SPV Focused Review Flashcards

PASS ONLY!!

1
Q
A

APU Bleed ON

Single Pack operation

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2
Q
A
  1. Pack control valve position disagreement
  2. Compressor outlet overheat
  3. Pack outlet overheat
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3
Q
A

Sends a “close” signal to the inlets and valves below the water line.

  1. Outflow valve
  2. Emergency Ram inlet
  3. Avionics inlet and extract valves
  4. Pack flow control valves.
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4
Q
A

Both automatic pressurization controllers have failed.

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5
Q
A

GEN 1 LINE SMOKE
BLOWER FAULT
EXTRACT FAULT

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6
Q

What are the three methods available to disconnect the Autothrust?

A
  1. Press either AUTO THRUST INSTINCTIVE DISCONNECT pushbuttons.
  2. Retard both Thrust Levers to idle.
  3. Push A/THR pb on FCU.
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7
Q

Which of these will cause a “Thrust Lock” condition?

  1. Press either AUTO THRUST INSTINCTIVE DISCONNECT pushbuttons.
  2. Retard both Thrust Levers to idle.
  3. Push A/THR pb on FCU.
A
  1. Push A/THR pb on FCU.
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8
Q

What action is required to restore conventional manual thrust control from a “Thrust Lock” condition?

A

Move the Thrust Levers

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9
Q
A

Armed. (blue A/THR in right-hand column)

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10
Q

What is the difference between the vertical modes CLB and OP CLB?

A

CLB = Managed Climb mode is engaged. The FMGS target altitude is higher than the actual altitude. This mode is used to climb towards the FCU selected altitude along the verticalflight plan (NAV must be engaged). Pitch guidance is given to hold the airspeed target.

FMGS-programmed altitude constraints are taken into account.

OP CLB = Open Climb mode is engaged. The FCU selected altitude is higher than the actual altitude.

This mode is used to climb towards the FCU selected altitude at a constant airspeed.

FMGS-programmed altitude constraints are ignored. Pitch guidance is given to hold the airspeed target.

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11
Q

Describe ALT CRZ?

A

Altitude Hold (Cruise) Mode is engaged and pitch guidance is given to hold cruise altitude. The altitude is permitted to vary +- 50 feet from the selected altitude to minimize thrust variations.

Soft Altitude: Upon reaching planned cruise altitude, ALT CRZ engages and A/THR maintains the Speed/Mach target. Two minutes after ALT CRZ engages, if the Mach mode is operative, SOFT ALTITUDE mode engages. This allows the aircraft to deviate +/- 50 feet from the target altitude, thereby minimizing thrust variations and reducing fuel consumption.

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12
Q

What is the difference between the vertical modes DES and OP DES?

A

DES = (NAV must be engaged) Managed Descent mode is engaged and the FMGS target altitude is lower than the actual altitude. FMS-programmed altitude constraints are taken into account. Pitch guidance is given to acquire and track a vertical profile.

OP DES = Open Descent mode is engaged and the FCU selected altitude is lower than the actual altitude. This mode is used to descend directly to the FCU selected altitude at a constant airspeed. FMGS-programmed altitude constraints are ignored. Pitch guidance is given to maintain target airspeed.

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13
Q
A

Cyan “1” = V1, 135

Cyan circle = Vr, 142

Magenta triangle = V2, 147

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14
Q
A

During Acceleration, S Speed is defined as Minimum Flap Retraction speed when the Flap Handle is in position 1. During acceleration it is the lowest speed to select Flaps 0.

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15
Q
A

Green Dot Speed is best lift over drag speed. Green Dot is also the minimum maneuvering speed in the clean configuration. (Green Dot speed appears when the aircraft is flying in the clean configuration. )

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16
Q
A

Amber “=“ sign represents Vfe next (the maximum speed corresponding to the next flap lever position)

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17
Q
A

Minimum Maneuvering speed with the Flaps in 2 or 3.

During Deceleration, Green dot, S-speed, and F-speed represent the minimum maneuvering speed for the associated configuration. (Green dot=clean, S=Flaps 1, F=Flaps 2 or 3). With ‘managed speed’ and Auto-Thrust on, it is also the lowest speed the A/Thr will allow the aircraft to slow to (assuming the target speed is lower).

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18
Q
A
  • Vls (lowest selectable)
  • Alpha Prot (speed at which AOA Protection becomes active)
  • Alpha Max (max obtainable AOA in normal law)

Normal Law

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19
Q
A
  • Vls (Lowest selectable)
  • Vsw (stall warning)

Alternate or direct law.

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20
Q

If your ACP failed, how would you communicate?

A

Switch to CAPT3 or FO3, utilize your own acoustic equipment and the third occupants ACP.

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21
Q
A

HOT/LOP

High oil outlet temperature / Low oil pressure

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22
Q

What is the primary purpose of the ELAC(s)?

A

Elevator, Aileron, and Horizontal Stabilizer control

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23
Q

What automatically occurs if you have an APU fire while on the ground?

A

Automatic Shutdown and Automatic Extinguisher activation

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24
Q
A

Power is removed from the aft avionics rack.

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25
Q

What is the primary purpose of the SEC(s)?

A

Spoiler control, and Standby Elevator and Horizontal Stabilizer control

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26
Q

What is the primary purpose of the FAC(s)?

A

FLEW:
Flight Envelope Protection…
Low Energy Warning…
Electrical Rudder Control…
Windsher Detection

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27
Q

In Normal Law, what are you actually commanding when you move the side stick forward and aft?

A

-Load Factor (neutral equals 1.0g) until slowed to the Alpha Protection range, then angle of attack (AOA)

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28
Q

In Normal Law, what are you actually commanding when you move the side stick left and right?

A

Roll Rate

29
Q
A

Dual Input – both side sticks are being used simultaneously.

30
Q
A

The FO is holding the takeover pushbutton and inputs are being commanded on the CA’s side stick – would be accompanied by the aural “PRIORITY RIGHT”

31
Q

What are the protections available in Normal Law?

A

Pitch, Bank, Yaw (Yaw Damping & Turn Coordination), High Speed, Low Speed High AOA Protection, Load Factor

32
Q
A

Alternate Law

33
Q

Can you stall the aircraft in Alternate Law?

A

Yes

34
Q

You are in Alternate Law as you begin the approach. After lowering the landing gear, the FMA displays “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY…What has occurred?

A

Direct Law, No Protections, conventional Airplane

35
Q

With the AP ON, what maximum speed brake setting is available one the 320? 321?

A

320: Half
321: Full

36
Q

Speed Brakes are inhibited (and will auto-retract if extended) in relation to what Flap position for the A320? A321?

A

320: Full
321: 3 or Full

37
Q
A

Fuel is being supplied from the Wing Tanks, when there is fuel in the Center Tank (>550 in CTR, < 11,000 in a wing).

38
Q

In flight, with fuel in both wings tanks, if all tank pumps failed, would the engines continue to run? Why or Why not?

A

Yes, gravity feeding is available from the wing tanks.

39
Q
A

PTU FAULT,
Engine 2 Pump FAULT

40
Q
A

Yes

41
Q
A

Green System reservoir overheat.

42
Q
A

Position of anti-ice valve is not in the required position, or low pressure is detected.

43
Q

When are the PROBES/WINDOWS heated automatically?

A

In flight, or on the ground with one engine running (except the TAT probes).

44
Q
A

For 5 minutes when electrical power is applied to the aircraft, at an engine start, and anytime in flight, and for 5 minutes after second engine shuts down

45
Q
A

CA’s PFD and ND will be lost. (On NON LCD a/c, the E/WD will also be lost. On LCD equipped A/C, the E/WD and SD are both driven by DMC 1 however they are automatically picked up by DMC 2 after a failure of DMC 1)

46
Q
A

Yellow Accumulator pressure is displayed on top. Yellow system pressure being applied to brakes displayed on bottom.

47
Q
A

Landing Gear is not locked in the selected position.

48
Q

What is the effect on braking if Green hydraulic system pressure is lost?

A

Yellow hydraulic pressure takes over automatically to supply the brakes, anti-skid remains available, auto brakes lost, nose wheel steering is lost (classic), Auto Brakes are unavailable, the triple indicator shows yellow system pressure supplied to the brakes.

49
Q

Assuming a loss of Green and Yellow system pressure, what hydraulic source is supplying braking?

A

Yellow Accumulator.

50
Q

When does the AUTO function of the STROBE Light switch turn the strobes on?

A

Weight off wheels

51
Q
A
  1. Turbulence is depicted within 40 nm (selected Range not a factor)
  2. Magenta
52
Q

If the Radar system was selected OFF and WINDSHEAR was selected to AUTO. Windshear is predicted ahead of your flight path. Will you receive a Predictive Windshear alert?

A

Yes, Predictive windshear function is activated even if Weather Radar transceiver selector is in the OFF position.

53
Q
A

Select VOR pb, use selector knob to select the VOR frequency and desired course, then select ROSE VOR on the ND to track the radial.

54
Q
A

Database Terrain Detect functions.

55
Q

Which portion of the system (ADR or IR) provides Attitude and Heading information?

A

IR

56
Q

Which portion of the system (ADR or IR) provides Barometric Altitude and Angle of Attack information?

A

ADR

57
Q
A

Alignment Fault,
No present position entry after 10 minutes,
Difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1° of latitude or longitude,
A/C movement.

58
Q
A

Fault in IR3, but Attitude and Heading information may be recovered in ATT Mode.

59
Q

At what cabin altitude do the oxygen masks deploy in the auto mode?

A

14,000 cabin altitude

60
Q

If only the number 1 engine was running, how could you get bleed air to Pack 2?

A

Select X BLEED to OPEN, or start the APU and select APU BLEED ON

61
Q
A

APU Bleed leak

62
Q
A

APU starter is energized

63
Q
A

APU start sequence is complete (N is above 99.5% or 2 seconds after reaching 95%), and the APU is available for use.

64
Q
A

Amber APU FAULT light

65
Q
A

Cockpit Door system failure has been identified (example: Latch, pressure sensor, control unit)

66
Q
A

Over Wing exit doors closed and slides armed.

67
Q
A

Flex/TOGA thrust set, Engine anti-ice on, Engine surge or stall in flight, Flap handle other than 0 in flight.

68
Q
A

Auto Thrust and Alpha Floor protections are not available.

69
Q
A

Automatic Start abort

Start Valve Fault, or

Disagreement between the HP fuel valve position and its commanded position.