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Vehicle Extrication > SOG C > Flashcards

SOG C Flashcards

1
Q

BSODFRES personnel with known allergies to insect stings should notify their ____ _______.

In the event that a BSODFRES member with a known allergy to insect stings is dispatched to an insect-related call, that person will remain

A

immediate supervisor

in the staging area and will not become involved in victim rescue or any
other situation where there is a higher than normal possibility of insect stings

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2
Q

When responding to an incident where swarming insects are involved directly, or
indirectly, the mission of the BSODFRES is to:

A

rescue the individual(s) from immediate danger and provide emergency treatment.

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3
Q

BSODFRES personnel respond to bee and swarming insect incidents that threaten public safety. BSODFRES will not respond

A

to “pest control” calls (i.e. the killing

of bees or other pests that are not posing an immediate threat to the public).

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4
Q

Responding units shall proceed to the scene being cautious not to commit
themselves in the path of the insects (approximately ___ _____ ____).

Loud noises may aggravate the insects; therefore, cessation of

A

150’ from the swarm

audible warning devices
when nearing the reported location is strategically indicated

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5
Q

BSODFRES personnel may be asked to mitigate a swarm of stinging insects on public or private property. If no eminent threat exists on private property, the property owner shall be advised __ _ __ __ _ .
If a similar request is made regarding public property, and only if it can occur in accordance with _____ may personnel proceed.

Final clarification regarding such actions, if necessary, shall be at the discretion of the____ ___ ___.

A

to obtain the services of a licensed insect (bee)
removal service.

procedures

district Battalion Chief

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6
Q

Upon arrival at an insect/bee incident, the 1st arriving company officer will:

A

determine if there is need for med attention

prepare crew in proper PPE

designate a Level 2 staging area up to approximately ¼ mile away.

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7
Q

entry personnel donned in appropriate PPE should advance with appropriate resources:as..

A

Delivery of 1 ¾” fog flowing 3% (AFFF) “grounding” the
swarming insects and victim extraction
A hose line should be advanced in a quick pace in the air in a sweeping motion surrounding the firefighter

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8
Q

If a hive or colony is obviously nearby with insects swarming out towards the victim and/or fire fighters, it is appropriate to spray the hive or colony
using a ____ ____ ___ _______ in order to stop the onslaught of bees.

Priority is ___ ____, and hives or colonies should_______

A

combination of fog and straight streams

victim rescue

not be actively searched out

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9
Q

Africanized honeybees have the ability to

pursue the victim(s) and rescuers for up to a ___

A

¼ mile.

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10
Q

Upon successful victim extraction and “grounding” of swarming insects in
the immediate area, response crews shall relocate to the __ ___

A

Staging Area.

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11
Q

The foam shall continue to be sprayed into the air, on fire fighters and the
patient while __________ safe distance of approximately 150’ from the swarm

A

fire fighters retreat to a minimum

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12
Q

Upon identifying the location of a swarm of insects, in particular Africanized honeybees, the IC shall notify:

A

The local Dept of Agriculture, Health Dept, and State Warning Point.

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13
Q

In Major Swarming Stinging Insects. Incident Command shall request representatives from the

A

Agricultural and
Health Department in establishing a Unified Command to develop an
appropriate Incident Action Plan (IAP) to mitigate the situation

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14
Q
  • An odorless, colorless, flammable poison gas produced as a byproduct of incomplete combustion with an auto-ignition temp of approximately 1,292 degrees Fahrenheit.
A

Carbon Monoxide

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15
Q

The Consumer Product Safety Commission estimates that an average of __ ____die each year from unintentional exposure to carbon monoxide associated with consumer products.

A

140 people

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16
Q

Consumer Product Safety Commission staff are aware, through police, medical examiner and news reports of at least 32 CO deaths related to ____ ______ from October 1 through December 31, 2006

A

portable generators

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17
Q

A measurement of ___ ______ or greater is a confirmation of CO poisoning.

A

10% carboxyhemoglobin (COHb)

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18
Q

CO poisoning can occur when exposed to:

A
  • 70 ppm CO for slightly more than 3 hours
  • 150 ppm CO for 50 minutes
  • 400 ppm CO for 15 minutes
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19
Q

These benchmarks are built into industry standards for CO alarms.

  1. A CO alarm must sound at exposures predicted to reach 10% COHb in ___ ____
  2. A CO alarm can not sound with exposed to __ __ for fewer than thirty
    days or at __ ____for less than one hour.
A

heavily exercising individuals

30 ppm

70 ppm

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20
Q

Keeping a person’s COHb below ___ is recognized as a method of protecting
healthy adults against the harmful effects of CO.

A

10%

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21
Q

Fire fighters are

prone to high CO levels during the salvage and overhaul phases and shall utilize __ ___.

A

full PPE

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22
Q

During the CO investigation process, occupants should be evacuated from the
residence or structure. Leave all outside doors and windows ____.

A

closed

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23
Q

Identify any areas of the structure with measured CO levels of:

A
  1. 30 ppm or higher.

2. Less than 30 ppm.

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24
Q

Once the source of the elevated CO is located, then correct the problem by

A

either turning off the appliance or removing the source.

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25
Q

Potential sources of elevated CO include:

A

a. Gas appliances.
b. Internal combustion engines (lawnmowers, generators, vehicles
idling in garage, etc.).
c. Charcoal grill.

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26
Q

After ventilating, when the monitor shows levels of CO below 30 ppm, occupants can __ __ ___.

If the monitor shows a CO level below 30 ppm and the household CO alarm is still sounding, then inform the occupant that their CO detector requires ___ ___ ____

A

can return to the home

servicing or replacement

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27
Q

Should an occupant ask about proper CO alarm installation

A

CO alarm be installed in the hallway outside the bedrooms in each separate sleeping area of the home CO alarms may be installed into a plug-in receptacle or high on the
wall because CO from any source will be well mixed with the air in the house. Ensure furniture or draperies do not cover the alarm.

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28
Q

The BSODFRES does not practice unit

responses and/or operations for public service lockouts where a.

A

true emergency

does not exist

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29
Q

If a person or animal is locked in a vehicle and can not unlock the door, the
company officer will immediately determine if this ____ ___ __ ____.

A

occupant is in any danger

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30
Q

If the occupant is in danger, the company officer will take immediate measures, including the ___ ___ ____ if necessary to remove the occupant from harm.

A

breaking of a window

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31
Q

If the vehicle is running, and the parent or other person outside the vehicle
states that the air conditioner is on, the company officer should still
determine if the occupant is in ____ _____ and is in a cooled environment.

A

good condition

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32
Q

If it is necessary to force immediate entry,

A

a quick check to ensure the vehicle is in fact locked is appropriate (try before you pry).

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33
Q

If the owner questions your actions, contact the

A

district Battalion Chief

and refer the owner to the Assistant Chief/District Chief.

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34
Q

OnStar Equipped Vehicles

A

Call OnStar at 1-888-4-ONSTAR (1-888-466-7827).
Unless previously changed, the PIN is the last four digits of the
home phone number given at the dealership when the vehicle was
purchased.
OnStar will then send a cellular data call to the vehicle that
instructs it to unlock.

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35
Q

Non-Life Safety Issue

A vehicle with the motor simply running and keys locked inside _______.

The ___ __ will determine if it is necessary to attempt to unlock
the vehicle or structure

A

does not necessarily merit a response

company officer

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36
Q

Non-Life Safety Issue

Options for gaining entry in this situation:

A

a. Wait for the arrival of a key holder.
b. Call for a locksmith.
c. Use a forcible entry tool.

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37
Q

If the Company officer determine that the response does not warrant an unlock attempt, advise the owner

A

BSODFRES can not gain entry and that other means of entry should be sought. Potential property damage from forcible entry necessitates this
stance.

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38
Q

The company officer should not recommend a particular:

A

locksmith, but simply refer the individual to the Yellow Pages or
comparable reference source. The company officer should ensure that the
individual is able to access a phone book and telephone.

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39
Q

Vehicle fuempressed

Vehicle Fires (VF)

A

compressed natural gas (CNG), liquefied petroleum gas (LPG) and electric motors, to the standard gasoline and diesel engines

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40
Q

Personnel should keep in mind that many hazardous materials ___ ____ ___
placarding if quantities are below a certain amount.

Absence of hazardous
materials placarding should not be interpreted as an ___ ___ ___ .

(VF)

A

do not require

absence of hazardous
materials

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41
Q

Upon arrival, the company officer will establish __ __.

Command and establish Scene safety includes ___ ______.

(VF)

A

a scene safety perimeter.

traffic control. Request law enforcement
assistance as needed.

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42
Q

The primary concern of the Officer should be

VF

A

The safety of all individuals on the scene

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43
Q

The apparatus shall be parked to

VF

A

best protect the scene and the fire fighters

(usually positioned at an angle across traffic

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44
Q

The apparatus should be as far as practical from the involved vehicle and
with the pump panel _____

(VF)

A

protected from traffic, if applicable.

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45
Q

The apparatus positioning should allow firefighters to approach the vehicle from a position ___ __ ___

(VF)

A

of uphill/upwind whenever possible.

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46
Q

Provide for a safe working area.

VF

A
  1. Check for hazards around the vehicle such as downed wires or spilled,
    unburned fuel. Do not park in flowing or static liquids.
  2. All emergency personnel shall utilize proper personal protective
    equipment (PPE), including SCBA.
  3. All personnel not engaged in fire suppression activities shall, at a minimum, wear an appropriate reflective vest or bunker gear.
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47
Q

Check for a rescue situation or injuries.

VF

A
  1. Look for signs of occupants.

2. Check with witnesses.

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48
Q

Inidicators for type of fuel in vehicle incident:

VF

A

-CNG is a blue and silver diamond
-LPG is a black and silver diamond
These decals may be located on the rear trunk or near the filler cap.

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49
Q

A vehicle significantly involved in fire will require

VF

A

a 1 ¾” attack line.

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50
Q

If unburned fuel is leaking consider calling for the

VF

A

Hazardous Materials Team.

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51
Q

Fire Attack

Approach at an angle to the __ ___ __.

At least one member of the attack team must have a __ ___ ___.

  1. The officer will select the type of __ ___ to be utilized.

(VF)

A

front or rear of the vehicle

forcible entry tool

extinguishing action

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52
Q

If the interior of a vehicle passenger compartment
may damage the vehicle beyond repair you

(VF)

A

Risk nothing

to save nothing.

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53
Q

Where patients are trapped in the vehicle, the first water should be ____

(VF)

A

to protect patients and permit rescue

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54
Q

When rescue is not a factor, first water should be applied for several
seconds to __ ___ __ __.

Many new vehicles are equipped with __ ___ .

(VF)

A

extinguish or cool the area around the fuel tank or fuel system

LPG or LNG pressurized systems

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55
Q

The bottom ___ of the vehicle should initially be swept with the stream in
order to cool the bumper, chocks, wheels and other potentially explosive
projectiles.

This will also sweep any ___ __ ____ present on the ground.

(VF)

A

18”

unburned static fuel

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56
Q

Open the hood and trunk to complete ___ and check for _____.

(VF)

A

extinguishment

extension.

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57
Q

Once inside the vehicle’s passenger compartment (after thorough
extinguishment) be aware of hazards such as __ __ __.

(VF)

A

undeployed air bags

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58
Q

After life safety, the priority must be ___ __ __.

If tanks are CNG or LPG, an __ __ __.

(VF)

A

cooling the fuel tanks

addition water supply may be needed

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59
Q

Disabling the electrical
system of a Hybrid vehicle is best accomplished by:

(VF)

test ? from last cap test

A

i. First, turning off the ignition.

ii. Second, disconnecting the 12 volt battery.

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60
Q

The high voltage system is often in a ___ ___, with
cables running from that area to the engine.

Most often these
cables are colored ____, although some may be other colors such
as ____ and ___, and should be avoided.

(VF)

A

rear compartment

orange

blue or black

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61
Q

Hybrid vehicle fires are best attacked with___.

Although still dangerous, Direct Current (DC) power does not seek __ ___ __

(VF)

A

water

a path to the ground

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62
Q

Use water to cool the vehicle and control fire spread, and allow the ___ ___ __ ___ to burn itself out.
(VF)

A

nickel metal hydride battery

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63
Q

___ ___components should never be overhauled as there is
no guarantee that the system is de-energized.

(VF)

A

High voltage

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64
Q

Compressed gases – such as hydrogen.

VF

A

i. In the open, any hydrogen leak will rapidly disperse, since the gas is lighter than air.
ii. When hydrogen burns, its flame is nearly invisible in the daylight and produces no soot.
iii. This fuel can ignite at both lower and higher levels of concentration.
iv. It is recommended to set up a positive pressure ventilation fan to disperse any leaking hydrogen vapors.

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65
Q

Liquid fuels – such as ethanol and methanol.

VF

A

i. Ethanol and methanol fuels have a lower flashpoint than
gasoline or diesel.

ii. At a fire involving these fuels, the fire fighting foam must be rated for alcohol fires (alcohol resistant aqueous film forming foam).

iii. Fires involving ethanol or methanol blends require a larger
foam and water application than those involving straight
gasoline or diesel.

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66
Q

Approach a flammable liquid spill or fire from __ ___ ___.
_____ the area and attempt to identify the type of liquid involved: hydrocarbon or
polar solvent

(FL) Flammable liquids

A

uphill and/or upwind if possible

Isolate

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67
Q

Determine if the spill or fire is ___ or ____. If the liquid is moving, attempt to divert the spill away from _ _ _ _ _ _ _, or confine the liquid using __ ____ if it can be done safely

(FL)

A

static or moving

structural exposures, storm sewers, waterways, and people

diking materials

*Consider the use of absorbent at flammable spills to help mitigate the danger of
the spilled fuel

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68
Q

If the amount of spilled fuel is greater than ____ gallons, request the Hazardous Materials Team to respond

Before mounting a foam attack, an ____ ____ of foam concentrate must be
on scene and available to extinguish the fire

(FL)

A

five gallons

adequate quantity

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69
Q

AFFF is to be used on:

AFFF in not intended to be used on:

(FL)

A

Class B hydrocarbon type fuels such as gasoline,
kerosene, diesel, etc

alcohols, ketones, esters, etc. (polar solvent/water
miscible)

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70
Q

The appropriate extinguishing agent for polar solvent fires is

(FL)

A

Alcohol resistant AFFF

*AR-AFFF are housed at Fire Station
6 and can be requested by the Company or Chief Officer.

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71
Q

After extinguishment of all flammable liquid fires, the Hazardous Materials Team
should monitor for

(FL)

A

lower explosive limits (LELs).

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72
Q

_____ an ______ to detail can result from the fact that trash fires are usually outdoor fires involving only ordinary combustibles.

These incidents
present several hazards to responding personnel, including the possible presence of _ _ _ _ _ _ _

(DTCF) Dumpster, Trash, Chute Fires

A

Complacency and inattention

hazardous materials and/or dangerous fuels and accelerants secondary to arson.

73
Q

During overhaul, be aware that the fire may have been started in order to __ __ ___.

Trash chute fires are extremely difficult to overhauls and may require ____ ____.

(DTCF)

A

conceal a crime

additional Companies

74
Q

Trash fires should be approached from ____.

Large piles or rubbish or trash should be attacked _______ and only
after are _______ protected and fire containment lines are in place

(DTCF)

A

upwind

defensively

exposures

75
Q

The use of ____ is strongly discouraged due
to the lack of penetrating power to where the seat of the fire is located.

(DTCF)

A

aqueous film forming foam (AFFF)

*(Class A foam is utilized for this purpose).

76
Q

_______ a dumpster and saturating its contents may be preferable to
raking through the contents with a pike pole.

(DTCF)

A

Flooding

77
Q

To effectively overhaul fires involving commercial waste removal trucks you should____

*Bunker gear and clothing may need decontamination after operating at
trash fires

(DTCF)

A

must empty contents onto a large paved area and thoroughly extinguish it.

78
Q

Trash Chute Fires

The ____ ____ is significant at these fires, in that these chutes are vertical channels that run throughout the building

Also check:

(DTCF)

A

exposure problem

the entire chute for openings such as utility poke-throughs

each floor through which the chute passes

the roof for signs of smoke or fire at the vent pipe

79
Q

Some chutes may be sprinklered; ensure the water ___ ____ ___

(DTCF)

A

control valve is

on.

80
Q

The thermal imaging camera (TIC) __ ___ ____ find all hidden fire (i.e. embers between floors and behind concrete

(DTCF)

A

can not be relied upon to

81
Q

Philosophy

These dangers in civil disturbance require:

Of paramount and overriding importance is

(CD) Civil Disturbance

A

situational awareness, common sense and a high degree of concern for the safety of BSODFRES personnel

that BSODFRES and BSODLE work in a unified, collaborative and cohesive manner for the highest degree of probability of mission success and agency personnel safety.

82
Q

BSODFRES personnel, apparatus and equipment are not to be used for

BSODFRES personnel will avoid any

(CD) Philosophy

A

crowd control, the disbursement of people, disturbance control or combative intervention against the perpetrators.

physical contact with persons involved in the disturbance

83
Q

BSODFRES will NOT, in any way, participate in

(CD) Philosophy

A

crowd control or the disbursement of crowds and hose streams will NOT be used for such, by our staff or by law enforcement

84
Q

At all times, decisions are to be made in the interest of reasonable degrees of:

(CD) Philosophy

A

safety for responding personnel and equipment balanced against the department’s responsibility to the public for emergency fire, rescue, and EMS response

85
Q

Organization

Based on the evaluation of the Fire Chief/Emergency Manager, or his designee, the Sheriff’s Emergency Operations Center (SEOC) will be activated and staffed at an appropriate level if the event is

(CD) Organization

A

within Broward County, and may be activated if in a neighboring jurisdiction

86
Q

The Civil Disturbance guidelines and procedures are divided into the following areas:

A

Philosophy, Organization, Communications, Operations, and Recovery.

87
Q

The Fire Chief/Emergency Manager, or his designee, will coordinate with the Sheriff, or his designee, on the advisability of activating

(CD) Organization

A

a full, or partial, Sheriff’s Emergency Operations Center (SEOC).

88
Q

The ____ ____ or ____ ____ will respond to the Command Post (CP) or the Sheriff’s Emergency Operations Center (SEOC) at the direction of the Fire Chief/Emergency Manager.

A

Deputy Chief of Operations and/or the Assistant Chiefs of Operations

89
Q

Civil disturbances may range from small isolated incidents to major multiple confrontations. Rapid mobilization of BSODFRES forces may be necessary up to and including the establishment of fire rescue ___ ____

(CD) Organization

A

task forces (TF).

90
Q

As soon as practical, an ___ ___ ____ shall be stood up and identified to ensure that any issues that may arise are addressed at the earliest opportunity agency wide.

(CD) Organization

A

Incident Safety Officer (ISO)

91
Q

Communications

Immediately upon recognition of a significant buildup of disturbance activity, Battalion Chiefs will notify the ___ ___

(CD) Communications

A

Staff Duty Officer and Fire Chief/Emergency Manager or designee.

92
Q

The ____ _______ will handle the assigning of resources to a particular request for assistance

All 911 calls originating from the disturbance area will be sent by ___ to the ____.

(CD) Communications

A

IC (not the dispatcher)

Firecom to the IC

93
Q

Consideration will be given to assigning one assigned BSOFR Coordinating Officer at the rank ____ or ____ of to Firecom to support the Duty Officer.

A

Captain or above

94
Q

When carrying out a mission of limited scope, the *TFL will__ __ ____. Instead they will retain their designated numerical TF designation. The TFL will communicate needs and progress reports to the __ __ __ ___ ___.

(CD) Communications
* task force leader

A

not declare themselves an IC

IC and not directly to FIRECOM

95
Q

Once a civil disturbance is identified, the primary objective should be ____ ____.

A

establishing command

96
Q

Establishing a type, ____ or ____ TFs is at the discretion of the IC.

Each TF includes a Task Force Leader (TFL) usually at the rank of __ ___

A

single or multiple

Battalion Chief.

97
Q

Light Task Force (LTF)

A

One (1) Battalion Chief, One (1) Battalion Command Aide, One (1) Suppression Unit, One (1) Rescue Unit

98
Q

Medium Task Force (MTF)

A

One (1) Battalion Chief, One (1) Battalion Command Aide, Two (2) Suppression Units inclusive of an Aerial Company, One (1) Rescue Unit

99
Q

Heavy Task Force (HTF)

A

Two (2) Battalion Chiefs, Two (2) Battalion Command Aides, Three (3) Suppression Units inclusive of a Aerial Company, Two (2) Rescue Units

100
Q

Special Task Force (STF)

A

One (1) Battalion Chief, One (1) Battalion Command Aide, Specialized or Grouped Units such as TRT, HM, Marine, Air, Medical assets etc

101
Q

Each TF will have at least

A

one (1) unit/squad of ready response force (RRF) or field force (FF) response platoon (RP) personnel as force protection. This will be coordinated through the BSODLE HQ Command

102
Q

TFs are designated by their

A

function (i.e. Medical STF-1, Suppression HTF-2, etc.)

103
Q

With the establishment of a TF, no single units will respond or be deployed into the impact or affected area of disturbance unless directed by the

A

IC and/or TFL.

104
Q

A unit or TF will not respond to any incident in the affected area until the area security has been confirmed through ____

A

.command

105
Q

TF’s must operate with a:

EMS transportation is to be accomplished by __ and __ procedures in those situations where the scene or patient stability is questionable.

A

“hit and run” philosophy.

“load and go”

106
Q

4 categories of task forces:

from SOG notes

A

-light, medium, heavy, special

Light TF is one of each type of unit.
Medium TF adds a 2nd suppression unit.
Heavy TF has 2 or 3 of each type of unit.
Special TF includes special ops units.

107
Q

Code 3 - warning lights, sirens, and horns are __ ___ ____ while responding within impacted areas and responses will be in a ___ ___ __ ____unless directed

A

NOT to be used

non-emergency mode

108
Q

Operations should be _____ in nature and conducted in such a fashion that personnel safety is maximized. Consideration should be given by all deployed companies to providing a ___ ____ should the conditions become untenable or ill advised.

A

defensive

quick retreat

109
Q

Steps should be taken to help increase fire station security within the affected areas

A

i. Close all hurricane shutters if equipped
ii. Close and lock all exterior doors, perimeter gates/fencing
iii. Ensure that exterior lighting is on at night
iv. Test generator and station fuel levels

110
Q

If securing a parking lot, it will take approximately ___ ___ ___ for each fire apparatus in staging.

A

8 parking spaces

111
Q

FEMA Documentation

  • Regarding severe weather incidents use the FireRMS ____ ____ ____.
  • Regarding special incidents use the FireRMS ___ _____
A

“800” series incident types

“900” series incident types.

112
Q

Active Shooter / Hostile / Violent Situations (ASHVS)

Guidelines and procedures are divided into the following areas:y

A
  • Philosophy
  • Organization
  • Communications
  • Operations
  • Recover
113
Q

Some examples of incidents that have potential are:

ASHVS

A 
Active Shooter
Suicidal patients
Domestic Violence calls
Assaults in progress
Domestic and international terrorist groups
Human trafficking/kidnapping rings
Violence related to immigration issues
Increasing gang violence and networking
Gang/group members with military backgrounds and combat experience (paramilitary)
Organized drug trafficking
Home invasions
114
Q

Decisions for BSODFRES response will be based on

ASHVS

A

knowledge of the situation, police intelligence reports and direction from Command.

115
Q

As with all responses the following incident priorities will be safely achieved:

(ASHVS)

A

a) Life Safety
b) Incident Stabilization
c) Property Conservation

116
Q

If Fire Responders are aware of an active shooter/hostile incident, fire units should consider one of two response modes:

(ASHVS)

A

a) Stage for Law Enforcement and wait for the scene to be secured.
b) Respond directly to the confirmed, secured scene and proceed with caution.

117
Q

If Fire Rescue companies respond to an incident of an unknown nature and find themselves in a hostile/violent situation, they will______

(ASHVS)

A

immediately retreat to a safe location.

118
Q

The primary responding unit shall be responsible for establishing command. As soon as possible, a _____ _____ should be established. For more complex incidents, safety should be created.

(ASHVS)

A

Unified Command

zones

119
Q

Safety Zones are:

ASHVS

A

Hot
Warm
Cold

120
Q

Hot (Red) Zone is an

ASHVS

A

operational (geographic) area, consisting of the immediate incident location with a direct and immediate threat to personal safety or health (not a secure area). Only SWAT Tactical Medics are authorized to operate in this area and Law Enforcement Officers will remove patients from this area into a Warm (Yellow) Zone where practical

121
Q

Warm (Yellow) Zone is an

ASHVS

A

operational (geographic) area with a potential threat to personal safety or health. The warm zone typically exists between the hot zones and the cold zones.

122
Q

Cold (Green) Zone is an

ASHVS

A

operational (geographic) area surrounding the warm zone where first responders can operate with minimal threat to personal safety or health. In this zone personnel can provide treatment to patients.

123
Q

A common problem that can occurs due to the nature of these unique emergency highly charged emotional incidents is personnel making a decision to Self-Dispatch themselves, in personal or department issued vehicles.

(ASHVS)

A

NO SELF DISPATCH

124
Q

In most cases Law enforcement should designate _____

(ASHVS). UnifiedCommand

A

the hot warm and cold zone

125
Q

Upon announcement of establishment of unified command, all various agency command personnel shall report to the ____ ____.

The CP shall be established in a safe location, preferably located in the

(ASHVS) UC

A

Command Post (CP)

Cold Zone or at a remote location.

126
Q

The ____ and ____ of the organizational structure, obviously, will be determined by the scope of the emergency

(ASHVS) UC

A

size and complexity

127
Q

The only change in using the ICS on a very large incident rather than a small incident is the ___ ___ ___ _____ to meet the increased needs within the Unified Command

(ASHVS) UC

A

method of growth of the emergency management organization

128
Q

Response into a “Restricted Area or Warm (Yellow) Zone” will only occur with security force protection (law enforcement) which must remain with BSODFRES units __ ___ ___ ____, then escorted out of the “Restricted Area”

(ASHVS) UC

A

at all times until the mission is completed

129
Q

Code 3 - warning lights, sirens, and horns are NOT to be used while responding within _____ _____ and responses will be in a non-emergency mode unless directed.

(ASHVS) UC

A

lockdown areas

130
Q

Active Fires will be allowed to burn until confirmation of a______

(ASHVS) UC

A

secure scene has occurred.

131
Q

BSODFRES resources will be committed to an incident in the lockdown area only if ___ ___ ____, exposures or the IC determines that the benefits outweigh the risks.

A

there is a threat to life

132
Q

The term ______ shall be used to STOP all activity on scene and can be called by _____ on scene witnessing an unsafe act or condition.

In high noise environments, a __ ___ on the back shall be used to signal a person operating extrication equipment to immediately cease.

Vehicle Extrication (VE)

A

FREEZE

ANYONE

sharp slap

133
Q

Apparatus should be positioned to protect crews working on the scene. Officers should ask the question __ __ ___ _

(VE)

A

“Is it safe to exit the apparatus?”

134
Q

If possible, rescue units should be placed in such a way that they are within a safe zone that allows for safe loading of patients such as ______ of the incident and not positioned with patient loading operations exposed to ___ ____.

(VE)

A

downstream

oncoming traffic.

135
Q

Additional ___ ___ shall be summoned to enhance the safety of the scene, if needed

(VE)

A

blocking units

136
Q

Determine the number of vehicles involved and their condition ___ ___ ____ ____.

(VE) Scene size up

A

(Minor, Moderate or Heavy Damage)

137
Q

Other task to think about in scene size up

VE

A
  1. Hazards (fire, electrical, Haz-Mat, traffic, etc.).
  2. Number of patients (MCI Levels).
  3. Need for extrication.
  4. Level of entrapment.
  5. Additional resources (TRT, Haz-Mat, Air Rescue for extended extrication, additional rescue units, etc.).
  6. Dispatch should be advised of all extended extrications.
  7. TRT shall be requested for any rollover or extended extrications.
138
Q

The following processes shall be performed in sequence:

VE

A
  1. Scene stabilization.
  2. Vehicle stabilization.
  3. Patient stabilization
139
Q

Members assigned to the Outer Circle should consider the following hazards and actions including, but not limited to:

(VE) scene stabilization

A

a. Moving traffic.
b. Weather conditions.
c. Power lines down.
d. Gas leak.
e. Haz-Mat
f. Leaking fluids
g. Crowds
h. Ejected patients

140
Q

Members assigned to complete the task of Inner Circle should consider the following hazards and actions including, but not limited to:

(VE) scene stabilization

A

a. Look under, inside of and on top of the vehicle.
b. Attempt verbal patient contact through the front window.
c. Are the airbags deployed or not?
d. Vehicle contents.
e. Leaking fluids.
f. Electrical hazards (look under the vehicle).
g. Is the vehicle off?
h. Are there victims under the vehicle?

141
Q

Stabilize using the following acceptable methods:

(VE) Vehicle Stabilization

*All vehicles in need of extrication shall be stabilized.

A
  1. Step chocks.
  2. Box cribbing.
  3. Angular stabilization (Z-Mags, Paratech, Rescue 42, etc.).
  4. Cargo straps.
142
Q

Remove smart keys (at least ___ away from vehicle).

(VE) Vehicle Stabilization

A

15 feet

143
Q

Yellow, orange and bright blue (on GM model vehicles) colored cables can carry up to of ____ __ direct current

Hybrid vehicles are most commonly marked in the rear. Hybrids may appear to be off, but can still ___ __ ___

(VE) Vehicle Stabilization

A

750 volts

move under alternate power

144
Q

Electrical drain down times for devices that discharge airbags can vary.

  1. Deployment distance for side curtain airbags is approximately _____
  2. Deployment distance for steering wheel airbags is approximately ___
  3. Deployment distance for passenger airbags is approximately

(VE) Vehicle Stabilization

A

5” to *10”

10”.

20”.

*in Extrication book side curtains are 5” to 15”

145
Q

The glass that is closest to the patient should be __

(VE) Vehicle Stabilization

A

broken last

146
Q

Tempered glass should be removed with a ___

Laminated glass should be removed using ____

(VE) Vehicle Stabilization

A

rescue hammer, center punch or Glass Master.

Glass Master, or saws

147
Q

Once glass is removed, remove all plastic on posts to expose ________.

Cylinders that deploy side impact airbags are compressed to over and are hidden by interior trim. DO NOT CUT.

(VE) Vehicle Stabilization

A

potential hazards of airbag cylinders

3000psi

148
Q

Where possible, patient contact should be established through the __ ____ to limit head movement.

All vehicle _____ shall be removed prior to the beginning of the extrication procedures.

(VE)

A

front window

glass

149
Q

The Incident Commander shall immediately notify FireCom when each of the following benchmarks has been achieved:

(VE)

A
  1. Extrication has begun.
  2. Patient(s) removed.
  3. Extrication complete
150
Q

Extrication Terms

VE

A 
A. Purchase points.
B. Door removal.
C. Side out.
D. Roof flap.
E. Roof removal.
F. Third door.
G. Dash roll.
H. Dash lift.
I. Tunneling.
J. Relief cut.
151
Q

Authority

RTFAS

A

A. Fire Chief / Broward Sheriff’s Office.
B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) 1561.
C. National Fire Administration (NFA).
D. International Association of Fire Firefighters Position Statement.

152
Q

The Rescue Task Force teams are a unified response team consisting of deputies and Fire Rescue personnel whose objective is to provide:

(RTFAS)

A

victims life sustaining and stabilizing medical care with rapid evacuation to a Casualty Collection Point (CCP) or Cold Zone for triage, treatment and transport to a hospital.

153
Q

The BSODFRES and BSODLE will utilize the _ _ _ _ guidance to establish a single Command Post under a __ ___ ___ in deployment of the Rescue Task Force (RTF).

(RSTAS)

A

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

Unified Command structure

154
Q

The RGF is comprised of:
I think the G is suppose to be a T

(RSTAS)

A

two BSODFRES personnel and four BSODLE deputies.

155
Q

The BSO deputies provide a 360 degree cone of protection while the Fire Rescue personnel:

(RTFAS)

A

treat, stabilize, and package the injured in a rapid manner while operating in the established Warm Zone and wearing Ballistic Protective Equipment (BPE).

156
Q

BSODFRES will provide ___ ___ ___ ____ medical care and manage the injured by having a law enforcement “Extraction Team” assist with rapidly transporting patients to a __ __ __ inside the Warm Zone or Cold Zone Triage/Transport area.

(RTFAS)

A

Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC)

CCP

157
Q

Active Killer Incident:

Ballistic Protective Equipment (BPE):

CAT:

(RTFAS)

A

An individual(s) actively engaged in killing or attempting to kill people in a confined and populated area.

Ballistic resistant vest and helmet located on the BSODFRES Battalion Chief vehicles.

Combat action tourniquet used to stop the flow of blood from a life threatening injury.

158
Q

Casualty Collection Point (CCP):

Cold Zone:

(RTFAS)

A

A secured collection point of multiple patients that allows for treatment and prioritization of patients inside the Warm Zone.

Established by DLE Command as an area not controlled by the suspect and safe to operate without law enforcement security. This is an area of operation which is designated at a safe zone and contact with the suspect(s) is not probable or anticipated.

159
Q

Extraction Team:

Hot Zone:

(RTFAS)

A

A team of law enforcement officers that can respond to the Warm or Hot Zone to retrieve patients to safety or to a designated CCP.

Established by DLE Command as an area controlled by the suspect and their weapons. In this zone, contact with the suspect(s) is probable, anticipated and expected. Law enforcement only shall operate within this area

160
Q

Hemostatic Gauze:

RTFAS

A

Bandage used to stop the bleeding by packing into the wound cavity

161
Q

Hunt Team:

Chest Seal:

(RTFAS)

A

BSODLE members that actively hunt for the suspect(s).

A seal with a valve used to treat a sucking or penetrating chest wound.

162
Q

National Incident Management System (NIMS):

RTFAS

A

A systematic, proactive approach to guide departments and agencies at all levels of government, nongovernmental organizations and the private sector to work together seamlessly and manage incidents involving all threats and hazards, regardless of cause, size, location or complexity.

163
Q

Rescue Task Force (RTF):

A

Two BSODFRES personnel protected by four BSODLE deputies whose primary job is to provide a 360 degree protection envelope around rescue personnel.

164
Q

Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC):

RTFAS

A

Evidenced-based trauma care guidelines in high-threat, pre-hospital environments built upon critical medical lessons learned by U.S. and allied military forces over the past fifteen years of conflict and appropriately modified to address the specific needs of civilian populations and EMS practice.

165
Q

Combat Bandage:

RTFAS

A

Bandage used to stop bleeding by providing constant pressure to a wound.

166
Q

THREAT:

RTFAS

A

(Threat suppression, Hemorrhage control, Rapid Extraction to safety, Assessment by EMS, Transport to definitive care). An acronym to describe the needed response to active shooter and intentional mass casualty events.

167
Q

Unified Command:

RTFAS

A

Is an authority structure in which the role of incident commander is shared by two or more individuals, each already having authority in a different responding agency. Unified command is one way to carry out command in which responding agencies and/or jurisdictions with responsibility for the incident share incident management.

168
Q

Warm Zone:

RTFAS

A

Established by DLE Command as an area where contact with the active killer suspect(s) is possible, but not likely. BSODFRES may operate with a law enforcement security element within the Warm Zone

169
Q

It is important to recognize that any Active Killer incident is a ___ ____ ___ ______ ____ shall be the primary authority on scene.

(RTFAS)

A

law enforcement driven event and BSODLE

170
Q

First arriving Fire Rescue units will stage and:

RTFAS

A

establish a Staging Area.

171
Q

The _____ _____ shall proceed to the staging location where Fire Rescue and law enforcement are creating the RTF in order to make the ballistic protection and medical equipment available.

(RTFAS)

A

BC

172
Q

All BSODFRES personnel in the RTF shall don all ballistic protection and RTF medical bags provided on the Battalion Chief’s vehicle along with the necessary medical PPE. The RTF medical bags contain:

(RTFAS)

A

tourniquets, chest seals, combat dressings, hemostatic bandages and a patient drag device (webbing).

173
Q

The BSODFRES Battalion Chief shall request a __ ___ __ to prepare for a large number of patients. The Battalion Chief shall form a ____ _______ with BSODLE and work together for the duration of the incident. An additional level MCI shall be declared at the judgment of the Incident Commander based upon actual information.

(RTFAS)

A

Level 2 MCI response

Unified Command

174
Q

If BSODFRES companies arrive prior to the arrival of the Battalion Chief, the company officer(s) shall prepare for BSODLE to :

(RTFAS)

A

bring out patients from the hazard area for treatment and transport.

175
Q

The RTF shall utilize BSODLE ____ _____ to move patients out of the Warm Zone following treatment. Additionally, RTFs have the discretion to extract a victim that they feel requires immediate transport. The total number of patients, __________________________ should play a role in this decision.

(RTFAS)

A

Extraction Teams

proximity to an exit and survival probabilities

176
Q

The RTF should base the decision to establish a CCP on the following:

(RTFAS)

A
  1. Number of patients that are encountered and their proximity to an exit.
  2. The location of patients that are found (multiple patients found in an enclosed room).
  3. Does DLE have the ability to secure a room for a CCP?
  4. Patients encountered on an elevated floor
177
Q

Any dead or non-salvageable patients found in the Warm or Hot Zone should:

Command should take a proactive role in planning and clearing a clear route into the ____ ____ ____ areas and an expedient route out to area hospitals for transport units.

(RTFAS)

A

not be moved by the RTF or the Extraction Team

Triage, Treatment and Transport

178
Q

Once the RTF and Extraction Teams have completed their mission in the Warm Zone, they should be utilized for additional Cold Zone activities such as:

(RTFAS)

A

additional treatment of patients and assisting with transport.

Vehicle Extrication (13 decks)

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