SOPS/AVOs Flashcards
When are dipclears and pprs required?
Dips: 12nm of land PPRs: foreign military base
When must a flight Dev be sent?
Delayed > 1 hour a delay message can be sent. If changes don’t meet tasking intent I.e. date, route or hard time changes, a task deviation request must be sent within 2 hours.
Where can you find a list of differences from icao?
Jepp vol 1
How do approach plates annotate PANS Ops or Terps?
If it doesn’t say, it’s TERPs.
What must the nav database be valid for on a trip?
Termination +7 days
What must you have if taking off from a field below app minima?
A suitable alternate within 2 hours of takeoff still air, 3 eng.
When must you nominate an alternate? (3)
- All international flights
- Only one rwy suitable for C130
- Met +- 1 hour ceiling < 1000’ blw app min or vis < 5km or <2km more than minima
What are endurance fuels based on for the purpose of a flight plan?
5000lbs/hr first hour 4500lbs/hr after
What’s the RoT for climbing out of headwinds?
If > 7kts/2000’ there’s no benefit to climb. If HWC > 70kts for every 10kts above, increase LRC by 4kts.
What is identified extra fuel? (5)
Extra taxi; 50lb/hr APU 300lb/hr Icing 500lb/hr Wx 500lb/hr ERO 50lb/min
How must the fuel quantity be confirmed for a main, auxiliary and external FQI out?
- Main:
over wing port w dipstick (wings level)
Transfer of a known quantity from another tank - Auxiliary:
Magnetic sight gauge
Transfer of a known quantity from another tank - External:
Transfer of a known quantity from another tank
Can you fly with two or more US FQIs?
No unless fuel required for flight is in another tank.
What is the min fuel reserve with a main tank FQI out?
Min + 1000lbs (5K LBS)
Must match ff in opposing tank
What are the requirements for flying with more than one FQI out?
(symmetrical & unsymmetrical)
- Must be specifically authorised
Symmetrical main tanks:
-Mins increased by 2000lbs
Unsymmetrical main tank FQIs:
-Mins increased by 1000lbs
What do mins become with an inboard main tank boost failure? Why?
8300lbs bc dump pump shuts off at 2200lbs when used to pressure feed corresponding engine.
Primary fuel limits mean 2700lbs in adjacent outboard and 3400lbs in opposing wing.
What do mins become with an outboard main tank boost pump failure? Why?
6700lbs bc dump pump shuts off at 2550lbs when used to pressure feed corresponding engine.
Primary fuel limits mean 1550lbs in adjacent inboard and 2600lbs in opposing wing.
What are ETPs base on?
10k 3eng 245ktas (235ktas for ice)
When is a trim NR?
<35000lbs gas
No cargo
Max crew 10
When is a ditching and jettison plan required?
Over water flights in excess of two hours
What are the requirements of an MSO?
Mission security officer can’t be part of the operating crew.
Who can access the a/c safe? (4)
Awo Co 40intello 40av tech
What classification materials can the safe carry?
Up to secret, money and CCI not to be stored together.
What’s the min EFB battery required?
10% per hour of flight with a min of 50%
How many attempts at resetting the FD are allowed and what must the FP announce if not successful?
One and “flying through the flight director”
What are the actions of FMS master switches in flight?
Record in F700
When does an “altitude deviation” message occur?
Dev > 250’ from ALT SEL
What is the warning associated w the FD and TCN/VORs?
Not certified for TCN or VOR raw data or ENR less than 150kt tracking via tcn/vors.
If AFCP is used w FD utilise fms lnav and back up raw data nfp.
What is the standard set up for pfd/sfd?
Pfd is outboard
When does the sfd only display aids certified for high al use?
Range at 80nm or greater
What is the proceedure for HDG/ATT Miscompares?
Egi with the east drift should be considered most accurate use that afcp.
If continues, realign problem inu.
If continues egi should be considered u/s.
What does the rwy slope give you?
Vref
When does the FMS enter app mode?
Through the iaf (the vpi then scales to 50ft/dot).
What are important naming conventions for VORs and approach transitions?
VOR/DMEs will be listed before VORs in the instance of both being available.
HN1 is cat C and D overhead
HN2 is cat A and B overhead
All others are typically via arc
What approaches are unable to be recalled?
NDB
TACAN
Circling
What are the tolerances for cross checking a route?
Bearing within 3 degrees
Distance may vary due turning radius, select TRANSITION PT-PT in the waypoint data page for both from and to waypoints.
What is not permitted for Rnav1 and 2 routes?
Manual waypoint entry
BEFORE activating a route, what must be selected
A departure RWY
What are the naming conventions of stored routes?
WPWN3- standard route
RO18TG25- rwy specific
NZRONZTG- not rwy specific
How does the FMS use the wind populated?
50 percent HWC 150 percent TWC
When is an acceleration check time required?
When V1 is within 10kts of Vrot, usually calculated for 80kts
What must be noted when overwriting a speed in the FMS?
The speed will not be adjusted for auw OR changes to TO INIT page (e.g. change in temp)
When does Vref need to be manually calculated?
RCR < 5 and slope is other than 0
An RSC is present
What’s a GEC for when full torque is not available?
<21 degrees at SL normal bleeds
What’s a GEC for VMCG dry and wet?
VMCG dry in the 80s at SL
VMCG wet typically 18kts faster
What is Vrot usually limited by?
VMCA ige < 120k
Vto >120k
What’s the relationship between Vmca ige and oge?
IGE is 6-7kts < OGE
When should dump times be annotated?
> 120k and more than 10k fuel
What does LADR stand for?
Limitations and deferred rectification
What are you confirming by acknowledging the crew check?
TOLD, DEPARTURE, NAVAIDS, and COMM data is entered and checked
Who can fly an acceleration check time takeoff?
Capt only unless Co is QFI
When must a fuel system positive flow check be done?
Tanks containing fuel on the first flight of the day or after refuelling
When should a bleeds OFF takeoff be considered
When torque available < 19600inlbs
Short rwys
Heavy & HOT
Steep clb grad
How much does a bleeds off takeoff decrease the TIT buy in the takeoff roll?
30-40 deg
Why do the pilots set no more than 19000inlbs on takeoff?
To allow for ram rise
What is the tolerance for the ASI check at 80kts?
10kts or less
What is the AWOs takeoff scan?
RWY/flight path
Birds
Overheat lights
RADAR as required
When must an acceleration check time be less than 80kts?
- when V1 is less than 90kts (has to be 10kts apart at least)
What does “flaps up slowly” mean?
Flaps should be raised in 10% increments
Used at high DA/AUW
Standard circuit speed?
150-180kts
What is the recommended minimum length for a touch and go?
5000ft
Are flapless T & Gs allowed?
Not unless with a QFI
What are some guidance figures for T + Gs at 120k and 100k?
120K: 6000’ (5500’ LDR and 2300’LGR)
110K: 5000’ (4500’ LDR and 2050’ LGR)
What are the AOB/ROD limits for a flapless finals?
35 deg AoB
800fpm
What is the flight director set to on climb out?
Associated warning?
1.2Vs (warning at light AUWs this may be below Vmca)
What must the Nav select for an efato in the FMS?
3 eng mode
What speed is flown for an OCS departure?
50 Flap OCS
What can you not do w a recalled SID?
Create/add new waypoints
Change it to fly-by or fly-over
What are the dimensions for a net flight path?
Lateral splay- 75metres (37.5m either side of centre line) diverging at 0.125 of distance from Brakes off.
Vertical-obstacle must be cleared by 1% of distance from brakes release
What can you do for a net flight path at a long runway?
Artificially shorten it
What are the three main types of climb? Other two?
Placard speeds/four engine
Normal speeds
High Speed climb
Max angle
Best rate
What are normal speeds and when are they used?
When fuel is non-critical I.e. domestic Good for reducing floor angle vs charted 1010TIT 180kias to 10000 170kias to 15000 160kias abv 15000
What are charted/4 engine climb speeds and when are they used?
Used when climbing to cruise alt for international legs
1010TIT
Best compromise between time to climb and fuel efficiency
What is high speed climb and when is it used?
Good for light weights to medium altitudes, saves time
210kias
The aircraft is climbed at 210 in IAS until ROC < 1000fpm then Vs setting 1000fpm
970TIT
What is Max Angle Climb Speed?
OCL (Flap 50) - used for clearing critical obstacles
What is the best rate of climb speed?
Rough calc?
3 engine climb speed
Note mcdu calculates based on airfield elevation
Roughly subtract 4kts per 5000ft above airfield elevation
How much does 1kt airspeed equate to in in.lbs in the cruise?
400in lbs (100in lbs per eng)
When is there no advantage to climbing wrt headwind?
Greater than 7kts increase in HW per 2000’
What do add to LRC for HW greater than 70kts?
For every 10kts over 70kts add 4kts to LRC
How much of a FF increase does the use of engine anti ice cause
5%
About 500lb/hr for continued use
What is the controlled rest cycle?
5 min prep
30 min rest
15min recovery
50min total
What are the standard descent speeds?
210kias till F230
230kias through F230
What is a range descent
Best lift:drag (3 eng clb at msl) Clean Idle 1500fpm 1.5nm/1000' Speed to fly from -1-1
What is an emergency descent (high and low speed)?
High speed-no structural damage, Vd, clean, flight idle
Low speed-structural damage suspected, fully configured, flight idle, 140kias, 1.1nm/1000’, 2000’ fpm ROD
When must the before landing checklist be done by?
1000 TG DA
What’s the standard configuration height and speed?
3000’ and 150kias
What speed does the box target before and after the 1 to go call?
Input VNAV speed
Appch speed
What is the ALT SEL set to on descent? (3)
The higher of ATC cleared level or MSA
DA/MDA rounded up to nearest 100 when clrd app
MAP alt through 1 to go
What are the RADALT mins settings for the various app types? Precision App Non prec SI FAF Non prec SI no FAF Non prec circling
Precision App-DH
Non prec SI FAF- 250’ (300 for terps NDB)
Non prec SI no FAF 300’ (350 for terps NDB)
Non prec circling 400’ (300’ for Terps)
When should the weather radar be in wind shear on app?
If there is a significant cell within 20nm of field
What are the missed approach tolerances for VOR, LOC or GNSS?
NDB?
Half scale CDI bar deflection
One dot for inside FAF
NDB: >5deg
What are the missed approach tolerances for ILS/DME?
Half scale LLZ deflection
Or half scale below glide path
Or full scale above glide path
For what messages would you conduct a go-around (RNAV) (5)
Failure of MEL Unable RNP Exceed RNP Raim unavailable Raim not available at the FAF
When is a flap 50 landing recommended?
Wind is gusting
Large crosswind
Cloud base less than 500’ AGL
Min equip list for radar letdown (7)
2 x SPS 1 x AFCS 1 x DADC RADALT AWO altimeter RADAR EGPWS w terrain selected at AWO station
How close can you come to terrain in a radar letdown? What is the planning turn radius?
2nm
1.4nm
What is required for perf vnav in the missed approach?
MAP is active, and,
Sufficient distance to climb to cruise alt and descend to 400’ at 1.3nm of aerodrome reference point.
What must be done if inadvertent imc during circling? (6)
Climbing turn towards NAVAID Clean up ATC TOGA Use MAP for SA if programmed Reintroduce automation
How many diverts does the FMS continuously display/update?
4
How many divert airfields can be inhibited at a time? What is the FMS suitability criteria?
2
closest > 3000ft sealed RWYs
What are the three FMS divert functions?
Direct To- ppos dct alternate
Offset
Overhead- specify a particular waypoint to overfly prior
What is the default hold speed in the FMS?
Best endurance speed
How do you enter a second hold in the box?
use ‘next hold’ prompt
Why do we wait for the 4 beta flags on landing before moving to GI?
Indicates removal of the low pitch stops
What speed must you be below before down speeding?
20kias (2min at LSGI before shutting down)
When is a comp wash required?
less than 500ft over watre
When is a gravity flow check required?
Less than 2000lbs in a main tank after landing
When must the props be feathered on shutdown?
Wind is >20kts
What is the distance for proximate traffic?
6nm and/or 1200ft
What does the TCAS display non altitude reporting traffic as?
Co-Alt but TA only
How much time does a gang start save?
1.5min
When can a gang start be used and who watches what?
Not first flight of day
Plt #1
Eng #2
Co #3-4
What does hasell stand for?
Height Airframe Security Engines Location Lookout
How do you send an acars emergency message?
ACARs
In FLT
EMERGENCY RPT
Goes to JFNZ CO40 and HFC
How much is Vmca increased by with simulated engines out?
As much as 8kts
What are the four things that need to be briefed for loss of utility hydraulics? (Due 1 & 2 engines out)
Flapless/manual ext
Manual gear
NWS
Brakes (emerg) no anti skid
What are the awo actions on a depressurisation?
Log pos MSA/safe heading PAN Divert plan LRC at 10k vs 14k w flight deck air con Fuel/time o/h
What are the awo actions on an engine failure?
Ensure 1010 TIT Select Eng Out Confirm drift down speed MSA Ceiling service/cruise PAN Log pos Diverts LRC Fuel IFF to TA only when close to service ceiling
How many crew life vests and harnesses are there on board?
10 & 3
When must you wear a life vest?
Below 1000’ over water
What is lost in a hard fail of both SPS?
All automation
Raw navaid data
(Esis Eids and vdrs remain)
What must the awo do in a dual SP failure or isolated DC bus on battery(only power sources)?
Use;
- STBY GPS
- RADAR
- Moving map
What are the actions on a 500’ call out earlier than expected on a non precision app? (3)
Go around
Validate qnh
Re enter/verify FMS entries
What is Auckland oceanic RNP airspace?
FL245-FL600
What is the maximum tracking tolerance for RNP from SOPs?
0.5 x RNP (brief of 1 x when turning)
What is the minimum distance to intercept finals on an RNP app?
2nm prior to FAF
What is the max diff for the pistol? Max firing speed?
6inHg
280kts
What causes an SP reset in the alternates pages?
Entering 2x manual airports
What do you do if perf/vnav is lost in descent to prevent an SP event?
Enter a waypoint at the end of the plan (prevents wilkinsons sword)
- NOTE THE AP WILL GET KICKED OUT IF IN VNAV DESCENT)
Do not use vnav across turns greater than what?
130 deg
How much does TOF increase by if bleeds off?
10%
Max consecutive flying days conducting long range operations without a 36 hour rest period Max flying hours in 7 days Max flying hours in 30 days Max flying hours in 90 days Max flying hours in 12 months
4 50 150 400 1200
Sim 3 eng LDG/EFATO, MAUW not to exceed, not initiated below what alt?
115k Lb
300ft
Sim one eng go around not below __ft
Sim two eng …
Min KIAS & AUW?
- 200
- 500ft
- 150KIAS & 115k lbs
Nil AP below ___AGL when not on appch
1000ft except where approved within AVOs
Use of AP within 1000ft MSD of water;
- Day
- Night
- Day: NI 250ft MSD
- Night: NI 300ft MSD
What is the prerequisite for AP to be engaged below 5000ft
Flt controls, AFCS modes and flight instruments to be continuously monitored
Max number of pers on flight deck when pressurised (due seatbelts)
7
Low flying defined as?
Flight inside 1000ft AGL over built up areas, inside 500ft elsewhere
Operational low flying?
50-250ft
Avoid built up/sensitive areas by?
1000ft and/or 1nm laterally
MSDs Over land;
- Day VMC
- Day VMC with MLFA
- Night VMC
- Day VMC: 250ft
- Day VMC with MLFA: 150ft
- Night VMC: 1000ft
Low flying limits: over water - Day VMC - Night VMC/IMC unless; - reliable QNH/Radar? - serviceable RADALT & Radar?
- Day VMC: 250ft
- Night VMC/IMC: 1000ft
UNLESS; - reliable QNH/Radar: 500ft
- serviceable RADALT & Radar: 300ft
Nil alcohol within ___ hrs of reporting for duty & __ hrs of engine start
10hrs
12hrs
Max hours for crew day (planning)
16hrs
Rest period
12hrs
8h sleep & 4 recreation
Controlled rest
50mins
5 prep, 30 rest, 15 recovery
Max duration with cabin alt @F180, desirable?
60mins
30mins
What is MILMIN?
What is the critirea which must be met? (4)
Ops at less than the prescribed civil IFR or VFR met mins by day or night
- Rwy has centreline marking or centreline lighting & visibility is sufficient to maintain directional control for take off
- Net flight path takeoff obstacle clearance is checked
- 2 engine prop = operative autofeather or autocoarse system
- Auth and flight plan has MILMIN annotated.
Define MILSEP
Operations at less than the promulgated IFR separation minimums from other military aircraft or formations. E.g. formation flying. Not to be authorised from civil aircraft.
Define MILTER
Operations at less than the prescribed civil IFR minimums for separation from terrain. E.g. Radar Letdown.
Define MILCOMMS
Operations that do not comply with civil Radio Telephony (RT) procedures, inside or outside of civil controlled airspace.
For planning, when does crew duty start & finish?
2hrs before doors and one hour after LDG
Define Deployed Fixed Base Location
= aircraft operating out of a different base for 5 consecutive days or more.
Define short range ops
= termination in a timezone that differs 2hrs or less (from home or deployed fixed base loc)
Define long range ops
= termination in a timezone that differs 2hrs or more (from home or deployed fixed base loc)
Max crew duty?
18hrs, 20 if Augmented
Min crew rest
12hrs, can be reduced to 10 with approval
Options for IMC climb to MSA (4)
- Missed approach or reverse of approach path. Day only or at night on NVGs. Maintain terrain clearance visually until established on track or above DA/MDA.
- Net flight path (for 3eng)
- Above terrain, by ensuring all terrain on intended climb track is below the a/c for the distance required to climb above MSA.
- Radar, use to establish safe HDG & maintain terrain sep on CLB to MSA.
What should you do when 2hrs island hold will impinge on a task outcome? condxs?
ACs may elect to reduce the holding fuel to a minimum of one hour. Forecast met conditions should be above visual minimums at the destination aerodrome.
OR, carry LPD gas
What conditions must be met to only carry LPD gas? (3)
- Forecast weather at the destination does not require the nomination of an alternate;
- Forecast weather at the en route alternate meets the criteria for nomination as an alternate; and
- The LPD should not be more than one hour from destination, and where possible should be near top of descent
When can we dump fuel (3)
In an emergency
As part of a MCF (maint check flight)
If an operational imperative exists
RFS requirements
Require Cat 6 (ICAO), or Cat B (FAA) (7 provides higher ICAO, C provides higher FAA)
What is holding/diversion fuel usually calculated based on? (5)
ISA day, AUW 110k, LRC @ 10,000ft
When can AP be engaged over water?
NI 250ft MSD by day
NI 300ft MSD by night
What three elements of PBN are there?
- NAVAID infrastructure,
- Nav specification: a/c & crew rqmts needed to operate PBN. (either RNP or RNAV specification)
- Nav application
What does RNP require that RNAV doesnt
On board, self contained performance monitoring and alerting.
What is the point of PBN
Allows significant reductions in latitudinal and longitudinal spacing, allowing more aircraft to operate in a smaller space.
What is the required containment for RNP 10
XTRL/along track positioning error of less than 10nm for 95% of the time.
What is our RNP certification based on
2x servicable SPs
both EGIs serviceable
In RNP asx where DME updating is not allowed, what nav solution can not be used?
INU/RAD
RNP max tracking tolerance
0.5x RNP value
(What must be confirmed before entering RNP asx? (4)
- preflt: check RAIM
- Confirm route against ATC clearance
- confirm ANP is less than the RNP #
- RNP value is set to correct #
RNAV 2 TSE error?
less than 2nm for 95% of flight time
For any RNAV/RNP procedure, what must occur for SIDs/STARs?
SID & STARs must be retrieved from the database.
Nav accuracy under RNP APPCH (IAF/FAF)
Initials: TSE of <1nm and FTE <0.5nm for 95%
Finals: TSE <0.3nm and FTE <0.25 for 95%
MEL for RNP appch (7)
- 2x SPs
- 2x EGI/MMRs
- 2x DADC
- 2x AFCPs
- 3x MFDUs
- RADALT
- EGPWS
RNP: when should you conduct another RAIM check?
If ETA changes by more than 15mins
What is a NNDP
Non normal deciion point
point on RNP appch (IAF), up until which any nav system malfunctions can be rectified, after which, crew must conduct visual appch or go around.
When on RNP appch, must the crew conduct a missed appch? (3)
- Failure of any systems on MEL
- UNABLE RNP/RNP EXCEED/UNABLE RAIM
- RAIM not available at FAF/MAP
