Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HERC REVISION > AIP > Flashcards

AIP Flashcards

1
Q

WX products; wind in true or mag?

A

TRUE (in written)
(if spoken ie in ATIS, it is in MAG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

WX products; CLD base AGL or AMSL?

A
  • AMSL (abv mean sea level) for SIGMET/SIGWX/GRAPHORs
  • AGL for TAFs/METARs/ATIS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

DEST Met Mins

A

MET forecast for arrival time +/- 1hr
CLD base 1000ft abve MDA/DA/DDA
VIS 2km abv mins or 5km (whichever is greater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ALT Met Mins (precision approach)

A

CLD 200ft abve DA or 600ft (whichever is greater)
VIS 1km abv mins or 3km (whichever is greater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ALT Met Mins (non-precision approach)

A

CLD 200ft abve MDA/DDA or 800ft (whichever is greater)
VIS 1.5km abv mins or 4km (whichever is greater)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Practical application of DDA
What approaches do we do it for?
Why do we do it?

A

To better achieve a stabilised final approach segment for non precision approaches (including RNAV), approaches should be flown at constant descent final approach (CDFA). If CDFA is used, descent below MDA could happen when executing the MAP. Therefore, the go around decision/initiation should be done before MDA (at DDA)
> in simple terms; DDA allows us to make a decision before MDA & execute the MAP if required without continuing below MDA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How to calculate DDA and what does it stand for?

A

Derived Decision Altitude
MDA +50ft = DDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When to not use DDA (3) & alternative approaches to this.

A
  • If the Captain is unable to attain required visual reference on the first appch using CDFA and a DDA, OR
  • If the appropriate vertical guidance is not avlble,
    OR
  • If it considered more appropriate by the a/c captain.

> A step down (dive & drive) or CDFA approach to MDA may be used.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why are STARs used? (4)

A
  • To reduce RTF
  • Standardise arrival instructions
  • Reduce possibility of error in aircraft routing
  • Provide positive routing in event of a/c comms failure.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Approaches; when can you track direct outbound over the aid/ when do you need to conduct a reversal procedure?

A
  • Can track direct overhead the aid outbound if you are within 30 deg L or R of the outbound track.
  • If outside this tolerance, a reversal must occur via a Procedure turn/base turn or a racetrack
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Reversal procedures; requirements (3)

A
  • Strict adherence to directions & timings required
  • Entry track to the procedures must be +/- 30deg
  • Except for DME distance limited procedures, reversal speed limitations apply from procedure commencement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe a 45/180 deg Procedure turn
(3 steps)
(Also the NOTE)

A

Consists of;
- specified outbound track & timing from the aid (NO MORE THAN 3 MINS), then;
- a 45deg turn away from the outbound for 1 MIN 15 SECS FROM THE START OF THE TURN (CAT C) then;
- a 180deg turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound TRK.

NOTE; an 80deg procedure turn may also be used when a 45deg procedure turn is depicted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe an 80/260 deg Procedure turn
(3 steps)

A

Consists of;
- specified outbound track and timing from the aid (NO MORE THAN 3 MINS), then;
- an 80deg turn away from the outbound TRK, then, once wings lvl;
- an immediate 260deg turn in the opposite direction to intercept the inbound TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe a Base turn
(2 steps)

A

Consists of;
- Turn immediately overhead the aid onto a specified outbound TRK and timing from the aid or specified distance, then;
- a turn to intercept the inbound TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Race Track - compare to holds
E/S/OO/P/M/A

A

Same procedures as holds apply (but leg times/distances should be specified and considerations should be applied);
1. entry TRK must be within +/- 30deg unless entry is protected
2. Speed not abve Max applicable to CAT B
3. When a longer outbound time is published, Offset entry is limited to 1min 30secs, then outbound leg is paralleled for the remaining distance/time
4. During Parallel entry, the inbound final appch track must be intercepted prior to the facility
5. Maneuvering, as far as possible, will be done on the holding side of the inbound track.
6. Specified min altitudes apply until the a/c is established on the final inbound track

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When are you established inbound for an appch?

A
  • Within half scale deflection L/R for ILS/VOR
  • Within 5deg L/R of an NDB track
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Sector 1 (Parallel) entry procedure
Timings start?
Established?

A
  1. On reaching holding fix, a/c is turned to reciprocal of holding pattern inbound TRK for 1min (CAT B)/ reaching the limiting distance, then;
  2. a/c is turned onto holding side to intercept the inbound track until reaching the fix.
    - start timing once overhead the aid
    - Once overhead aid for second time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Sector 2 (Offset) entry procedure
Timings start?
Established?

A
  1. On reaching holding fix, a/c is turned onto HDG of 30deg from the reciprocal of the inbound track, then;
  2. The a/c is flown outbound for 1min/ limiting distance (if specified)/limiting radial (if specified), then;
  3. a/c turned to intercept the inbound TRK until reaching the aid.
    - start timing once overhead the aid
    - Established once over the aid for the second time
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Sector 3 (Direct) entry procedure
Timings start?

A

On reaching the holding fix, the a/c must be turned to follow the holding pattern.
- Outbound timings; abeam the aid or wings level (the later of the two)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When do hold timings start on the non-aid side? (outbound)

A

once wings level or abeam the aid (whichever comes later)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hold turns

A

Bank angle of 3deg per second or 25deg (the lesser AoB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Zone of flexibility for Hold entry

A

Zone of flex 5deg L/R of the sector boundaries.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a DME arc?
Lead in to turn onto appch?
MSA on the arc provides?
DME Arc entry into the hold

A
  • Circular path that leads in to approach without having to conduct overhead procedure.
    -2nm lead into appch turn
    -MSA on the arc provides terrain sep of 1000ft up to 2.5nm L/R
  • When entering hold pattern from DME arc, on reaching the holding fix the a/c must enter the holding pattern IAW either sector 1 or 3 procedure (Parallel of Direct)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is needed to continue below MDA/DDA/DA (CCVR)

A
  • The a/c is continuously in a position from which a normal rate of descent & normal manouevring can occur to touchdown in the intended area on the RWY
  • On circling approach, can maintain a/c within the circling area.
  • Flight vis is not less than the vis prescribed for the instrument appch being used.’
  • At least one of the visual references for the intended RWY is distinctive/identifiable.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the visual references required to land? (9)

A
  1. The approach lighting system
  2. THRS markings
  3. THRS lights
  4. RWY end identification lights
  5. Visual approach slope indicator
  6. The touch down zone/zone markings
  7. Touchdown zone lights
  8. RWY/RWY markings
  9. The RWY lights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

When should you execute the MAP? (3)

A

If, at the MAP;
1. The pilot has not established visual reference with any portion of the RWY or visual landing aids IAW met mins prescribed for the appch.
2. An identifiable part of the aerodrome is not distinctly visible to the pilot during a circling procedure at or abve MDA
3. At any time during final appch when directed to by ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the MDA for circling appch provide?

A

Protection from obstacles within the circling area applicable to the CAT of the a/c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is the circling area determined/drawn?

A

By drawing an arc centered on the THRS of each usable RWY & joining those arcs with tangents.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the radius of a circling arc determined on? (4 + extra on??)

A
  • The a/c TAS at maximum IAS for circling (CAT B: 135kts IAS)
    (calculated at 1000ft above an aerodrome with 1000ft elevation)
  • Wind of +/- 25kts throughout the turn
  • 20deg average bank angle (or 3deg per sec), the lesser AoB.
  • ISA +15
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Class A asx general
(radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits)

A

-Radio rqd
- Entry clearance rqd
- ATC sep provided b/t IFR & IFR only
- Nil VFR traffic allowed
- Nil traffic info/speed limits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Class C asx IFR
(radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits)

A
  • Radio rqd
  • Entry clearance rqd
  • ATC Sep provided between
    > IFR - IFR
    > IFR -VFR
    > IFR - SVFR
  • Nil traffic info/speed limits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Class D asx IFR
(radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits)

A
  • Radio rqd
  • Entry clearance rqd
  • ATC sep provided between;
    > IFR - IFR
    > IFR - SVFR
  • Traffic info provided between IFR & VFR
  • Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Class G asx IFR (uncontrolled asx)
(radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/speed limits)

A
  • Radio rqd
  • Nil clearance to enter required
  • Nil ATC sep provided
  • Traffic info provided between
    > IFR & IFR
    > IFR & VFR
  • Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Class C asx VFR
(radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/met minima/speed limits)

A
  • Radio rqd
  • Entry clearance rqd
  • ATC sep provided between;
    > IFR & VFR
    > SVFR & SVFR (below 5km vis)
  • Traffic info provided between VFR & VFR
  • VFR vis minima applies
  • Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is VFR met mins (for classes C/D/G)

A

VIS
- At or above 10,000ft AMSL: vis 8km
- Below 10,000ft AMSL: vis 5km
CLD
-At or above 3000ft AMSL/1000ft AGL: 2km sep from CLD (horizontally)/1000ft vertical sep from CLD (500ft in control zone)
-Below 3000ft AMSL/1000ft AGL: clear of cloud and in sight of SFC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Class D asx VFR
(radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/met minima/speed limits)

A
  • Radio rqd
  • Entry clearance rqd
  • ATC sep provided between;
    > IFR & SVFR
    > SVFR & SVFR (below 5km vis)
  • Traffic info provided between
    > VFR & VFR
    > VFR & IFR
  • VFR vis minima applies
  • Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Class G asx (VFR)
(radio/entry clearance/ATC sep/ATC info/met minima/speed limits)

A
  • Radio/ Entry clearance NOT rqd
  • ATC sep NOT provided
  • Traffic info provided between;
    > VFR & IFR
    > VFR & VFR
  • Applicable met mins:
    > Vis: 8km abv 10,000ft AMSL/5km below 10,000ft AMSL or within 1000ft AGL
    > 2km horizontal sep from CLD (abve 3000ft or 1000ft AGL - the higher)
    > 1000ft vertical sep from CLD
    > Clear of CLD at or below 3000ft AMSL/ 1000ft AGL (the higher)
  • Speed restriction; below 10,000ft 250kts max
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

VFR mins in CTA

A

1500ft/5km (day and night)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

VFR mins uncontrolled CTA
-Day
-Night

A

600ft/1500m (day)
1500ft/8km (night)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When can you enter SUAS?
- Restricted & Mil op areas
- Danger areas
-Volcanic hazard zones

A
  • Restricted & Mil op areas: Only after authorisation from administering authority
  • Danger areas: only after consideration of danger present (entry at own risk)
    -Volcanic hazard zones: Only in VMC day day (NOTAMs can also increase area if rqd)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who’s responsible for maintaining Asx containment?

A

The pilot, unless under Radar vectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Transition, when does it change/what does it mean?

A
  • To provide terrain clearance in NZ under all conditions of temperature and pressure

13,000 - F150
<13,000 = QNH
>F150 = QNE (1013.2 hpa)
If between the levels, use QNH as provided by ATC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

When does transition change in NZ?

A
  • When zone area QNH is below 980hpa, the min usable FL for that zone increases to F160
  • 20nm radius around Mt Cook a/c must maintain F160 to ensure terrain clearance.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

MAYDAY/PAN radio call contents

A
  • MAYDAY/PAN x3
  • Name of station addressed
  • ID of a/c
  • nature of distress condition
  • Intentions of pilot
  • Present position/ FL/ heading
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What else needs to occur inside the aircraft during an emergency?

A
  • Transponder code updated (7700/7600/7500)
  • activate ELT
    NOTE;
  • if emergency is sorted, turn off ELT and advise ATC immediately (otherwise they will assume that the a/c has crashed)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

IFR comms failure - general (9)

A
  1. Maintain terrain clearance
  2. Transponder to 7600
  3. Try alternate & secondary published ATC frequencies
  4. check a/c comms equipment
  5. Listen to ATIS if possible
  6. Transmit position report/intentions, prefix with “TRANSMITTING BLIND”
  7. Turn on landing lights/beacons/strobe
  8. If mobile phone available, call AA/OH/CC ctrl.
  9. If dest is within MBZ, proceed to alternate aerodrome if possible
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

TIBA - what is it?
Where to find info on it?

A

Traffic Information Broadcasts by Aircraft
- Reports and info transmitted by pilots for other pilots in the vicinity in the event of significant disruption to ATC/comms services (e.g. CHCH earthquake)
- ENR 1.15 - 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Safe heights;
ERC
VNC
ONC

A
  • ERC: Safe alt (already calced)
  • VNC/ONC: terrain height (safe alt will need to be calced)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

25 sect safe
- when
- what
- boundary?

A
  • To be used 25nm out from the aerodrome reference point OR the VOR (which is what it it based on - can be found on the approach plate)
  • Is the lowest altitude that may be used by the pilot in IMC conditions
  • When tracking along the boundary line between adjacent sectors, the lowest altitude is to be used.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What do VORSEC charts show/purpose

A
  • Show the higher of the minimum safe altitude or the minimum reception altitude of the nominated NAVAIDs within sectors that are defined by VOR radials and DME distance arcs.
  • Purpose is to provide obstacle clearance and good reception
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

When are you allowed to disregard rules IAW AVOs
- OIP (orders/instructions and procedures)
- CARs

A

-Disregard OIP if necessary by safety or operational imperative
- Disregard CARs where specific military procedures prescribed in AVOs or subordinate OIP are contrary to these rules.

52
Q

Why do we circle to land?

A

To fly the approach for one runway, to land on another (ie NZLX)
- Where terrain or other constraints cause the final appch track alignment or descent gradient to fall outside the criteria for a straight in approach.

53
Q

What is radar horizon

A

The radar horizon is a critical area of performance for aircraft detection systems that is defined by the distance at which the radar beam rises enough above the Earth’s surface to make detection of a target at low level impossible

54
Q

What cloud does the ATIS ident?

A

CLD within 5000ft or the highest 25nm sect
But will always ident Cb & TCU within the vicinity

55
Q

Met mins rqd for VFR in class G asx

A

VIS:
- At or abve 10,000ft AMSL: 8km
- Below 10,000ft AMSL (or within 1000ft AGL): 5km

CLD:
- Abve 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL (the higher): horizontal clearance is 2km. Vertical clearance is 1000ft.
- At or below 3000ft AMSL or 1000ft AGL (the higher): Clear of CLD and in sight of SFC

56
Q

Separation rqd from SUAS established for a/c activity (Danger/restructed/MOAs)
-IMC OR SVFR
-VMC

Sep for Volcanic hazard zones or the above SUAS NOT established for a/c activity?

A

IMC/SVFR
>F290: 2000ft
F290: 1000FT

57
Q

Visual apph met minima

A

Vis 16km, ceiling is +1000ft abve minimum radar vectoring altitude or Applicable approach minima

58
Q

Take off mins
Reduced take off mins

A

T/O mins: Ceiling 300ft, +1500m vis
Reduced: Ceiling 0ft, 800m vis

59
Q

Customs airports in NZ?

A
  • AA
  • CH
  • WN
  • QN
  • DN
60
Q

Clearance for a/c into the country - when to advise ETA & what to present?

A

ETA must be advised NLT two hours before arrival including port of entry & once a/c door is opened, disinsection documents must be provided.

61
Q

Four approved methods of cabin disinsection

A
  • Residual
  • TOD
  • pre-embarkation
  • on arrival
62
Q

When does NZDT commence & finish?

A

13hrs ahead of UTC
- commences 0200 (NZST) on the last Sunday in september
- Finishes at 0300 (NZDT) on the first Sunday in April

63
Q

Date/time groups; standard & NOTAMS

A
  • Standard: DDHHMM
  • NOTAMs (10 fig): YYMMDDHHMM
64
Q

What is WGS84

A

World geodetic system 1984

65
Q

Where to find abbreviations & definitions & chart symbols used in AIP

A

GEN 2.2
GEN 2.3

66
Q

Where to find conversion tables in AIP?

A

GEN 2.6

67
Q

AIP: DAYLIGHT TABLES
- where?
- How to read?

A
  • GEN 2.7
  • Obtain the applicable daylight zone from map, upper figure; UTC beginning of daylight. lower figure; UTC end of daylight.
68
Q

Where to find oceanic areas of responsibilities?

A

GEN 3.1-3

69
Q

AIP amendment frequencies?

A

6 times a year, with the SUP issued every AIRAC cycle (28 days)

70
Q

NOTAMS;
N
R
C
Series A
Series B

A

New
Replacement
Cancelled
Series A: Within NZ
Series B: international

71
Q

How long does a trigger notam last for

A

14 days

72
Q

Area control services within OCA and CTA asx above 9500ft are provided?
Below 9500ft?
FIS?

A

H24
Below 9500ft provided only when ATC unit providing area control is on watch. for WN, CH & AA: H24.
FIS: H24

73
Q

When CTR/CTA are not operative, what rules and procedures apply?

A

class G

74
Q

Where to find info for MSA/MRA/safe alt etc

A

GEN 3.3

75
Q

DATALINK comms; AA oceanic accepts?

A

ADS-C position reports
CPDLC (SELCAL checks not required)

76
Q

When can you use SATCOM comms to contact AA Oceanic/ Chch air traffic centre?

A

when primary means of contact is not available/in an emergency.

77
Q

Frequency of METAR issue?

A

on the hour

78
Q

Frequency of SPECI issue
When will a SPECI COND CEASE message occur?

A

-issued OFF the hour in METAR code. required if any element of the METAR exceeds deterioration to a certain amount.
- When condition sof a SPECI have improved by a certain amount for longer than 10mins

79
Q

Frequency of METAR AUTO issue

A

every 30mins, nil SPECI

80
Q

What does COR mean in a SPECI/METAR?

A

Corrected

81
Q

What doe RVR mean
Where on the RWY is it reported?

A

Runway visual range - is used to report vis values less than 1500m. CH & AA in NZ)
- Touchdown, midway, stop-end

82
Q

When are TAFs issued?

A

every 12 hrs, valid;
- 1200z to 0600z
- 000z to 1200z
EXCEPT; AA, WN, CH: valid for 24hrs from 0000, 0600, 1200 & 1800 UTC daily.

83
Q

What is the validity for a TREND forecast & note

A

2 hours, note; the TREND supercedes the TAF for this period

84
Q

Met to report to ATC

A

Windshear, severe turb/icing, volcanic activity

85
Q

Procedure for pilot intercepting distress message

A

1) take a bearing on the transmission
2) acknowledge & relay
3) if rqd, exercise control of comms
4) plot position of craft in distress
4) proceed to the position.

86
Q

When should a VFR aircraft contact ATS

A
  • Prior to entering manoeuvring area
  • Prior to entering class D or C asx
  • before entering a restricted/MOA/GAA
  • To cancel/amend a SAR time before the time expires
87
Q

What are our requirements WRT ELTs

A
  • All a/c must carry one in NZ
  • All a/c must continuously Gaurd 121.5
88
Q

When must an A/C report position in AA Oceanic FIR

A
  • At all compulsory reporting points/waypoints
  • At intersection waypoints when they come up in the flight plan.
  • When on uncharted routes: every 5 or 10 deg of Lat or Long & every waypoint.
  • Before 1h 20m ticks over
89
Q

CPDLC position reporting wrt “position” & “next position” entries

A

Should only input compulsory reporting points

90
Q

What must also be reported at oceanic reporting points?

A

AIREP section 1. Section 3 only via CPDLC

91
Q

CPDLC; when to downlink a position report

A
  • after initial connection
  • After a CPDLC transfer
  • at FIR boundary on ENTRY into NZZC
  • Compulsory reporting points
  • when requested by ATC.
    UNLESS reporting position via ADS-C
92
Q

When must you update ETA (ADSC oceanic)

A

if ETA changes by more than 2 mins.

93
Q

When to make a position report under IFR in NZ
VFR?

A

IFR:
- After handover from one unit to the next
- When TAS varies by +/- 5%
- When ETA changes by +/- 2mins
VFR:
- MBZ & CFZs

94
Q

NZ procedural towers

A
  • GS
  • NR
  • NP
  • NZ
  • DN
  • NV
    PTA ETA
95
Q

Departure call contents

A

Callsign, altitude (to nearest 100ft), climbing to XXX

96
Q

Position reporting in the hold

A
  • when first crossing the aid/fix
  • When established after a sector 1/2 entry
  • When crossing the aid/fix to vacate the pattern
97
Q

Position reporting for instrument appchs

A
  • At sig point associated with commencement of STAR
  • when overhead the NAVAID prior to reversal
  • when overhead the NAVAID prior to procedure/base turn
  • established DME arc
  • crossing IAF (GNSS appch)
  • When commencing procedure/base turn
  • when establish FAPP
  • Final appch fix
  • When visual
  • When commencing MAPP
98
Q

When must you provide a position report for an unattended A/D

A

when below 3000ft AGL and within a 10nm radius.

99
Q

Contents of visual position report

A
  • ID
  • Position
  • Altitude
  • Intended tracking
100
Q

Vertical separation

A

Below F290
- 1000ft
- 500ft if Both a/c are medium/light weight cat a/c, and lower a/c is VFR or SVFR at 4500ft or below

Above F290
- 2000ft
- 1000ft if RVSM approved.

101
Q

Vertical sep from SUAS

A

Below F290
IMC/SVFR: 1000ft
VMC: 500ft

Above F290
IMC/SVFR: 2000ft
VMC: 1000ft

102
Q

What climb gradient is used to evaluate appchs & departures to ensure asx containment

A

5%

103
Q

What should XTRK error be limited to?

A

-/+ 1/2 the nav accuracy associated with the procedure/route.

104
Q

What is the minimum turn alt & CLB % for a departure if not specified

A

400ft, 3.3% (400FPM)

105
Q

Max IAS for a SID departure & AoB assumed

A

15deg AOB
265kts

106
Q

When does a SID terminate

A

When the aircraft is established on a cleared route

107
Q

Conditions for reduced T/O mins to be used

A
  • RWY has centreline marking or lighting
  • T/O wx is confirmed by the capt by observing the above
  • Any obstacles are taken into account
  • Has an autofeather function
108
Q

What is a hold altitude based off of

A

at least 1000ft above obstacles in turning area. (2000ft over mountaneous)

109
Q

Holding:
speeds
timings

A

Speeds:
<14,000ft: 230kts
14,000-20,000: 240kts
>20,000ft: 265kts

Timings:
<14,000ft: 1min
>14,000ft: 1.5min

110
Q

At uncontrolled aerodromes, what is the standard in terms of arrival & what conditions must be met if you prefer to do a different appch?

A
  • Pilots should use the designated appch for the RWY in use, however if the pilot wishes to conduct a different appch;
    1) the MET conditions must be compliant with standard visual joining procedures
    2) other IFR & VFR local traffic are accounted for
111
Q

What does a clearance for an appch allow in terms of descent?

A

(except where otherwise instructed);
The a/c can be descended to the minimum published altitude IAW the instrument appch being carried out.

112
Q

What is the min initial appch altitude derived from?

A
  • Min procedure commencement alt on plate
  • LSA
  • VORSEC
  • 25nm sect safe
  • TAA
113
Q

If an a/c operating under VFR requires an IFR appch due to local met conditions, it can be cleared to descend lower than the initial appch commencement altitude via?

A

Overhead the aid, at either the procedure/base turn alt OR the min inbound altitude for final descent

114
Q

When can you go direct overhead outbound?

A

if within the outbound HDG by +/-30 deg, otherwise a reversal has to occur.

115
Q

When would ATC protect the critical/sensitive areas of the ILS

A

When weather conditions are at or below 5km & 1200ft

116
Q

When circling to land and IMC occurs, how should the MAPP be flown?

A

Transition from circling appch to the missed appch occurs through a climbing turn within the circling area towards the LDG RWY. Return to circling altitude, intercept & execute the MAPP.

117
Q

What is the MAP procedure based on?

A
  • 15 AoB
  • Provide a min obstacle clearance of 98ft at 2.5%
118
Q

Approach aid failure

A

Can continue the appch if;
- WX conditions are within met mins for alternate appch
- in CTA, position & intentions are advised to ATC

If no alternate procedure/aid available;
- Map & advise ATC

119
Q

For ATC to protect the MAP, what is the weather requirements (so that they can instruct TFC to join the circuit instead?) day & night

A

Day:
- Ceiling 1200ft & vis 5km (or circling mins) - the higher

Night
- 2000ft & 8km (or circling mins) - the higher

(WN is different: 1500ft & 8km)

120
Q

When cleared by ATC for a visual appch, what does this mean?

A

Descent is unrestricted & a/c are to join final appch by shortest practical means.

121
Q

Transponder settings with nil squawk assigned;
- for IFR A/C
- Military A/C?
- AD circuit at controlled ADs
- In GAAs

A

2000 (enr 1.6)
6000
2200
1400

122
Q

How to use remote QNH

A

Add 5ft to MDA for every 1nm in excess of 5nm from the source

123
Q

RNP containment limits;
RNP 4:
RNP 10:
Oceanic
W/in 60nm AA/OH/WN/CH:
Standard radar sep:

A

RNP 4: 30nm
RNP 10: 50nm
Oceanic: 100nm
W/in 60nm AA/OH/WN/CH: 3nm
Standard radar sep: 5nm

124
Q

NZ RVSM ASX

A

F290-400

125
Q

Weather deterioration to warrant SPECI issue

A

Issued when;
- Sig wind change
- CLD Base reduces below 1500ft
- Vis reduces <8000m

HERC REVISION (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions