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CLINICAL BACTERIOLOGY > enterobacteriaceae > Flashcards

enterobacteriaceae Flashcards

1
Q

● Enterics
● Gram-negative bacilli
● Facultative anaerobes

A

enterobacteriaceae

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2
Q

All species ferment glucose with the product of acid or acid and gas

A

enterobacteriaceae

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3
Q

All are motiles at 35
oC with peritrichous flagella

A

enterobacteriaceae

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4
Q

Catalase positive
- except for ___ type 1, which is
catalase-negative

A

Shigella dysenteriae

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5
Q

Oxidase negative
- except for ___

A

Plesiomonas

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6
Q

Non encapsulated
- except for ___ and ____

A

Klebsiella and Enterobacter

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7
Q

Reduce nitrate to nitrites
- except for ____ and ___

A

Photorhabdus and Xenorrhabdus

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8
Q

Most are commensal of the GI tract
- except for 3

A

Plesiomonas, Salmonella, Shigella,
and Yersinia

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9
Q

may grow at 1
oC to 5 oC

A

Serratia and Yersinia

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10
Q

They do not produce cytochrome oxidase
- except for

A

Plesiomonas

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11
Q

e, coli, citrobacter, klebciella. enterobacter

A

lactose fermenter

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12
Q

salmonella, shigella, proteus, yersinia

A

non lactone fermenter

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13
Q

most imoortant media for lf and nonlf

A
  • MacConkey agar
  • Eosin Methylene Blue (EMB) agar
  • Salmonella Shigella (SS) agar
  • Triple Sugar Iron (TSI) agar
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14
Q

The most important media used to
differentiate these two classifications is the
___, with a pink colony
appearance when lactose is fermented and a
colorless colony appearance in non-lactose
fermenting organisms.

A

MacConkey agar

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15
Q

– this is a heat-stable
antigen located on the cell wall.

A

o antigen (somatic antigen)

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16
Q

this is a heat-labile
antigen found on the surface of flagella, structures
responsible for motility.

A

● H antigen (flagellar antigen)

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17
Q

– this this is a
heat-labile polysaccharide found only in certain
encapsulated species

A

K antigen (capsular antigen)

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18
Q

indicator for TSI or triple sugar iron agar

A

phenol red

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19
Q

TSI = ALK/ALK or K/K, color red tube slant and butt means?

A

no fermentation

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20
Q

Alkaline slant/acid butt or K/A, red/yellow

A

an indicative of glucose
fermentation only.

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21
Q

Acid/acid, Yellow/Yellow, A/A

A

. Lactose (or sucrose or both) fermentation

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22
Q

blackening of the medium
- Blackening of the medium occurs in the
presence of H2S or hydrogen sulfide

A

H2S production

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23
Q

formation of bubbles or splitting of the medium
from the bottom of the tube
- Bubbles or splitting in the agar indicates a
production of gas.

A

Gas production (aerogenic) or no gas
production (nonaerogenic)

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24
Q

IMViC reactions are a set of four useful reactions
what does IMVic stands for

A

● Indole Test
● Methyl Red Test
● Voges-Proskauer Test
● Citrate Utilization Test

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25
Q

Tryptophan

Indole reacts with the aldehyde in the reagent to givea red color reaction. An alcoholic layerconcentrates the red color as a red ring at the top.

A

INDOLE TEST

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26
Q

red color after addition of
MR pH indicator

A

METHYL RED TEST

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27
Q

It measure the production of ACETOIN after the
addition of α-naphthol (catalyst or color
intensifier) followed by 40% KOH or NaOH
● Acetoin then oxidized into diacetyl
2,3-Butanediol
● Positive reaction – red complex

A

VOGES-PROSKAUER TEST

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28
Q

It determines whether an organism can use
sodium citrate as a sole carbon source
● Medium used – Simmons’ Citrate Medium
(SCA) – routinely used

A

CITRATE UTILIZATION TEST

29
Q

are the nitrogen source in
the medium and utilization of these salts
results in the release of ammonia, causing a
pH change for citrate utilization test

A

Ammonium salts

30
Q

pH indicator for citrate utilization test, with a blue positive result

A

bromothymol blue

31
Q

Determines whether an organism has the ability to
reduce nitrate to nitrite
positive reaction turns red

A

Nitrate Reduction Test

32
Q

Differentiates Enterobacteriaceae (oxidase-negative)
from pleisiomonas (oxidase-positive)

A

Oxidase Test

33
Q

Determines the presence of the cytochrome oxidase
system that oxidizes reduced cytochrome with molecular
oxygen

Positive reaction - purple or lavender color

A

Oxidase Test

34
Q

Determines whether a microorganism can hydrolyze
urea (by the action of urease enzyme), releasing a
sufficient amount of ammonia to produce a color change
by a pH indicator

A

Urease Test

35
Q

pH indicator for urease test

A
  • phenol red
36
Q

Positive reaction for urease test

A

pink color

37
Q

urease test primarily distinguisded genus__ from other enteric bacteria

A

proteus

38
Q

indicator for h2s, hydrogen sulfide production

A

ferrous sulfate

39
Q

lysine positive

A

salmonella

40
Q

lysine negative

A

citrobacter

41
Q

pH indicator for LIA

A

bromocresol purple

42
Q

lysine deamination results to a what color slant?

A

red slant R/x

43
Q

lysine decarboxylation results to a what color but ?

A

purple butt x/K

44
Q

negative in decarb positive in deamine

A

R/A

45
Q

positive both

A

K/R

46
Q

, the most significant species in the
genus Escherichia

A

● E. coli

47
Q

Strain of E. coli that is considered as the most
common cause of UTIs in humans

A

Uropathogenic E. coli (UPEC)

48
Q

Associated with diarrhea of adults and especially
children in tropical and subtropical climates
● It is the most common cause of diarrheal disease

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

49
Q

“traveler’s diarrhea”

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

50
Q

Produce a heat-stable toxin (ST) or a heat-labile toxin
(LT) or both

A

Enterotoxigenic E. coli

51
Q

Causes “infantile diarrhea”

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli

52
Q

Stool contains large amount of mucus, no blood
present

A

Enteropathogenic E. coli

53
Q

Produce dysentery with direct penetration, invasion,
and destruction of the intestinal mucosa

A

Enteroinvasive E. col

54
Q

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

A

Associated with hemorrhagic diarrhea and HUS
(hemolytic uremic syndrome)

55
Q

Watery diarrhea - Bloody diarrhea with abdominal
cramps, low grade fever or an absence of fever

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

56
Q

Processed meats (undercooked hamburgers),
unpasteurized dairy products, apple cider, bean sprouts
and spinach, all have been implicated in the spread of
infection

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

57
Q

Shiga-like toxins)

A

Enterohemorrhagic E. coli

58
Q

Cause of diarrhea in HIV positive patients

A

. EAEC Enteroaggregative E. coli

59
Q

UTIs and diarrheal disease
- Cystitis in children and acute pyelonephritis in
pregnant women
- Chronic or recurring UTIs

A

DAECs Diffusely Adherent E. coli

60
Q

virulence factor associated with
neonatal meningeal infections

A

K1 capsular antigen

61
Q

All are MR- and VP+
- All give a negative reaction with the methyl red
test and a positive reaction with the
Voges-Proskauer test.

A

KLEBSIELLA

62
Q

The absence of motility distinguishes ____
spp. from most other members of the family
Enterobacteriaceae.

A

Klebsiella

63
Q

is the most commonly isolated
species and has the distinct feature of
possessing a large polysaccharide capsule.

A

K. pneumoniae

64
Q

Responsible for the moist, mucoid colonies
characteristic of___ on MAC

A

K. pneumoniae

65
Q

Linked to antimicrobial-associated hemorrhagic colitis
● Identical to K. pneumoniae except for its production of
indole, and there are reports of ornithine-positive isolates
as well

A

K. oxytoca

66
Q

. pneumoniae subsp. ozaenae

A

Causes atrophic rhinitis - a tissue-destructive
disease restricted to the nose

67
Q

an infection of the nasal
cavity that manifests as an intense swelling and
malformation of the entire face and neck

A

K. pneumoniae subsp. rhinoscleromatis

68
Q

Composed of only one specie: H. alvei

A

hafnia

69
Q

“Burnt chocolate” odor
● Proximal kidney tubules – A

A

PROTEUS

CLINICAL BACTERIOLOGY (10 decks)

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