Social Psych Flashcards

1
Q
n order to increase the chances that Mary Ann is altruistic it would help if she
Select one:
A. has younger siblings.
B. comes from a large extended family.
C. is inherently wealthy.
D. has at least one older sibling.
A

Correct Answer is: A
This is one of those questions that would even cause social psychologists to despair. Nevertheless, a very similar question has been on the examination. You would have chosen the correct answer (“has younger siblings”) if you were familiar with this option (“comes from a large extended family”). Whiting and J. Whiting’s study of six cultures. They found that responsibility for the welfare of others was the most important factor in the development of altruism (Children of Six Cultures, Cambridge, MA, Harvard University Press, 1975).
comes from a large extended family.

This is incorrect; Cohen’s study found altruism linked more to a nuclear than an extended family structure (R. Cohen, Altruism: Human, cultural, or what? Journal of Social Issues, 28(3), 39-57).

is inherently wealthy.

has at least one older sibling.

These two options have not been found to correlate with any of the research.

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2
Q

Compared to decentralized networks, centralized networks
Select one:
A. are less effective but more accepted by employees.
B. are more effective when the task is complex.
C. are more effective when the task is easy.
D. are more effective and more accepted by employees.

A

Correct Answer is: C
In a centralized communication network, all communication goes through one person (usually the person in charge). This type of network is most effective when the problem or task is easy; i.e., it does not require a lot of communication among workers to be resolved or accomplished.
are less effective but more accepted by employees.

are more effective and more accepted by employees.

We can rule out these two options not only because these networks are not automatically more or less effective than decentralized networks (again, it depends on the nature of the task), but also because it is usually the leader, not the employees, who prefers a centralized network.

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3
Q

What happens if two individuals are provided a situation where, if they cooperate, they will both receive moderate rewards, but if they compete, only one will receive a large reward while the other will receive nothing?
Select one:
A. compete initially but later cooperate.
B. cooperate initially but then compete.
C. cooperate from the beginning
D. compete from the beginning

A

Feedback
Correct Answer is: D
In the Prisoner’s Dilemma game, it was found that people tend to compete straight away. They take a risk. This supports the pessimistic view of human nature: outside of our family and reference group we tend to be suspicious and hostile.

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4
Q

According to Rutter, the risk patterns that are accurate predictors for child psychopathology are:
Select one:
A. Small family size, parental criminality, marital discord
B. Severe marital discord, low socioeconomic status
C. Large family size, high socioeconomic status, parental psychopathology
D. Low socioeconomic status, small family size

A

Correct Answer is: B
Again, getting this question correct involves a willingness to read carefully through the answer choices. Rutter listed low socioeconomic status, severe marital discord, large family size, parental criminality, and placement of children outside the home as predictors of child psychopathology.

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5
Q
Previous research indicated that individuals with "Type A personalities" had an increased risk for coronary heart disease. However, subsequent research has found that only certain aspects of this personality type are predictive of heart disease. One of the most predictive personality traits for heart disease is:
Select one:
A. worry
B. hostility
C. competitiveness
D. impatience
A

Correct Answer is: B
Recent research has found “negative emotions”, particularly, anger and hostility to be most predictive of heart disease in individuals with Type A personality.

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6
Q

You see an African-American client who tells you that he can’t get anywhere in life due to racism, but then tells you “I get what I deserve.” Based on this information, the client has a world view of
Select one:
A. external locus of control, internal locus of responsibility.
B. external locus of control, external locus of responsibility.
C. internal locus of control, internal locus of responsibility.
D. internal locus of control, external locus of responsibility.

A

Correct Answer is: A
J.B. Rotter identified internal-external locus of control as a personality trait of attributional tendency. People with an internal locus of control tend to view positive and negative outcomes as the result of their own actions; i.e., they believe they have control over their own fate. Those with an external locus of control view outside forces, such as luck, powerful external entities, or societal injustices, as in control over what happens to them. Derald Wing Sue identified locus of responsibility as an additional attributional tendency. People with an internal locus of responsibility credit or blame themselves for what happens to them; those with an external locus of responsibility place credit or blame with others. According to Sue, one’s worldview can fall into one of four quadrants, based on different combinations of locus of control and locus of responsibility. Sue noted that the internal locus of control/internal locus of responsibility (IC-IR) is the world view considered normal and healthy in the dominant culture, but that this is not necessarily the case in minority cultures. In this question, the person sees the external force of racism as in control of his outcomes, yet he still apparently blames himself for what happens to him. Therefore, the best answer is that his worldview is external locus of control/internal locus of responsibility. Sue points out that this is the typical world view of “self-hating” minority group members; these are people who are marginalized by the dominant culture and attempt to fit in with both the dominant and the ethnic culture but fail to do so in both cases.

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7
Q
The theory that we engage in prosocial behavior to relieve our own state of emotional distress at another's plight is referred to as:
Select one:
A. cognitive-appraisal theory
B. instrumentality
C. negative state relief theory
D. opponent-process theory
A

Correct Answer is: C
Negative state relief theory states we engage in prosocial behavior to relieve our own state of emotional distress at another’s plight.
Cognitive-appraisal theory states that one’s emotion at a given time depends on one’s interpretation of the situation one is in.

Instrumentality refers to the extent to which an individual believes that attaining a particular outcome will lead to other positively valued outcomes.

Opponent-process theory of emotion proposes that the brain avoids extremes of emotional experience by counteracting a strong positive or negative emotion with an opposite or opponent emotional response. Opponent processes have been shown to be associated with characteristic changes in affective experience that occur over time, and the dynamics of affective response to such stimuli as horror movies, skydiving and addiction.

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8
Q
In the 1930s, a researcher named Chen found that ants removed more balls of dirt while building tunnels when they were working with one or two other ants than when they were working alone. Subsequent research on this "social facilitation" effect suggests that it is related to:
Select one:
A. increased arousal.
B. imitation.
C. competitiveness.
D. group norms.
A

Feedback
Correct Answer is: A
Two of the responses (“competitiveness” and “group norms”) should have been pretty easy to eliminate since it’s not likely that the behavior of ants is going to be affected by competitiveness or group norms. It’s also questionable whether imitation would be a factor. That leaves arousal, which is the correct answer. Apparently, having others around us while we work increases our arousal which can have a positive or negative effect on performance, depending on the situation.

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9
Q

Research on the relationship between group size and the size of tips in restaurants has lent credence to the construct of diffusion of responsibility in its findings that as group size increases, the average tip per customer
Select one:
A. decreases.
B. increases.
C. decreases only when diners are charged separately.
D. increases only when diners are charged separately.

A

Correct Answer is: A
Diffusion of responsibility refers to the notion that the presence of others reduces people’s feeling of personal responsibility for events, as individuals tend to shift responsibility to others present. Both laboratory and field studies have shown that the presence of others does in fact reduce individual helping, charitable giving, task effort, and other types of non-mandatory giving behaviors, including restaurant tipping. The results of such studies are often explained as examples of diffusion of responsibility.

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10
Q
Morgan developed the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ model to help explain the relationship between personality mood states and athletic success.
Select one:
A. normative
B. mental health
C. psychological
D. psychopathology
A

Correct Answer is: B
Morgan’s mental health model (MHM) of sport performance proposes an inverse relationship exists between psychopathology and sport performance. In other words, positive mental health is directly related to athletic success and high levels of performance whereas performance lessens as mental health worsens. Morgan found successful athletes tend to be vigorous and have little tension, depression, confusion, anger, and fatigue, a combination known as the iceberg profile. Other studies have shown that using general psychological measures of personality structure and mood state can identify between 70 and 85% of successful and unsuccessful athletes, which is a level superior to chance but still insufficient for the purpose of selecting athletes. MHM is a considered a means to help maintain the mental and physical health of athletes, such as mood state monitoring to prevent staleness syndrome in overtraining athletes, but not for use as a selection tool.

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11
Q

According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, a persuasive message processed via the peripheral rather than the central route is most likely to be successful when:
Select one:
A. the message is not of an urgent nature
B. the listener has time to process the message
C. the communicator is of high status
D. the communicator is demographically similar to the listener

A

Correct Answer is: C
According to the Elaboration Likelihood Model, there are two routes of communication: a central route and a peripheral route. A listener is most susceptible to persuasion via the peripheral route when the communicator is appealing (e.g., is of high status), the listener is uninvolved with the message or is distracted, and/or the message appeals to fear.

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12
Q
Conformity involves adhering to implicit group norms, whereas compliance occurs when people agree to explicit requests to do something. According to the literature, all of the following increase compliance except:
Select one:
A. "door-in-the-face" technique
B. "foot-in-the-door" method
C. psychological reactance
D. low-balling
A

Correct Answer is: C
The “door-in-the-face” technique involves making an initial request that is so large that it is sure to be rejected and then coming back with a second, more reasonable request. The “foot-in-the-door” technique involves moving from a small request to a larger one. Low-balling involves securing an agreement with a request and then increasing the size of that request by revealing its hidden costs. All three of these techniques have been shown to increase compliance.
On the other hand, psychological reactance, a phenomenon identified by Brehm (1966), states compliance and conformity are less likely to occur in situations where the person feels his or her freedom to choose is being threatened. Group pressures can sometimes produce the opposite of conformity or compliance and if a person perceives that his or her sense of control or freedom of choice is threatened, there will be an attempt to re-establish that freedom - i.e., to act in the opposite direction of the attempted influence.

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13
Q

A political columnist notes that female candidates for office who sharply criticize their opponents are often criticized for being aggressive and mean whereas male candidates who do the same are often praised for their honesty and courage. This observation, if true to at least some degree, reflects
Select one:
A. attribution errors on the part of the voting public.
B. the pervasiveness of gender stereotypes.
C. the fact that women who choose to enter politics are more likely to display stereotypically male characteristics.
D. the prescriptive aspect of gender stereotypes.

A

Correct Answer is: D
In the literature on gender stereotypes, a distinction is often made between the descriptive and prescriptive aspects of gender stereotypes. Descriptive stereotypes are those that involve generalizations about what women are; prescriptive stereotypes involve generalizations about what women should be. A criticism of a woman for engaging in the exact same behavior as a man for the exact same purpose is a prescriptive stereotype, because it implies that the woman should be acting differently just because she is a woman.

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14
Q

If you hear arguments against your opinion, followed by arguments against the opposing opinion, what is likely to happen?
Select one:
A. You will become very confused.
B. You will become more dogmatic in your original opinion.
C. You will change your opinion.
D. Your resistance to future opposing arguments will be increased.

A

Correct Answer is: D
This question is indirectly referencing McGuire’s inoculation theory, which proposes that a particular attitude or belief can be strengthened by exposing someone to the opposing belief – especially when the opposing argument is weak or the person is supplied with counter-arguments against the opposing belief. Note that this is analogous to medical inoculation, which involves injection of a weak form of a germ so the body can build up defenses against that germ.

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15
Q
The most important factor found to exist as a criterion for initial attraction between people who have just met is:
Select one:
A. attitude similarity.
B. physical attractiveness.
C. physical proximity.
D. all of the above.
A

Correct Answer is: B
When we become attracted to someone we meet for the first time, it is most likely because of physical characteristics. Attraction due to other factors, such as intelligence, compatibility, etc., comes later.

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16
Q
After losing several hundred dollars gambling at the casino, Jack decides to increase the amount he places on each subsequent bet in hopes of making his money back. This decision is best explained by:
Select one:
A. satisficing.
B. loss aversion.
C. bounded rationality.
D. cognitive dissonance.
A

Correct Answer is: B
Kahneman and Tversky’s (1979) Prospect Theory contains the notion of loss aversion which refers to the tendency to be influenced more by potential losses than potential gains or to base decisions more heavily on the fear of loss than the hope of gain. In contrast to commonly held beliefs that people are adverse to risk and make decisions based on logic, Kahneman and Tversky found that people are adverse to loss, not risk. This explains why gamblers will take riskier and riskier decisions after suffering a loss in hopes of making their money back, that is, to avoid realizing an actual loss.
Satisficing refers to the decision-making style of using the minimal amount of information to reach a “good enough” solution.

Bounded rationality is part of Herbert Simon’s (administrative) model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.

Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that, when we have two conflicting cognitions (e.g., I like the club but they don’t want me” ), we’ll be motivated to reduce the tension that this causes by changing one of our cognitions.

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17
Q

Research on the self-serving bias has found support for all of the following conclusions except
Select one:
A. it is more likely to occur in individuals with high self-esteem than low self-esteem.
B. it may be present both under conditions of anonymity and in the presence of an audience.
C. failure is more likely to be attributed to external factors when the person expects future improvement.
D. it operates in the same manner across cultures.

A

Correct Answer is: D
The self-serving bias refers to the tendency to attribute one’s own successes to internal factors and one’s failures to external factors–i.e., to take credit for one’s successes and place blame for one’s failures. Research shows that the self-serving bias does not operate the same way across cultures, and in fact may be reversed in more collectivist cultures. For example, a study of Japanese students found that on a difficult memory task, they were more likely to attribute their failures to internal factors and their successes to external factors. Some authors therefore have concluded that a modesty bias rather than a self-serving bias occurs in some cultures.
The other choices are true of the self-serving bias. Self-esteem mediates its likelihood of operating; those with high self-esteem are more likely to display it than those with low self-esteem.

it may be present both under conditions of anonymity and in the presence of an audience.

And as stated by this choice, it has been shown equally likely to operate under conditions of anonymity and in the presence of an audience (however, in collectivist cultures, conditions of anonymity may evoke it when a modesty bias might otherwise be more likely).

Finally, expectation of future improvement is another mediating variable–attribution of failures to internal factors is more likely when a person expects future successes.

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18
Q
According to the "iceberg profile" developed by Morgan, which of the following psychological characteristics displayed by successful athletes is typically above the general population mean?
Select one:
A. anxiety
B. anger
C. vigor
D. confusion
A

Correct Answer is: C
Through the use of psychological testing, Morgan (1978) found that athletes scored significantly lower in negative mental health traits such as tension, depression, anger, fatigue and confusion, but significantly higher for vigor compared to U.S. norms. He referred to the mood characteristics of accomplished athletes as the “iceberg profile.” Morgan’s presented correlation between exercise and a decrease in anxiety has been confirmed in subsequent studies in both serious and recreational athletes.

19
Q

Research on gender differences in judgments of sexual harassment indicate:
Select one:
A. men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.
B. men and women are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases.
C. men are more likely than women to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment but only in severe cases.
D. women are more likely than men to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment regardless of the severity of the behaviors.

A

Correct Answer is: B
Sexual harassment research has consistently found that males and females are equally as likely to judge a sexually-toned behavior as sexual harassment in severe cases; however, there are significant gender differences in judgments in mild to moderate cases of harassment. Studies have continually found females are more likely than males to rate mild to moderately severe or sexually-ambiguous behaviors as constituting sexual harassment.

20
Q
When a person misremembers seeing an event personally when it was actually seen on television, this is an example of:
Select one:
A. source confusion
B. blocking
C. false recall
D. cryptomnesia
A

orrect Answer is: A
One of Schacter’s (1999) Seven Sins of Memory, misattribution is divided into source confusion, cryptomnesia and false recall/false recognition. This question is an example of source confusion, in which is a type of misattribution is in regard to the source of a memory.
Cryptomnesia is a form of misattribution where a memory is mistaken for imagination, because there is no subjective experience of it being a memory.

Schacter also proposed the “tip of the tongue” phenomenon, in which a person is able to recall parts of an item, or related information, but is frustratingly unable to recall the whole item. This is thought to be an instance of “blocking” where multiple similar memories are being recalled and interfere with each other.

21
Q
The Health Belief Model (HBM) is a tool for predicting and understanding an individual's health-related decision making. The results from which dimension provide the most information?
Select one:
A. perceived severity
B. perceived susceptibility
C. perceived benefits
D. perceived barriers
A

Correct Answer is: D
The Health Belief Model (HBM), which was developed initially to understand why people seemed unwilling to use preventative measures and screening tests available, is based on psychological and behavioral theory. The four dimensions the model considers in the influence of health-related decision making and behavior are: perceived susceptibility; perceived severity; perceived benefits; and perceived barriers. The dimension identified as the most influential variable for predicting and explaining health-related decision-making and actions is perceived barriers. The effectiveness of the action (screening, preventative care) and the perceptions of inconvenience, expense, unpleasantness, dangerousness, etc., are examples of perceived barriers.

22
Q
Which of Glick and Fiske's (1996, 2001) theories start from the premise that the relations between the genders are characterized by the coexistence of power differences and intimate interdependence?
Select one:
A. stereotype content model
B. social role theory
C. ambivalent sexism theory
D. sexual prejudice
A

c

23
Q

Research on the approach-avoidance conflict has found that:
Select one:
A. the negative and positive qualities of the goal continue to become increasingly similar in strength the closer you get to the goal.
B. the closer you get to the goal, the stronger the negative qualities of the goal and the weaker the positive qualities.
C. the closer you get to the goal, the weaker the negative qualities of the goal and the stronger the positive qualities.
D. the strength of the negative and positive qualities of the goal continue to increase the closer you get to the goal, but the strength of the negative qualities increases more.

A

Correct Answer is: D
Thinking about your own experience in situations where the goal has both positive and negative qualities (the licensing exam perhaps?) may have helped you answer this question. As the distance between you and the goal decreases, the strength of the approach response and avoidance response increases. However, the “avoidance gradient” is steeper than the “approach gradient” so that, eventually, the avoidance response is much stronger. (When this happens, you might start thinking about taking the exam next time or changing careers!)

24
Q

A supervisor realizes that his employees are becoming less productive when working in a group. To avoid the effects of social loafing he should:
Select one:
A. provide clearly defined goals
B. require everyone to provide an equal amount of effort Incorrect
C. make their jobs more challenging
D. offer the group a reward for meeting the company’s goal

A
Correct Answer is: C
Social loafing often occurs when employees, particularly those in high-level positions, are evaluated based on a combined effort of the group, rather than for their individual contributions. It is also more likely to occur when tasks are simple and boring. Thus, to avoid social loafing an employer should insure that each employee's job is challenging and that they receive recognition for their individual efforts.
This choice (providing clearly defined goals) is also a useful suggestion, but is more related to goal-setting theory than social loafing.
25
Q

A “script” in Psychology-Social Psychology is:
Select one:
A. any verbal communication used to express emotions
B. the primary cause of the actor-observer effect
C. a set of cognitive distortions
D. a representation of a stereotyped sequence of actions

A

Correct Answer is: D
Scripts are schemas that tell us what sequence of actions to expect in certain settings. For example, when you go to a restaurant, your restaurant script causes you to expect that someone will greet you, you will sit down at a table, a server will take your order, etc., in that particular order. You would not expect them to give you the check as soon as you sat down, or to ask you to go to the kitchen to cook your own meal.

26
Q
The tendency of sports teams to win more often when they are playing on their home court is referred to as the "home advantage." This phenomenon is best explained by:
Select one:
A. home court familiarity
B. expectations of the players
C. social support from fans
D. demoralization of the visiting team
A

Correct Answer is: C
The home advantage in team sports has generated various explanations; however, it most consistently has been linked to a supportive home audience.

27
Q

Studies on persuasive communication suggest that, when there is a large difference in opinion between the communicator and the audience of the message, change in the latter’s opinion is
Select one:
A. practically impossible.
B. more likely if the communicator is perceived as attractive.
C. more likely if message recipients perceive the communicator as similar to them.
D. more likely if the communicator is perceived as credible.

A

Correct Answer is: D
Studies have suggested that, when there is a large difference in initial opinion between the originator and the receiver of persuasive communication, attitude change in the latter is most likely when the former is perceived as credible. Factors that increase a communicator’s credibility include perceived competence or expertise (e.g., when the speaker is presented as being very accomplished in a field) and trustworthiness (e.g., when the communicator is not perceived to have a personal interest in getting the audience to agree with her).

28
Q
According to Weiner's attribution theory, a person with high-self esteem is most likely to attribute success on an achievement-related task to
Select one:
A. effort. Incorrect
B. ability.
C. luck.
D. the easiness of the task.
A

Correct Answer is: B
Weiner’s attribution theory has to do with reasons people use to explain causes of behavior, events, and outcomes. According to Weiner, these explanations or attributions have three dimensions: locus-of control (internal-external), stability (stable-unstable), and controllability (controllable-uncontrollable). This makes for eight possible attribution types: internal-stable-controllable, internal-stable-uncontrollable, and so on. The focus of this theory is on attributions for achievement, and Weiner identified ability, effort, task difficulty, and luck and the most important explanations of achievement. The theory has a number of applications in a variety of settings. For example, students who attribute success to ability, an internal, stable, and uncontrollable factor, are likely to have higher self-esteem. Students who attribute academic successes and failure to effort (an internal, unstable, controllable factor) are more likely to persist at tasks.

29
Q
The tendency of interviewers to allow one prominent piece of information about a job applicant to set the tone for the whole interview is referred to as:
Select one:
A. similarity effect
B. framing effect
C. halo effect
D. negative salience
A

Correct Answer is: C
The tendency of interviewers to allow one prominent piece of information about a job applicant to set the tone for the whole interview is referred to as the halo effect. Halo can be negative (i.e., a qualified applicant given low ratings because of a criminal history), or positive, (i.e., an unqualified applicant given high ratings because of being physically attractive).
similarity effect

The tendency of interviewers to prefer applicants who are like themselves (i.e., Yale graduates have a slight tendency to hire Yale graduates) is referred to as similarity effect.

framing effect

The tendency of interviewers to judge information as either positive or negative depending on the context in which it is presented is called the framing effect. In other words, the same piece of information can be presented or framed in many different ways.

negative salience

The tendency of interviewers to pay more attention to and more time probing for reasons to disqualify the applicant than reasons to hire the applicant, or to pay more attention to negative information than positive information, is referred to as negative salience.

30
Q
In 1954, the U.S. Supreme Court made a ruling which effectively ended segregation and began the integration of public schools. This decision was, in part, based on research findings and court testimony which suggested that segregation leads to low self-esteem in black children. The psychologist who conducted this research was:
Select one:
A. Rupert Brown
B. Kenneth Clark
C. Janet Helms
D. David Su
A

Feedback
Correct Answer is: B
Kenneth and his wife Mamie Clark conducted the famous Doll Study which found that two-thirds of African-American children preferred playing with white dolls and perceived the brown dolls as “bad”. During the famous Brown vs. Board of Education (1954) case, this research was cited as evidence that segregation leads to low self-esteem in African-American children.

31
Q
Which of the following have NOT been associated with higher levels of sexual prejudice according to findings on heterosexuals' attitudes toward gays and lesbians?
Select one:
A. younger age
B. male gender
C. authoritarianism
D. fundamentalist religious views
A

Correct Answer is: A
Studies on heterosexuals attitudes toward gay and lesbians indicate that older age is predictive of higher levels of sexual prejudice along with high levels of authoritarianism, fundamentalist religious views and male gender, especially toward gays (versus lesbians) ( incorrect options).

32
Q
A group member has idiosyncratic credits. This refers to the idea that the member has:
Select one:
A. Upward mobility
B. Brownie points
C. Unusual behaviors
D. Referent power
A

Correct Answer is: B
Idiosyncratic credits are related to minority influence. Hollander (1985) found that in order to become either the leader of a group or successfully challenge the majority opinion of a group, a person must first conform to the group in order to establish his or her credentials as a “competent insider”. By becoming accepted, member’s idiosyncracy credits are accumulated, which are like “brownie points”.

33
Q

According to Ellen Berscheid’s Emotion-in-Relationships Model partners in long-term relationships are most likely to:
Select one:
A. underestimate their emotional investment in the relationship when things are running smoothly
B. overestimate their emotional investment in the relationship when things are running smoothly Incorrect
C. experience the most intense positive emotions after several years into the relationship
D. focus on attributions which are external to their partners and themselves to understand their relationship

A

Correct Answer is: A
Ellen Berscheid’s Emotion-in-Relationships Model proposes that positive and negative emotions are most likely to occur in a relationship when the partner’s behavior interrupts the individual’s typical on-going behaviors. Thus, when things are running smoothly, there are fewer interruptions and less intense emotions. Although the partners are highly interdependent during this period, they are also more likely to underestimate their emotional investment.
experience the most intense positive emotions after several years into the relationship

This choice reflects the opposite of Berscheid’s model because there are more surprises or interruptions to the status quo in the early stage of a relationship – which results in the most positive (and negative) emotions.

focus on attributions which are external to their partners and themselves to understand their relationship

This is incorrect because Berscheid suggests that partners (and researchers) tend to underestimate the importance of external situational factors in a relationship (E. Berscheid, Interpersonal relationships. In L. W. Porter & M. R. Rosenzweig (Eds.), Annual review of psychology, 1994, (pp. 79-129). Palo Alto, CA: Annual Reviews).

34
Q

A sports psychologist suggests the most important factor in understanding the relationship of intensity to athletic performance is the individual athlete’s own interpretation of his or her perceived intensity. This explanation is based on:
Select one:
A. Inverted-U Theory
B. Individual Zones of Optimal Function (IZOF) Model
C. Catastrophe Model
D. Reversal Theory

A

Feedback
Correct Answer is: D
There are four current theoretical explanations for the relationship between intensity (i.e., anxiety, arousal, nervousness) and athletic performance: Inverted-U Hypothesis (Yerkes & Dodson, 1908); Individual Zones of Optimal Functioning Model (Hanin, 1986); Catastrophe theory (Hardy & Fazey, 1987), and Reversal theory (Kerr, 1987).
The Inverted-U theory* is the most popular explanation of the relationship of intensity and athletic performance and is often referred to as the Yerkes-Dodson Law. It purports moderate intensity is optimal for all athletes, theorizing as intensity increases from low to moderate levels there is an associated improvement in performance and performance worsens once intensity levels either exceed or fall below this moderate range.

The Individual Zones of Optimal Function (IZOF) model*, proposes that the optimal level of intensity may vary, ranging from very low to very high for different individuals, and that a multitude of inter-individual differences exist across athletes and sport settings.

Catastrophe theory, suggests that physiological arousal is dependent upon the level of cognitive intensity of the individual athlete and that cognitive, somatic and self-confidence aspects exert an interactive three-dimensional influence on performance ( incorrect options).

Reversal theory states how an athlete interprets his or her own intensity levels, whether as positive or negative, influences performance. The theory also suggests for successful performances to occur, athletes must view their own intensity level as positive and that perceptions of intensity are dynamic and constantly changing throughout the course performance.

35
Q

In a rape case, jurors highest in their “belief in a just world” are most likely to:
Select one:
A. wonder what the rape victim was wearing.
B. assume the truth will come out.
C. want to punish the defendant most harshly.
D. try to be most fair in judging the defendant.

A

Correct Answer is: A
This may be a difficult item until one is clear about the “just world” concept. Those scoring high on the “belief in a just world” scale tend to blame the victim for crimes, out of a need to believe that bad crimes should not occur to good people. Thus, such individuals might wonder if a short skirt or make-up invited the crime. Otherwise, these people are not systematically more prejudiced, punitive, or fair in their judgments.

36
Q
The variable most directly associated with a need for personal space is
Select one:
A. education.
B. sex.
C. income.
D. cultural background.
A

Correct Answer is: D
Although some studies suggest that cultural differences in the need for personal space are not as great as once believed, this is still the best answer. For instance, research has illustrated that adult Americans generally require more personal space than adults in other cultures.

37
Q

Xandria’s idea on how to solve a problem is at odds with how members of her team want to proceed. Research on minority influence suggests that Xandria will be most successful in convincing her fellow team members to see things her way if she:
Select one:
A. first agrees with their position and than gradually introduces her solution.
B. introduces her solution and then firmly sticks to it.
C. uses ingratiation to win the group leader over to her side.
D. cashes in her “idiosyncracy credits.”

A

Correct Answer is: B
Although there is probably more than one way for Xandria to get her way, research on minority influence has found that firm, consistent commitment to a position is the best way to change the opinion of the majority.

38
Q
\: A therapist is most likely to exert which type of power over a client?
Select one:
A. coercive
B. reward
C. legitimate
D. referent
A

Correct Answer is: D
Referent power is based on a person’s attraction to or desire to be like the holder of power.
Coercive power* results from the holder’s ability to punish others. Reward power* results from the holder’s ability to reward others. Although a therapist could provide some reward power through his or her responsiveness, this would not be as salient as referent power. Legitimate power* is based on the holder’s valid authority, for example, the police (* incorrect options). Finally, there’s another type of power - expert power, which was not offered in the question, but which could apply to a therapeutic relationship. Expert power is based on the belief that the power holder has special knowledge or expertise.

39
Q

The term “group polarization” refers to the tendency of groups to make decisions that are
Select one:
A. more risky than those that might be made by individual members.
B. more conservative than those that might be made by individual members.
C. more risky or more conservative than those that might be made by individual members.
D. more illogical than those that might be made by individual members.

A

Correct Answer is: C
A group’s decisions tend to be more extreme (in one direction or the other) than those that would be made by individuals in the group acting alone. This phenomenon is referred to as group polarization. One explanation for group polarization is that group members are more willing to support extreme decisions because, as group members, they won’t have to take as much personal responsibility for their decisions as they would if they were acting alone.

40
Q

Positive and negative life events are likely to have which of the following types of effect on a person’s sense of satisfaction and well-being?
Select one:
A. neither short-term nor long-term effects
B. short-term but not long-term effects
C. long-term but not short-term effects
D. both short-term and long-term effects

A

Correct Answer is: B
Research suggests that positive and negative life events can create great joy or distress but don’t really affect a person’s long-term sense of satisfaction and well-being. Only recent life-events seem to influence a person’s well-being, and this effect drops off in about three months. For example, lottery winners have not been found to be significantly happier than non-winners.

41
Q

A psychologist is hired as a consultant by an agency which works with homosexual men whose behavior places them at very high risk for the HIV virus. The psychologist is asked to work with groups of the agency’s clients, with the goal of decreasing high-risk activity in this population. Assuming the psychologist is familiar with the research in this area, she is most likely to take which of the following approaches?
Select one:
A. attempting to engender a group norm of disapproval for high-risk activity
B. providing knowledge to the group about AIDS
C. threatening the group with punishment if they don’t change their behavior
D. taking a laissez-faire approach and letting the group learn on its own how dangerous its behavior is

A

Correct Answer is: B
Studies show that, among individuals who are at high-risk for the AIDS virus, knowledge about AIDS is a better predictor of less risk-taking behavior than perceived peer norms. Thus, the correct choice (“providing knowledge to the group about AIDS”) is the best answer. By contrast, among low-risk groups, perceived peer norms are a better predictor. So if this question was about the best strategy for low-risk groups, this option would have been a better answer: attempting to engender a group norm of disapproval for high-risk activity.

42
Q
As a management consultant for a corporation, a psychologist devises a way for employees working in groups to complete their work. The psychologist divides the employees into two teams. Each team has to complete a set of tasks, and all group members are free to work on any or all of the tasks. If all tasks are completed, each team member receives a bonus. If even one of the tasks is not completed, nobody receives a bonus. This is an example of which type of task?
Select one:
A. additive
B. conjunctive
C. compensatory
D. disjunctive
A

Correct Answer is: A
In the literature on the psychology of groups, a distinction between additive, conjunctive, disjunctive, and compensatory tasks is sometimes made. Additive tasks permit the addition of individual efforts so that the outcome is a combination of individual contributions. This is the type of task described by the question: The combined efforts of all group members will determine if the tasks are completed and team members receive a bonus.
Let’s briefly go through the other type of tasks: On conjunctive tasks, everyone must achieve a given goal in order for the task to be complete. As a result, task performance depends on the performance of the least competent group member. On disjunctive tasks, the group must choose one of many alternative ways to do the task. Thus, performance on a task depends on the performance of the most competent group member, because if one person can complete the task, the task gets completed. Finally, on compensatory tasks, the average performance of all group members represents the group’s product.

43
Q
Studies investigating the social cognition correlates of aggression in children suggest that the cognitive biases of these children tend to create a
Select one:
A. self-fulfilling prophecy effect.
B. contrast effect.
C. personal fable.
D. rebound effect.
A

Correct Answer is: A
Research by N. R. Crick and K. A. Dodge (A review and reformulation of social information-processing mechanisms in children’s social adjustment, Psychological Bulletin, 1994, 115,74-101), for example, found that aggressive children often misinterpret the ambiguous or prosocial behaviors of peers as hostile in intent and respond in aggressive ways. The peers then respond negatively, thereby, creating a self-fulfilling prophecy effect.