gamma. and delta. it primary destroys what?

A

RBC liberating hemoglobin

41
Q

hemolysin that damage platelets and
macrophages and can cause severe tissue
damage

A

alpha hemolysis

42
Q

beta hemolysin is also known as

A

sphingomyelinase C

43
Q

eta acts on the
sphingomyelin in plasma membrane of
erythrocytes and is also called as the HOT COLD LYSINE

A

beta hemolysin or SPHINGOMYELINASE C

44
Q

another type of cytolytic toxins that is primary for rupturing WBC, it is called

A

panton-valentine toxin/leukocidin

45
Q

are responsible for the manifestations of staphylococcal
food poisoning; heat stable; it has A, B, and Da

A

enterotoxin

46
Q

a virulence factor that causes toxic shock
syndrome a Severe and often fatal disorder
characterized by multiple organ dysfunction

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSTT-1)

47
Q

Formerly known as Enterotoxin F and pyrogenic
exotoxin C

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin-1 (TSTT-1)

48
Q

Responsible for the staphylococcal scalded skin
syndrome (SSS) sometimes referred to as Ritter
disease.

A

Epidermolytic Toxin (Exfoliative Toxin)

49
Q
  • responsible for lysin clot
  • activates plasminogen to form plasmin which
    digests the vibrant clots
A

Fibrolysin/Staphylokinase

50
Q

block phagocytosis and negate the protective
effect of the G (IgG)

A

Protein A and Polysaccharide A

51
Q

is a relatively mild inflammation of hair
follicle or oil gland; infected area is raised and red

A

Folliculitis

52
Q

extension of folliculitis; large, raised and
superficial abscess
- in tagalog it is called pigsa

A

furuncles (boils)

53
Q
  • cluster of boils
  • often present with fever and chills indicating that
    the infection is spread systemically or in the blood
A

carbuncles

54
Q

larger than streptococcal non-bullous impetigo;
surrounded by a small zone of erythema

A

Bullous impetigo

55
Q
  • is highly contagious infection that isn’t spread by
    direct contact, fomites or auto inoculation
A

Bullous impetigo

56
Q

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)
- Is a toxin with gated acute life-threatening illness
caused by the

A

enterotoxin F.

57
Q

affects menstruating women especially those
who use super absorbent tampons the body
responds with a sharp drop in blood pressure that
deprives the organs of oxygen and can lead to
death.

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)

58
Q

Fatal, multisystem disease characterized by
sudden onset of fever, chills, vomiting, diarrhea,
muscle aches and rash (predominantly on the
trunk)

A

Toxic Shock Syndrome (TSS)

59
Q

produced by the
staphylococcus aureus is responsible for the
disease scalded skin syndrome

A

Exfoliative Diseases
- Epidermolytic toxin

60
Q

The toxin is metabolized and excreted by
the kidneys and investigators believe this may be
the reason why the incidence of SSS is higher
among children younger than five years old and among adults with chronic renal failure and
impaired immune system

A

epidermolytic toxin (Exfoliative Diseases)

61
Q

the best sample for staphyloccus aureusq

A

aspirate sample, a single swab would be less satisfactory for bith culture and smear results

62
Q

or large gram positive cocci usually
arranged in tetrads or in pairs

A

Micrococcus

63
Q

produce golden-yellow
(aureus) pigment (staphyloxanthin)
- White-colony strains of S. aureus are
fully virulent. according to the characteristics, where does s.sureus cultured

A

nutrient agar

64
Q

identification of S. aureus in MIXED CULTURES

A

Phenolphthalein Phosphate Agar (PPA)

65
Q

small- to medium-sized,
nonhemolytic, gray-to-white colonies; some weakly
hemolytic

A

S. epidermis

66
Q

slightly larger colonies, with about
50% of the strains producing a yellow pigment

A

s. saprophyticus

67
Q

medium sized colonies, with
moderate or weak hemolysis and variable pigment
production

A

s. haemolyticus

68
Q

demonstrate the presence of catalase
an enzyme that catalyzes the release of oxygen from
hydrogen peroxide (H2O2)

A

catalase test

69
Q

reagent used in catalase test

A

3% H2O2 is used for the routine culture
- While 15% hydrogen peroxide is used for the
detection of catalase in an aerobe.

70
Q

positive result of catalase test

A

bubbles formation or effervescence

71
Q

Best single pathogenicity test for staphylococcus

A

coagulase (slide or tube method)

72
Q

is a biochemical test that is used
to differentiate staphylococcus aureus from other
staphylococci species

A

Coagulase test

73
Q

positive relut in slide method (screening test) for coagulation

A

agglutination

74
Q

Because about five percent
of staphylococcus aureus organisms do not produce
clamping factors any negatives like coagulase test results
must be confirmed with the .

A

tube method

75
Q

hrs of incubation for tube method

A

2 hrs then 4 then 24 hrs

76
Q

uses Hugh and Leifson’s Medium

A

Oxidation-Fermentation (O/F) Reactions

77
Q

, meaning
absence it will not produce acid in either of
the tube

A

Asaccharolytic organism

78
Q

Modified Oxidase Test
- Active Chemical component is )_______

A

Tetra-methyl-paraphenylene diamine dihydrochloride

79
Q

in modified-oxidase test (+) = blue to purple to black complex

A

[Micrococci]

80
Q

positive result and indicator of mannitol fermentation

A

yellow and phenol red

81
Q

positive result and indicator of mannitol fermentation

A

yellow agar and phenol red

82
Q

Gelatinases are proteases secreted
extracellularly by some bacteria which hydrolyze
or digest gelatin.

A

Gelatin Liquefaction/Hydrolysis Test

83
Q

Staphylococcus ____ is
resistant to novobiocin whereas most other coNs
are susceptible

A

saprophyticus

84
Q

most common cause of prosthetic valce endocarditis

A

S. epidermis

85
Q

UTIs in young women

A

Staphylococcus saphrophyticus

86
Q

Staphylococcus has been known to contain the gene
MECA that encodes oxacillin resistance

A

S. lugdunensis

87
Q

Cloxacillin, oxacillin, flucloxacillin

A

are used as
penicillinase resistant penicillin.

88
Q

(vancomycin or teicoplanin) are the
agents of choice in the treatment of systemic infection, but
these agents are expensive and may be toxic.

A

glycopeptides

89
Q

is responsible for several difficult to treat
infections in humans. It is sometimes called the
superbug..

A

Methylene resistant staphylococcus aureus

90
Q

such as
the oxacillin resistance screening agar can be
used as a screening test for MRSA in clinical
samples

A

an oxacillin-salt agar plate

91
Q

is a better inducer of mecA mediated
resistance.

A

Cefoxitin

92
Q

is a drug of choice and sometimes the only
drug available for serious staphylococcal infections

A

Vancomycin

93
Q

a macrolide, is frequently used in
staphylococcal skin infections; additional testing using a
modified double disk diffusion test (D-zone test) might be
useful

A

clindamycin

94
Q

Only two species, Micrococcus ____and Micrococcus
___, remain in the genus.

A

luteus, lylae