Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Command Study > OM A > Flashcards

OM A Flashcards

1
Q

How much obstacle separation is provided by a published MGA?

A

1000ft with obstacles <6000ft.
2000ft with obstacles >6000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What are the minimum flight altitudes that should be adhered to?

A

Above MSA when departing/arriving. Thereafter published route MORA on OFP or MGA if off-route.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much obstacle clearance does MSA provide?

A

1000ft with 25nm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When is it possible for an EZY a/c to descend below MSA?

A
  1. Published instrument procedure.
  2. Under positive radar control above min radar altitude.
  3. VMC when visual contact with obstacles can be maintained.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How much obstacle clearance does a route MORA provide?

A

1000ft with obstacles <5000ft
2000ft with obstacles >5000ft
10nm either side of track

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the minimum published MORA?

A

2000ft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Can you convert met VIS into an RVR, what limitations are there?

A

Table in OM A CH8

If RVR already available cannot do it.
Cannot be used for takeoff minima.
Cannot be used for any RVR <800m after conversion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the difference between CAT A, B, C aerodrome?

A

CAT A. Non-complex and can be treated as routine
(complex: non-standard approach aids/patterns, unusual local wx conditions, circuit. height > 1000ft, unusual characteristics/performance limitations, any other inc. obstructions/physical layout/lighting, etc…

CAT B. Complexity requiring specific briefing, eg. audio vis briefing, aerodrome brief in Aerodrome Briefing Supplement.

CAT B restricted. Complexity and threat levels requiring specified restrictions but not requiring an aerodrome visit or specific training.

CAT C. Special crew qual. required which can be achieved by aerodrome visit or specific training.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Regarding wx planning minima, what forecast period needs to be considered at dest. and alt. aerodromes?

A

1 hour before until 1 hour after ETA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Regarding dest. alts. and enroute alts. what are the limits on travelling distances?

A

A319: 380nm
A320: 400nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Regarding nominated takeoff alt., what is the limit on travelling distance to it?

A

320nm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the appr planning minima for dest. and enroute alt?

A

CAT 2/3/1 OTS/LTS - CAT 1 RVR
CAT 1 - NPA RVR/Vis, ceiling > MDH
NPA - NPA RVR/Vis + 1000m, ceiling > MDH +200ft
Circling - circling minima

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When must the commander nominate 2 dest. alt.?

A

Wx 1hr before to 1hr after is below planning minima
or
no wx avail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is absolute takeoff minima?

A

RVR 125m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the planning minima for takeoff alternate and when is one required?

A

Required when perf/met conditions preclude a return to departure aerodrome. Wx needs to be at/above minima for instrument appr in use.

Wx for takeoff alt shall be at/above minima for expected instrument appr, taking into account OEI/MEL.

Takeoff alt within 1hr still air flight time at OEI crz speed in ISA condition at actual takeoff weight. Max distance = 320nm.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When do you need to nominate a takeoff alternate?

A

When wx at departure aerodrome precludes a return, because ex below minima for instrument appr in use. OEI case should be considered at takeoff alt/departure aerodrome requiring RVR 200m and/or MEL restrictions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the absolute minima and vis requirements for CAT 1, LTS CAT 1, CAT 2, CAT 2 OTS, CAT 3(DH) AND CAT 3(NO DH)?

A

CAT 1: 200ft RVR 550m
CAT 1 LTS: 200ft RVR 400/450m
CAT 2 OTS: 100ft RVR 350m
CAT 2: 100ft RVR 300m
CAT 3(DH): 50ft RVR 200m
CAT 3(NO DH): RVR 75m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For takeoff, if the RVR or visibility is not reported, can you takeoff?

A

Yes, cptn can make judgement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the appropriate minimum wx allowable to accept/request a visual appr?

A

cloud base > 2500ft
vis > 5km

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

FO minimum takeoff RVR?

A

550m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

FO minimum appr RVR

A

CAT 1 RVR 550m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

RVR for straight in instrument appr to vis. segment?

A

800m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Regarding takeoff alt., what are the implications of taking off above MLW?

A

Autoland not certified above MLW (demonstrated 69T A319), therefore CAT 1 takeoff alternate required if LVP in force at departure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Is dispatch without dest. alt. allowed?

A

Yes, but:
1. Flight < 6hrs
2. 2 separate rwys avail.
3. wx 1hr before to 1hr after ETA ceiling > 2000ft/circ +500ft and vis > 5km
4. additional fuel to fly 15 mins at 1500ft in ISA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why would you depart without a nominated destination alternate?

A

Takeoff perf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the difference between a fuel alternate and commercial alternate?

A

Fuel alternates should only be considered when wx and ops. cond. make a diversion unlikely.
Fuel alternate has min. facilities, commercial is better equipped.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the minimum RFF category?

A

A319/A320: 6
A321: 7

RFF 5 may be permitted for certain aerodromes that have low volumes commercial traffic.

Dep/Dest temp downgrade for <72hrs: RFF -2

alternates: Non-UK 4
UK 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If fuel onboard is less than CNR what should you do?

A

If any change could result in landing with < FRF call ‘MINIMUM FUEL’.
If landing less than FRF ‘MAYDAY FUEL’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is taxi fuel, and can it be modified?

A

Fuel expected to be used prior takeoff:
eng start and taxi plus APU.
Can be modified.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the approx taxi fuel burn values?

A

10kg/min
OETD: 7kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How much does the APU burn per hour?

A

2kg/min (120kg/hr)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is holding fuel burn? (1500ft)

A

40kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is trip fuel and can it be modified?

A

Fuel for takeoff and climb to cruise
Fuel from TOC to TOD inc steps
Fuel from TOD to initiation of appr
Fuel for Appr and landing.

Increase by 5kg per nm
decrease by 4kg per nm

33
Q

What is contingency fuel and can it be modified?

A

Used any time after eng start. Generally 5% of trip, but never < 5 mins hold at 1500ft at dest. SCF can be used.

34
Q

Absolute minimum contingency fuel?

A

5 mins holding at 1500ft

35
Q

What is stat con 95?

A

95% of all flights on that sector would land use no more than that contingency fuel.

36
Q

What is ALTN fuel?

A

Fuel to fly a missed appr at dest, then clb, crz, des to dest alt. and make appr and ldg.

37
Q

What is additional fuel and when is it provided?

A
  1. Hold 15 mins at 1500ft ISA cons based on est. LW when no dest alt.
  2. Following eng fail/loss of press at critical point, routing to descend and proceed to alt, hold 15 mins at 1500ft ISA, make appr and ldg. (only required if combined fuel for trip/cont/alt/FRF not sufficient for event).
38
Q

When should you carry discretionary fuel and what is the penalty?

A

Sound operational/economic reasons for doing so. penalty = 3%

39
Q

What is FRF?

A

30 mins at hold spd 1500ft above aerodrome ISA based on est. LW at dest.

40
Q

What is 3% ERA?

A

Only if SCF is not avail cont can be reduced to 3% trip fuel provided fuel ERA avail.

(ERA located within a circle with radius = 20% total fly plan distance, centre point 25% from dest.)

41
Q

What conditions are required to dispatch with no dest alt?

A
  1. Flight < 6hrs
  2. 2 separate rwys avail.
  3. wx 1hr before to 1hr after ETA ceiling > 2000ft/circ +500ft and vis > 5km
  4. additional fuel to fly 15 mins at 1500ft in ISA
42
Q

What is the approx fuel burn with a/ice, and holding at 1500ft?

A

Holding 1500ft: 40kg/min
Eng A/ice: 1kg/min
Wing & Eng A/ice: 2kg/min

43
Q

If tankering has been planned, what limits are placed on fuel carried?

A

structural limitation (MTOW/MLW -1%)

44
Q

If stat con 95 figure negative what does this mean?

A

Trip fuel is more than required on this sector 95% of the time.

45
Q

What is STAT CON 99/90?

A

STAT CON 99 is use for airports with specific operational requirements i.e. CAT C aerodromes

STAT CON 90 new alt fly planning proc to gain performance inc to gain a RTOW inc

46
Q

Regarding low states of fuel, what does the term ‘minimum fuel’ mean to ATC?

A

Other airfield options have been used up and any change to current clearance will result in a/c landing below FRF.

47
Q

How long is a TEMPO on a TAF expected to last?

A

A period of less than 1 hour in each instance, and in total, cover less than half of the forecasted period.

48
Q

Can a PROB TEMPO be ignored?

A

Deterioration MAY be disregarded
Improvement MUST be disregarded

49
Q

The main bulk of any forecast (FM, BCMG, UNTIL) What limits are placed on mean wind speed and gusts?

A

Mean wind should be within limits
Gusts MAY be disregarded

50
Q

With regards an actual TEMPO period on a forecast, is there any difference between the interpretation of winds on a transient/showery TEMPO, as opposed to a TEMPO of persistent conditions eg. BR, FG?

A

Any winds/gusts on a transient TEMPO may be disregarded.
The mean wind shall be within limits for persistent conditions TEMPO.

51
Q

A/C portable/supp O2 supply capacity and limits?

A

Flight Crew:
Quick donning O2 mask as operating above 25000ft
In event of loss of pressure, O2 for entire flight > 10000ft (minimum 2 hours)
Supplemental O2 continuously after 30mins when cabin pressure > 10000ft, and all times when cabin pressure > 13000ft.

Cabin Crew:
O2 for entire flight time when cabin alt > 13000ft (min 30mins), and entire flight time > 10000ft but does not exceed 13000ft after first 30 mins

Pax:
100% of pax for entire flight time > 15000ft (min 10 mins)
30% pax 14000-15000ft
10% pax 10000-14000ft
therapeutic O2 for 2% pax

52
Q

What is an ADD?

A

Acceptable Deferred Defect, level 1 or 2. a/c still airworthy, dispatch IAW MEL.

53
Q

Who can transfer an ADD to the a/c status sheet?

A

Usually engineer although down route in non-maintenance base cptn can defer under guidance of MOC and as long as doesn’t make a/c AOG.

54
Q

What is the difference between Level 1 and 2 ADD?

A

Level 1 affects airworthiness of a/c. Included in MEL, requires op limitation/in flight certification.

Level 2 does not affect airworthiness.

55
Q

What is a Non-deferrable defect?

A

Renders a/c AOG, requires rectification

56
Q

What are repair intervals?

A

Inop items, differed IAW MEL, must be rectified at/before expiration of repair interval.

A. No standard interval specified, should be repaired IAW conditions in MEL, hours/cycles/etc.

B. 3 days beginning 00:01 on day after discovery

C. 10 days (as above)

D. 120 days (as above)

57
Q

How long is a daily inspection valid?

A

48hrs and remainder of that day (starts at 00:01).
Must be completed after last flight of day, and after 1800.

58
Q

What are the wake turbulence timing intervals when departing behind a heavy and super wake class?

A

Same point = 2 mins, 3 mins
intersection = 3 mins, 4 mins

59
Q

Final approach, min distance behind heavy and super?

A

5nm, 7nm

60
Q

When flying enroute, by what distance should you avoid a TS?

A

20nm

61
Q

What are the rules regarding musical instrument carriage?

A

Stow in locker.
Or, purchase non-restricted window seat next to pax for instrument.
Must be pre-boarded in a case and secured, by seatbelt through case. Must not protrude > 30cm above seat back and must not block O2 masks dropping.

62
Q

How many different types of discretion are available to the captain and what are they?

A

Discretion to:
1. Extend a Flight Duty (no more than 2 hours)
2.Reduce a FDP
3. Reduce a Rest Period (not < 10hrs at hotel)
4. Increase a Rest Period (notify ICC within 30mins after duty ends)
5. Extend Cumulative Duty Limits within Core Flight Time Limitations Scheme
6. Exceed FRM Crew Roster Rules
7. Reduce Standard Report Time

63
Q

Describe the procedure for initiating the delayed reporting process:

A

Delayed reporting must be done before crew member leaves their place of rest. 90mins flight crew, 120mins cabin crew.

delay < 4hrs, max FDP based on original report and starts at delayed report time.

delay > 4hrs, max FDP lesser of original report/delayed report and starts at delayed report.

If delayed a second time, FDP starts counting 1hr after second notification/original delayed report if earlier.

64
Q

What are the cumulative duty limits over 7, 14 and 28 days, and 12 months?

A

7 days: 60hrs
14 days: 110hrs
28 days: 190hrs
12 months: 2000hrs

65
Q

What are the cumulative flying hours limits over 28 days 12 months?

A

28 days: 100hrs
Any calendar year: 900hrs
Any consecutive 12 months: 1000hrs

66
Q

What is a split duty?

A

Procedure to extend max FDP with a break on the ground.
Break on ground shall count in full as FDP.
Break must be min 3hrs (EZY max 10hrs)
FDP can be extended by 50% of break up to max 3hrs extension.

67
Q

What happens if SCCM falls ill during flight?

A

Most appropriate qualified cabin crew member will be assigned to act as SCCM. If no SCCM qualified crew, next most senior to assume position (min 12 months experience, min 20 sectors on type).

68
Q

What happens if SCCM falls ill and unable to operate on ground at outstation?

A

Most appropriately qualified crew member/next senior takes over.
Max one inexp. crew
Only to complete original planned flight
Pax reduced by 50 per cabin crew member
Incap crew offloaded as need ‘fit to fly’ by doc.

69
Q

Which pax cannot be seated in restricted pax seats?

A

Children
Hearing/Sight impaired
Inad/Depu/prisoners
Physical/mental disability
Physical size
Elderly
Dogs

70
Q

What age can minor fly unaccompanied?

A

16

71
Q

Which pax seats are restricted?

A

Row 1 ABCD
Overwing rows
Last row CD

72
Q

What is the process for operating with reduced cabin crew?

A

Max one inexp. crew
Only to complete original planned flight
Pax reduced by 50 per cabin crew member
Incap crew offloaded as need ‘fit to fly’ by doc.

73
Q

What will CC do upon hearing ALERT call “SCCM TO THE FLIGHT DECK”/”SCCM TO INTERPHONE”/three chimes?

A

SCCM reports immediately to flight deck/interphone and will expect NITS. Other cabin crew members begin to put things away and await instructions. (If SCCM unavailable, nearest CC to report).

74
Q

What will CC do when they hear EMER call “ATTENTION! CREW AT STATIONS”?

A

Interrupt duty
Stow away any catering equip
Return to station and fasten harness
Await further instructions
Remain vigilant

75
Q

How will the cabin crew prepare for a pre-planned emergency landing?

A

Complete their 10 point drill

76
Q

How will cabin crew prepare for a precautionary landing?

A

NITS repeated to CC
mental note of ABP
When seated with harness, 30 sec review
After landing, complete stop/taxi, remain seated and await further instructions.

77
Q

What are the different types of emergency landings?

A

Pre-planned emergency landing - CC will receive a NITS and complete 10 point drill
Pre-planned emer ldg <10 mins - (3-10mins) adapt 10 point drill
Unplanned emer landing - ATTENTION CREW! BRACE BRACE!’ adopt posn and shout to pax “brace brace”
Precautionary - shouldn’t be a need to evacuate

78
Q

What types of bomb threat exist and how do you/the company respond?

A

RED - credible and real threat to specific a/c.
On ground, disembark all pax due security problem to an area separate from other pax. Remove a/c to remote location, search if time avail.
Taxiing, park away from terminal and disembark all pax.
Airborne, MAYDAY, follow QRH proc. Divert to nearest rwy. If cannot land within 30 mins, search according to proc.

AMBER - (never in flight) doubtful credibility, unlikely to be genuine but additional procedures prudent.

GREEN - hoax

79
Q

How many pax do you need to have seated on the over wing exits?

A

At least 1 pax at each emer exit.

Command Study (21 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions