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Command Study > SOP > Flashcards

SOP Flashcards

1
Q

When is a FULL/FAST IRS alignment required?

A

Full:
1. Before first flight of the day
2. Crew change
3. GPS not avail + NAVAIDS coverage poor
4. GPS not avail + flight time > 3hrs

Fast: Full not required + Diff between IRS/FMGC pos at/above 5nm

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2
Q

What position is it recommended the dome light be in and why?

A

Dim. In emer elec FO dome is only light source.

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3
Q

When should you select probe/window heat on, and when can it be switched off?

A

When cockpit windows frosted over. Probe heat can be switched off after first engine running as will run automatically.

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4
Q

What position should pack flow be selected to?

A

Pax < 130 (A319/320), 160 (A321)

Hot/Humid: High

All other times: Norm

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5
Q

How is the battery test completed?

A

Switch off both batts (start charge cycle then d/c as unlikely charge required)
60Amps and falling within 10secs

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6
Q

How is cockpit door test completed?

A

Check annunciator lights
Select UNLOCK & check door opens + light on
Release switch. Close door. Check locked and OPEN indication goes off.
Check mechanical override.

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7
Q

What is pre-flight altimeter check?

A

20ft between PFDs
100ft between ISIS and PFDs
75ft between PFDs and elevation

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8
Q

With regards LMCs when is a new load sheet required?

A

when change is more than +10/-20

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9
Q

If the captain completes the takeoff, when shall they give control to FO?

A

Above transition alt/level

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10
Q

Which OEBs are the standard set in the QRH?

A

OEB 57 Speedbrake Limitation in Appr with GWCG above 35% or in ovwt ldg

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11
Q

When should you complete an RTOW calculation?

A

Preliminary cockpit preparation

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12
Q

What do you do if batteries are below 25.5V during cockpit setup?

A

Complete charging cycle.
Switch batt off, ground power on, 20mins

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13
Q

Can the APU fire test be done if APU running?

A

Yes

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14
Q

What is the benefit of running both ground power and APU with APU bleed on the ground?

A

APU bleed air con more efficient as APU not supporting elec load.

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15
Q

What is the full range of selectable zone temps?

A

18-30

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16
Q

How long should you press and hold ECAM recall button during cockpit prep, why?

A

3 secs. To recall any cancelled warnings/cautions.

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17
Q

What is the min oil qty for flight?

A

A319/A320: 9.5qts + 0.5qts per hour
A321: 10.6qts, or 8.9qts + 0.45qts

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18
Q

What should you do if ACCU press below green range?

A

Use yellow elec pump to recharge

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19
Q

When does NWS DISC appear on EWD and when does it become amber?

A

When ground crew have inserted NWS hydraulic bypass pin. Turns amber after first eng start. Disappears when crew remove pin.

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20
Q

If NWS DISC not displayed on PFD, can push be completed?

A

Can push if ground crew confirm pin is in towing position but DO NOT start engine during pushback to avoid poss nose ldg gear damage pin yellow hydraulic pressurisation.

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21
Q

Where is the powerpush procedure found?

A

FCOM, SUPP, MISC

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22
Q

What should you do if the ground personnel report fuel dripping from an engine during start?

A

Run eng at idle 5 mins, if leak disappears can dispatch without maintenance action. If leak still present, shut down and request maintenance to investigate.

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23
Q

Can single eng taxi procedure be completed on first flight of day?

A

Yes. 3 mins idle.

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24
Q

Minimum runway width for 180degree turn on runway?

A

30m

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25
Q

What happens if you select wing anti ice on ground?

A

Valve opens for 30 seconds then closes till airborne.

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26
Q

Absolute minimum takeoff RVR, and difference if LVPs not in force?

A

125m

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27
Q

When should ignition be selected on for takeoff?

A

Severe turbulence or heavy rain expected.

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28
Q

What modifications to flex occur for unplanned anti-ice use, reduction of QNH, or both?

A

Anti-ice: -5
reduction in QNH: -1
Both: Add above

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29
Q

Engine warm up times before takeoff

A

3 minutes

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30
Q

What happens to the pressurisation sys during takeoff?

A

During takeoff roll, prepressurisation mode outflow valve motors closed to 0.1PSI above ambient to avoid surge at lift off.

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31
Q

Minimum oil temp for takeoff?

A

CEO: -10C (min starting -40C)
NEO: 19C (min starting -40C)

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32
Q

FO takeoff limits?

A

Max x-wind: 20kts
RVR: 550m
Approach min: CAT 1 ILS, NPA minima, 5000m vis circling
min rwy width: 45m
No contaminated rwy
No windshear
No autoland

3*: no planned tailwind, no flaps 3

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33
Q

During takeoff, at what speed does steering tiller and rudder pedal NWS deactivate?

A

Tiller: 80kts
Rudder: 130kts

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34
Q

When does takeoff inhibit begin and end?

A

Takeoff thrust to 1500ft

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35
Q

When does takeoff memo appear?

A

2 mins after second engine start, or when takeoff config pb pressed

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36
Q

When does SRS engage and how does it function?

A

A managed vertical mode during TO/GA.
Engages when (all):
a/c on ground
slats/flaps extended
V2 in PERF TAKEOFF page (if not, engages 5secs after liftoff at current v/s)
At least one thrust lever at TOGA/FLEX MCT (if flex entered in perf)

On ground V2 is speed target
airborne 2 engines V2 + 10kts
OEI current speed , min V2 and max V2 +15

Protects pitch angle to max 18degrees (22.5degrees if WS)
Maintains min ROC 120ft/min

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37
Q

When will the SRS deactivate during takeoff?

A

If another mode engages or at the accel alt, or alt* alt cst*

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38
Q

Memory items for unreliable airspeed?

A

AP: OFF
FD: OFF
ATHR: OFF
TOGA 15/CLB 10/CLB 5
CONF 1/2/3: KEEP
CONF FULL: SELECT 3
SPEEDBRAKES RETRACTED
GEAR UP
Level off to troubleshoot

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39
Q

When is predictive windshear system online during takeoff?

A

Scans out 3nm until 100kts then inhibited until 50ft RA, then scans 5nm out until 2300ft.

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40
Q

When is the reactive windshear system online after takeoff?

A

3 secs after liftoff until 1300ft RA.

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41
Q

What should you do if aircraft suffers a burst tyre during takeoff roll?

A

Between V1 - 20kts and V1, unless debris has caused other serious damage, best to get airborne, reduce fuel load and land with full rwy length available.

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42
Q

Windshear memory items during takeoff?

A

Before takeoff: Delay
Takeoff roll: Reject if variations in IAS
After V1: TOGA, follow SRS (17.5degrees), no config change

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43
Q

What does max cruise alt and optimum in PROG page mean?

A

REC MAX based on current gross weight and temp, anti ice off. Provides 0.3g buffet margin, min ROC at MAX CL, and level flight at MAX CRZ.

OPT based on current gross weight, CI, temp and wind.

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44
Q

What is meant by optimum speed?

A

Speed that is most efficient for phase of flight/manoeuvre.

Takeoff: V2 + 10
CLB, CRZ, DES: ECON based on CI
APPR: Vapp

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45
Q

Turb penetration speeds?

A

Below FL200: 250kts/260kts
FL200-FL330: 275kts/280kts
>FL330: M.76

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46
Q

What airspace is RVSM and what equipment is required before entering?

A

FL290-FL410

2 ADR
2 DMC
1 TPDR
1 AP
1 FCU channel
2 PFD
1 FWC

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47
Q

When is a temp correction required and what do you adjust?

A

When ambient ground temp <-10C.
Apply to MDA and all altitudes after FAF

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48
Q

Lowest permissable FMA for autoland?

A

CAT 2

49
Q

Difference LVP/LVO

A

LVP airport
LVO aircraft

50
Q

Significance of G+Y taxiway CL lights?

A

Protected area

51
Q

What length of rwy remains when CL lights alternate red/white/red/white, and red?

A

R/W/R/W: 900M
RED: 300M

52
Q

When do you need to apply temp correction to NPA, and what do you apply correction to?

A

When temp < -10C. to MDA and any alts below FAF

53
Q

When can you select idle reverse on a wet runway?

A

After doing a perf calc with MEDIUM, no rev and intended auto brake setting

54
Q

What is approach Autothrust, when is it active?

A

Below 3200ft RA, at least conf 1:

-above 150ft RA, to be MORE responsive to speed variations
-below 150ft RA to be LESS responsive to spd variations (avoid destabilising appr/long flare)

55
Q

Why when you select flap 1 during approach do you only get slats?

A

only get 1+F if speed below 100kts

56
Q

When is the low energy warning active?

A

Below 2000ft RA in CONF 2/3/FULL

Inhibited:
- below 100ft RA
- if TOGA selected
- alphaFLOOR/GPWS triggered
- in ALT/DIRECT LAW
- dual RA fault

57
Q

What is a steep approach?

A

3.5degrees to 4.5degrees. Fly as stabilised approach.

58
Q

Can you auto land from steep approach?

A

No

59
Q

FO handling limits for approach?

A

max 20kt xwind
45m rwy
550m RVR
> NPA minima, or 5000m circling
no contaminated rwy
no reported WS
no flap 3 or planned tailwind 3* FO

60
Q

When will a tail strike occur on compressed struts?

A

A319: 13.9 degrees
A320: 11.7degreees
A321: 9.8 degrees

61
Q

Autoland environmental limits?

A

In ops quick access

62
Q

What usually occurs at 1500ft?

A

FAF

63
Q

What is the significance of 1000ft during LVP appr?

A

If a downgrade/failure has occurred, ECAM actions must be complete and any change to minima checked and entered. RVR for downgrade must be avail or cannot continue below 1000ft.

64
Q

What configuration shall aircraft be in at 1000ft?

A

Landing config, speed within VAPP target + 30kts

65
Q

What happens at 900ft?

A

TCAS downgrades to TA only

66
Q

What happens at 800ft?

A

LDG inhibit (to 80kts)

67
Q

What occurs at 750ft?

A

Perf appr page lockout

68
Q

What are stable appr criteria?

A
  1. On lateral flight path
  2. On vertical flight path
  3. ROD commensurate with FAP angle and APPR speed
  4. Vapp TGT +10/-5
  5. Bank max 15degrees
  6. LDG Checklist complete
69
Q

What occurs around 400ft and what is the significance?

A

LAND mode on FMA. FCU and MCDU locked, only way to disengage is to GA.

70
Q

What begins at 200ft?

A

Autoland light activation. If light illuminates an immediate go around must be flown, unless visual landing possible.

71
Q

What will cause the auto land light to activate?

A
  1. Loss of both AP
  2. Loss of LOC > 15ft
  3. Loss of GS > 100ft
  4. Deviation from LOC (exceeds 1/4 dot)/GS (exceeds 1 dot)
  5. RA difference > 15ft
  6. FMGS detects Untimely Flare
  7. FMGS detects Long flare
72
Q

What happens at 100ft?

A

Alert height

73
Q

Behind the scenes, what happens at 370ft and 100ft?

A

370ft PWS downgraded to cautions only
100ft low energy warning deactivates

74
Q

Where do you locate the actual airfield RVR minima for takeoff?

A

AOI

75
Q

Why are CAT 2 minima often a random figure whereas CAT 3 always tend to be 50ft/0ft?

A

CAT 3 places a/c over rwy.
CAT 2 places a/c in rwy undershoot so depends on topography.

76
Q

What affect does failed RVR equip or appr lighting have on appr capability?

A

Check table in LIDO manual

77
Q

Which RVRs are controlling for an LVP appr?

A

Touchdown always controlling, if relevant so are MID and STOP.

78
Q

What value is the midpoint RVR and when can this be different from standard value?

A

125m. Can reduce to 75m if have automatic rollout guidance.

79
Q

Can a CAT3(no dh) approach be made on to a runway where no RVR guidance is available?

A

Only needs to be a transmissiometer at airport not necessarily for landing runway.

80
Q

If touchdown RVR is not available can you continue?

A

Yes, as long as MID and STOP are > required.

81
Q

If midpoint RVR is not available can you continue?

A

Yes, as long as others are > minimum required..

82
Q

If Stop end RVR is not available can you continue?

A

Yes, if not relevant.

83
Q

What is the definition of Alert Height?

A

A specified radio height used on characteristics of a/c and its fail-operational landing sys.
If a failure above alert height occurs in one of the required redundant systems must GA unless reversion to higher decision height possible.
If a failure in one of the required redundant systems occurs below Alert Height, ignore and continue appr (unless auto land light).

84
Q

What is the difference between fail-operational and fail-passive?

A

Fail-op: in event of failure/downgrade, appr, flare and ldg still completed automatically.

Fail-passive: in event of failure/downgrade, no significant deviation/out of trim condition, but ldg must be completed manually.

85
Q

What types of appr can be flown in FINAL APP mode?

A

Conventional overlay NPA and GNSS (GPS) approaches to either LNAV or LNAV/VNAV minima.

86
Q

What equip is required for appr in FINAL APP mode?

A

If GNSS - GPS primary must be avail.
Conventional NPA overlay - NAV ACCUR HIGH
1 FMGC
1 GPS
2 IRS
1 MCDU
1 MMR
1 FD
1 PFD on PF side
2 NDs
2 FCU channels

87
Q

What are the limitations regarding temp and FINAL APP mode?

A

Must not be used when temp corrections are required to FAF as FINAL APP may not engage. Can be flown in NAV/V/S or FPA.
Conventional NPA approaches, FINAL APP cannot be used if temp corrections applied.

88
Q

Why can FINAL APP mode not be used if a temp correction has been applied or is required?

A

Crew not allowed to modify any part of final approach in FMGC so there is no way to apply the corrections.

89
Q

Regarding the MCDU, what differences/tolerances are acceptable to published profile?

A

Vertical: 0.1 degree
Lateral: Should be reasonable and waypoints located in correct posn on ND.

90
Q

Regarding a GNSS appr, what scale is represented by full brick deflection?

A

200ft (100ft per dot)

91
Q

Regarding MCDU PROG page, what shall be displayed always whilst FINAL APP mode is engaged?

A

If NAV ACCURACY LOW, use TRK/FPA.
GPS PRIMARY on at least 1 FMS.

92
Q

Regarding the primary altimeters, what is the max allowable tolerance in FINAL APP mode?

A

100ft

93
Q

In FINAL APP, what should you do if lat/vert profile tracking is not satis?

A

Use selected guidance. NAV/FPA to TRK/FPA.

94
Q

If “GPS PRIMARY LOST” appears on an ND, or “NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD” on one FMS whilst FINAL APP mode is engaged, what should you do?

A

Switch to AP which has GPS avail, try to re-engage APPR pb.

95
Q

During any appr with FINAL APP, for what degradation should you discontinue the appr (if not visual)?

A

GPS PRIMARY LOST on both NDs
XTK > 0.3nm
NAV FM/GPS DISAGREE on ECAM
NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on both FMGS

96
Q

What types of appr can be flown in NAV mode?

A

GNSS appr to LNAV minima, conventional overlay appr.

97
Q

What are the possible FMAs when flying an appr with lateral guidance?

A

NAV/FPA NAV/V/S LOC/FPA

98
Q

What config schedule should be flown with a final appr flown only with lat guidance?

A

Early stabilised

99
Q

What equip is required for an appr using NAV mode?

A

1 FMGC
1 GPS
2 IRS
1 MCDU
1 MMR
1 FD
1 PFD (PF)
2 ND
2 FCU channel

100
Q

What is the lowest GNSS minima that can be flown to in NAV mode?

A

LNAV

101
Q

If NAV ACCUR LOW appears in NAV mode, what should you do?

A

Check other side for NAV ACCUR, if HIGH engage other AP and try to re-engage appr pb.
If LOW, use TRK FPA.

For RNP appr, need GPS PRIMARY on at least 1 FMS, if avail on offside FMS engage other AP and try to re-engage appr pb.

102
Q

If GPS PRIMARY LOST appears on ND whilst NAV mode is engaged, what should you do?

A

Conventional NPA, GPS not required.

For RNP appr, need GPS PRIMARY on at least 1 FMS, if avail on offside FMS engage other AP and try to re-engage appr pb.

103
Q

During a GNSS (RNP) appr, for what lateral exceedances should you carry out a missed appr?

A

GPS PRIMARY LOST on both NDs
XTK > 0.3nm
NAV FM/GPS DISAGREE on ECAM
NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD on both FMGS

104
Q

What is the latest point at which a full go-around can be initiated?

A

Until reverse thrust selected. At this point committed to landing and stopping.

105
Q

What will SRS command during a go-around?

A

Speed target is memorised a/c speed at SRS GA engagement.
higher limit of target is lowest of:
VLS + 25kt (VLS + 15kt OEI)
VMAX - 5kt

106
Q

What is the preferred loading hold for a 319?

A

Up to 150 bags in rear hold maximising cpt 4. Max 50 in cpt 5. Then cpt 1.

107
Q

What is the preferred loading of a 320?

A

cpt 1 - first 85 bags
cpt 3 - up to next 60 bags
cpt 4 - remaining bags
cpt 5 - in non-normal situations

108
Q

When is a runway considered contaminated?

A

> 25% coverage of one third of rwy surface

109
Q

When will probes and window heat activate normally?

A

When pb ON.
Inflight, and on ground when one engine running with pb AUTO

110
Q

How and when do you complete an engine run-up?

A

CEO: OAT 3C or less for >30mins. Brakes/Parking brake on, 70% N1 for 30s, intervals not > 30mins and just before takeoff. (when in severe conditions FZRA, FZDZ, FZFG, +SN, intervals <10mins 70% no hold time)

NEO: OAT 3C or less for >60mins. Brakes/prking brake on, 50% for 5s, intervals not >60mins and just before takeoff. If no takeoff within 120mins, engine inspection required.

111
Q

What do you do if the holdover time expires before departure?

A

Pre-takeoff contamination check required. If in doubt, de-ice again.

112
Q

What are the exceptions to the clean a/c concept?

A

Thin hoarfrost on upper surface of fuselage, radome and engine exterior surfaces.
On underside of wing tanks, max 3mm of frost.

113
Q

When should Eng A/Ice be selected ON after start?

A

<10C + visible moisture

114
Q

If structural ice is suspected on airframe what min appr speeds shall be flown in conf 3 or FULL?

A

CONF 3: VLS + 10kt
CONF FULL: VLS + 5kt

115
Q

What is the difference between a wet rwy and/or slush/wet snow?

A

Wet/standing water/wet snow/dry snow all considered WET for perf if <3mm and covering <25% - otherwise contaminated.

116
Q

Describe the characteristics of type I fluid?

A

Orange, non-thickened primarily a de-icing fluid, short holdover time

117
Q

Describe the characteristics of type II fluid?

A

yellow/straw colour, thickened, longer holdover time

118
Q

Describe the characteristics of type IV fluid?

A

Green, thickened, longer holdover time.

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