Karrie's Missed Questions Flashcards
Bilateral damage to the medial temporal lobe produces deficits in:
A. the comprehension and production of language.
B. the comprehension but not the production of language.
C. declarative memory.
D. procedural memory.
Answer C is correct.
The medial temporal lobe includes the hippocampus, parahippocampal cortex, perirhinal cortex, and entorhinal cortex and is important for the formation of long-term declarative (semantic and episodic) memories.
With regard to the transtheoretical model, self-reevaluation is most useful for helping clients transition from the:
A. precontemplation to the contemplation stage.
B. contemplation to the preparation stage.
C. preparation to the engagement stage.
D. action to the maintenance stage.
Answer B is correct.
Self-reevaluation is useful strategy for clients in the contemplation and preparation stages because it helps them transition to the next stage – i.e., from the contemplation to the preparation stage and from the preparation to the action stage. Note that answer C is not correct because engagement is not one of the stages of change identified by the transtheoretical model.
Research investigating the effectiveness of various nonpharmacological treatments for migraine headache has found that:
A. temperature biofeedback alone is as effective as temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training.
B. relaxation training alone is as effective as temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training.
C. temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training is more effective than either temperature biofeedback or relaxation training alone.
D. temperature biofeedback alone and relaxation training alone are equally effective and as effective as temperature biofeedback plus relaxation training.
Answer C is correct.
The research has not provided entirely consistent results, but most studies have found that the combination of temperature (thermal) biofeedback and relaxation training (e.g., autogenic training) is more effective than either intervention alone. Note that there’s also evidence that blood-volume pulse feedback is even more effective than the combination of temperature biofeedback and relaxation training.
John Watson used classical conditioning to establish a fear reaction to a white rat in Little Albert. Subsequently, Little Albert also responded to a white rabbit and other white furry stimuli with fear. Albert’s response to other white furry stimuli was due to:
A. higher-order conditioning.
B. response generalization.
C. trace conditioning.
D. stimulus generalization.
Answer D is correct.
Watson established a fear reaction to a white rat in Little Albert by pairing presentation of the white rat (the CS) with an unexpected loud noise (the US) that naturally produced a startle response. Albert’s subsequent fear reaction to other white furry objects was the result of stimulus generalization – i.e., elicitation of the conditioned response by stimuli similar to the CS.
Research has found that the greatest age-related atrophy in the adult cortex occurs in the:
A. frontal and parietal lobes.
B. frontal and occipital lobes.
C. temporal and parietal lobes.
D. temporal and occipital lobes.
Answer A is correct.
Studies investigating age-related changes in the adult brain have found that the greatest decrease in volume occurs in the frontal lobes (especially the prefrontal cortex) and parietal lobes.
With regard to systems theory, positive feedback is:
A. equality based.
B. inequality based.
C. deviation amplifying.
D. deviation counteracting.
Answer C is correct.
Positive feedback amplifies deviation from the status quo and promotes change, while negative feedback counteracts (attenuates) deviation and maintains the status quo.
According to Bowlby (1980), an infant’s early relationships with caregivers lead to the development of:
A. a categorical self.
B. object permanence.
C. social models.
D. internal working models.
Answer D is correct.
Bowlby proposed that an infant’s early attachment relationships lead to the development of internal working models that consist of beliefs about the self, others, and the self in relationship to others and that these models affect future relationships.
When obtaining a high score on one or more predictors cannot compensate for a low score on another predictor, the best technique for making a hiring decision on the basis of multiple predictors is which of the following?
A. multiple cutoff
B. multiple regression
C. multiple baseline
D. multiple correlation
Answer A is correct.
Multiple cutoff is a noncompensatory technique that requires a job applicant to obtain a score that’s above the cutoff on each predictor to be considered for the job.
The studies have confirmed a link between the academic performance of adolescents and the school involvement of their parents. However, Steinberg, Lamborn, Dornbusch, and Darling (1992) found that this link was strongest for parents who have which of the following parenting styles?
A. authoritative
B. authoritarian
C. permissive
D. uninvolved
Answer A is correct.
Knowing that the authoritative parenting style is associated with the best outcomes for children and adolescents would have helped you identify this as the correct answer even if you’re not familiar with the Steinberg et al. research. In their study, these investigators found that parenting style mediates the effects of the school involvement of parents on the academic achievement of adolescents, with authoritative parenting strengthening the beneficial effects and nonauthoritative parenting attenuating the effects
Avoidance conditioning is an example of two-factor learning and combines:
A. classical conditioning and negative reinforcement.
B. classical conditioning and positive reinforcement.
C. negative reinforcement and classical extinction.
D. positive reinforcement and classical extinction.
Answer A is correct.
Avoidance conditioning is the result of two-factor learning and occurs when a neutral stimulus and a fear-arousing stimulus (the unconditioned stimulus) are presented together so that the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus and signals that the fear-arousing stimulus is about to be applied. The individual then learns that he/she can avoid the fear-arousing stimulus by engaging in an avoidance behavior as soon as the conditioned stimulus is presented. The pairing of the neutral stimulus with the unconditioned stimulus so that the neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus is the classical conditioning component of avoidance conditioning, and engaging in the avoidance behavior to keep from experiencing fear is the negative reinforcement component.
To determine which combination of health-related predictors (e.g., exercise, diet, stress) best predicts which combination of health-related outcomes (e.g., physical fitness, emotional adjustment, quality of life), you would use which of the following?
A. multiple regression
B. logistic regression
C. canonical correlation
D. discriminant function analysis
Answer C is correct.
Canonical correlation is the appropriate multivariate technique when two or more predictors will be used to estimate status on two or more criteria.
Dr. Lansky returned to school when she was 48 years old to obtain a Psy.D. in clinical psychology. She already had a Ph.D. in business administration and, now that she’s a licensed psychologist, decides to list both doctoral degrees in her business card and advertisements for her clinical practice. This is:
A. acceptable.
B. acceptable only if she indicates that her Ph.D. is in business administration.
C. unacceptable only if one or both degrees are not from an accredited educational institution.
D. unacceptable.
Answer D is correct.
This answer is most consistent with Standard 5.01(c) of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standards III.1 and III.2 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Standard 5.01(c) states that psychologists can claim as credentials for their health services only degrees that “were earned from a regionally accredited educational institution or … were the basis for psychology licensure.” In other words, the psychologist should not include her Ph.D. in business administration in her business card or advertisements since that degree was not used as a credential for her health services.
When a predictor has low to moderate criterion-related validity, it can improve decision-making accuracy as long as:
A. the base rate is high and the selection ratio is moderate.
B. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low.
C. the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is high.
D. the base rate is low and the selection ratio is moderate.
Answer B is correct.
The Taylor-Russell tables provide an estimate of the increase in decision-making accuracy (incremental validity) that can be expected when a new predictor is used, and the estimate is based on the predictor’s criterion-related validity, the base rate, and the selection ratio. The tables indicate that, even when a predictor’s validity coefficient is low to moderate, it can improve decision-making accuracy as long as the base rate is moderate and the selection ratio is low.
According to Piaget, children begin to be able to observe another child perform a complex action and then imitate that action for the first time on the following day when they’re between ________ months of age.
A. 8 and 12
B. 12 and 18
C. 18 and 24
D. 24 and 30
Answer C is correct.
The ability to imitate a complex action after a period of time when the model is no longer present is referred to as deferred imitation. According to Piaget, deferred imitation doesn’t occur until the infant can form enduring mental representations, which happens during the final substage (substage six) of the sensorimotor stage when children are between 18 and 24 months of age.
When using the multitrait-multimethod matrix to assess a test’s construct validity, a large heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates which of the following?
A. adequate convergent validity
B. inadequate convergent validity
C. adequate divergent validity
D. inadequate divergent validity
Answer D is correct.
The heterotrait-monomethod coefficient indicates the correlation between the test being evaluated and a measure of a different trait (heterotrait) using the same method of measurement (monomethod). For example, if the multitrait-multimethod matrix is being used to assess the construct validity of a self-report measure of assertiveness, a heterotrait-monomethod coefficient might indicate the correlation between the self-report measure of assertiveness and a self-report measure of seriousness. When this coefficient is small, it provides evidence of the test’s divergent validity; when it’s large, it indicates that the test has inadequate divergent validity. (A measure’s construct validity is demonstrated when it has adequate levels of both divergent and convergent validity.)
An undergraduate student is writing a paper on Taylor’s scientific management for her organizational psychology class. Assuming that the student understands the major assumptions of this approach, she’s likely to note in her paper that Taylor believed that worker motivation is most affected by which of the following?
A. desire for economic gain
B. desire for satisfying social relationships
C. prepotent needs
D. fear of punishment
Answer A is correct.
Taylor (1911) believed economic gain is a worker’s primary motivation and advocated using a differential piece-rate system that directly links pay to productivity.
Which of the following is most likely to be an effective treatment for neuropathic pain?
A. phenelzine
B. amitriptyline
C. clozapine
D. risperidone
Answer B is correct.
The tricyclic antidepressants (e.g., amitriptyline, nortriptyline) are considered to be the first-line treatment for neuropathic pain. See, e.g., E. M. Aronoff, Medication management of chronic pain: What you need to know, Victoria, Canada, Trafford Publishing, 2017.
Research has found that culturally competent interventions for members of racial and ethnic minority groups are:
A. no more effective than traditional interventions for children, adolescents, or adults.
B. more effective than traditional interventions for children and adolescents but not necessarily for adults.
C. more effective than traditional interventions for adults but not necessarily for children and adolescents.
D. more effective than traditional interventions and equally effective for children, adolescents, and adults.
Answer C is correct.
Based on their review of the literature, S. Sue, N. Zane, G. C. Nagayama Hall, and L. K. Berger conclude that “the preponderance of evidence shows that culturally adapted interventions provide benefit to intervention outcomes … [but] this added value is more apparent in the research on adults than on children and youths”
A psychologist develops a theory of alcohol abuse that describes it as the result of a combination of a genetic predisposition toward alcoholism and exposure to certain environmental factors. The psychologist’s theory is best described as an example of the ____________ model.
Select one:
A. psychogenic
B. sociogenic
C. diathesis-stress
D. SORC
c. CORRECT
The diathesis-stress model reflects a biopsychosocial perspective and conceptualizes disorders as the result of a combination of biological, psychological, and environmental (social) factors. More specifically, it proposes that disorders are due to a combination of predispositional factors (the diathesis) and exposure to certain life stressors.
Functional brain imaging of a patient with mild-to-moderate Alzheimer’s disease is most likely to find which of the following?
Select one:
A. increased metabolism in the frontal lobes and basal ganglia
B. decreased metabolism in the prefrontal cortex and thalamus
C. reduced metabolism in the hippocampus and entorhinal cortex
D. increased metabolism in the hippocampus and amygdala
c. CORRECT
Neuronal degeneration in the medial temporal structures (entorhinal cortex, hippocampus, and amygdala) has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. On a PET scan, this is manifested as reduced metabolism in these structures.
When shown the word “hot” a patient says “cold” and when shown the word “rock” the patient says “stone.” These errors are most suggestive of:
Select one: A. surface dyslexia. B. deep dyslexia. C. pure alexia. D. literal alexia.
b. CORRECT
Deep dyslexia involves several reading errors including semantic paralexia, which is characterized by the substitution of words with similar meanings (e.g., cold for hot).
Research investigating the effectiveness of neurofeedback as a treatment for ADHD has generally found which of the following?
Select one:
A. It is not an effective approach for most individuals with this disorder.
B. It is an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of inattention and impulsivity.
C. It is an effective approach and exerts its strongest impact on symptoms of hyperactivity.
D. It is an effective approach only when used in conjunction with a central nervous system stimulant.
b. CORRECT
Arns et al.’s meta-analysis produced a large effect size for inattention and impulsivity and a medium effect size for hyperactivity. Their results also indicated that the positive effects of neurofeedback remained stable or improved over a two-year period.
When prison inmates and their counselors were asked to explain why the prisoners committed their offenses, most inmates cited situational factors while the counselors cited dispositional factors. This provides support for which of the following?
A. self-serving bias
B. confirmation bias
C. fundamental attribution error
D. actor-observer effect
Answer D is correct.
This question describes a study conducted by K. Saulnier and D. Perlman (The actor-observer bias is alive and well in prison: A sequel to Wells, Personality and Social Psychology Bulletin, 7, 559-564, 1981). The results of their study provided support for the actor-observer effect, which predicts that actors tend to attribute their own behaviors to situational factors while observers tend to attribute them to dispositional factors.
To determine the degree of association between age in years and reaction time in seconds, you would use which of the following correlation coefficients?
A. Spearman rho
B. Pearson r
C. contingency coefficient
D. biserial coefficient
Answer B is correct.
Because age in years and reaction time in seconds both represent a ratio scale of measurement, the Pearson r would be the appropriate correlation coefficient.
For people with Specific Phobia, blood-injection-injury type:
Select one:
A. relaxation techniques are the treatment-of-choice.
B. relaxation techniques have good short-term but poor long-term effects.
C. relaxation techniques are most effective when they include in vivo exposure to feared stimuli.
D. relaxation techniques are normally contraindicated.
d. CORRECT
For people with the blood-injection-injury type, feared stimuli produce an initial increase in heart rate and blood pressure, which is immediately followed by a drop in both and fainting. In contrast, people with other types of Specific Phobia experience only an increase in heart rate and blood pressure. Because of the physiological response associated with the blood-injection-injury type, treatment involves tensing (rather than relaxing) muscles in the presence of feared stimuli.
For a person with Social Anxiety Disorder, panic attacks are:
Select one:
A. the result of interoceptive conditioning. Incorrect
B. cued by specific social situations.
C. infrequent and nearly always unexpected.
D. indicative of a co-diagnosis of Panic Disorder.
b. CORRECT
A person with Social Anxiety Disorder may experience panic attacks but these attacks are related to known feared situations and are expected rather than unexpected. When the individual experiences recurrent unexpected panic attacks, the appropriate diagnosis is likely to be Panic Disorder or co-morbid Panic Disorder and Social Anxiety Disorder.
Areas of the cerebral cortex involved in the planning and execution of movement send excitatory signals to the:
A. striatum.
B. reticular formation.
C. arcuate fasciculus.
D. cingulate gyrus.
Answer A is correct.
The striatum consists of the caudate nucleus and putamen. Knowing that the striatum is part of the basal ganglia and that the basal ganglia facilitate voluntary movement would have allowed you to identify the striatum as the correct answer to this question.
Presence of which of the following symptoms would help confirm a DSM diagnosis of Inhalant Intoxication?
Select one:
A. increased appetite, dry mouth, and tachycardia
B. unsteady gait, slurred speech, and tremor
C. nausea, vomiting, and muscle aches
D. fatigue, vivid and unpleasant dreams, and increased appetite
Answer B is correct:
Symptoms of Inhalant Intoxication include dizziness, nystagmus, incoordination, slurred speech, unsteady gait, lethargy, depressed reflexes, psychomotor retardation, tremor, generalized muscle weakness, blurred vision, stupor or coma, and euphoria.
Research on the effectiveness of the SSRIs has found that:
Select one:
A. a higher dose of an SSRI is usually required when treating OCD than when treating depression.
B. a lower dose of an SSRI is usually required when treating OCD than when treating depression.
C. a moderate dose of an SSRI is usually required when treating OCD but the correct dose for depression depends on the severity of symptoms.
D. a moderate dose of an SSRI is usually required when treating depression but the correct dose for OCD depends on the severity of symptoms.
a. CORRECT
The research on SSRI dosage is limited and not entirely consistent. However, based on their meta-analysis of the studies, H. Bloch and colleagues concluded that a higher dose is required when treating OCD than when treating depression
Project MATCH compared motivational enhancement therapy (MET), cognitive-behavioral coping skills therapy (CBT), and twelve-step facilitation (TSF) as treatments for alcoholism and found that:
Select one:
A. MET, CBT, and TSF had similar effects on drinking.
B. the effects of CBT on drinking were significantly greater than the effects of MET or TSF.
C. the effects of MET on drinking were significantly greater than the effects of CBT or TSF.
D. CBT and MET had significant effects on drinking only when combined with TSF.
a. CORRECT
The study found that the three treatments had nearly identical positive effects on both outcome measures but that few patient-treatment matches resulted in an improvement in outcomes. Also, a subsequent analysis of the data by R. B. Cutler and D. A. Fishbain suggested that the apparent treatment effects were actually the result of selection effects - i.e., were due to the fact that individuals who were more likely to continue drinking dropped out of the study, while individuals who were more likely to stop drinking stayed in the study
The time-series group design is most similar to which of the following single-subject designs?
A. AB
B. ABAB
C. multiple-baseline across behaviors
D. multiple-baseline across subjects
Answer A is correct.
The time-series design is a type of within-subjects design that’s essentially a group version of the single-subject AB design. It involves measuring the dependent variable at regular intervals multiple times before and after the independent variable is administered.
In Alzheimer’s disease, neuron loss occurs throughout the brain. However, the greatest loss is in which of the following areas?
Select one:
A. medial temporal lobe
B. anterior parietal lobe
C. medial occipital lobe
D. posterior frontal lobe
a. CORRECT
The medial temporal lobe includes the entorhinal cortex, amygdala, and hippocampus, which are involved in memory and are most affected by Alzheimer’s disease.
Which of the following statements best describes a psychologist’s ethical requirements with regard to obtaining informed consents for research?
A. Informed consents are always necessary except when the research requires the use of deception.
B. Informed consents are not necessary as long as potential participants are allowed to withdraw from the study at any time.
C. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves investigating normal educational practices.
D. Informed consents are not necessary when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research.
Answer C is correct.
This answer is most consistent with the provisions of Standard 8.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Standard I.20 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. It accurately describes one of the exceptions to obtaining an informed consent listed in Standard 8.05. In contrast, answer A is not correct because informed consents are not required in several circumstances besides when deception is used, and answer B is not correct because allowing participants to withdraw from a study at any time is required but does not preclude getting informed consents. Finally, answer D is not the best answer because it’s only partially true: Standard 8.05 states that it’s not necessary to obtain informed consents when the study involves naturalistic observations or archival research but only when “disclosure of responses would not place participants at risk of criminal or civil liability or damage their financial standing, employability, or reputation, and confidentiality is protected.”
Studies investigating the genetic contribution to major depression have found that:
Select one:
A. the risk for depression is significantly higher for biological offspring who have one parent with depression than for those who have two parents with the disorder.
B. the risk for depression is significantly higher for biological offspring who have two parents with depression than for those who have only one parent with the disorder.
C. the risk for depression is about the same for biological offspring who have either one parent or two parents with depression.
D. the risk for depression is significantly higher for biological offspring who have a mother with depression than for those who have a father with depression
c. CORRECT
The studies have confirmed that having a biological parent with depression increases an offspring’s risk for major depression as well as a number of other disorders. However, the risk for depression is similar regardless of whether the child has one parent or two parents with major depression.
Carl Jung identified which of the following as the source of psychic energy?
Select one:
A. libido
B. archetypes
C. persona
D. personal unconscious
Jung believed that all psychic phenomena are manifestations of energy.
a. CORRECT
In contrast to Freud, Jung described libido as the source of all psychic energy (rather than as the source of sexual energy only).
For Irvin Yalom (1985), seeing a client in both individual therapy and group therapy is inadvisable because:
Select one:
A. the client will spend too much time in individual therapy discussing problems that arise during the group.
B. the client will terminate individual therapy prematurely because of the benefits he/she is deriving from the group.
C. participation in individual therapy may decrease the client’s involvement and participation in the group.
D. participation in both individual and group therapy is likely to be too anxiety-evoking for most clients.
c. CORRECT
Yalom generally discourages seeing a client in both individual and group therapy because he feels that the client’s participation in individual therapy will detract from his participation in the group.
The central limit theorem predicts that, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores, a sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches the shape of:
A. the population distribution as the number of samples increases.
B. the population distribution as the sample size increases.
C. a normal distribution as the number of samples increases.
D. a normal distribution as the sample size increases.
Answer D is correct.
According to the central limit theorem, the shape of the sampling distribution of means increasingly approaches a normal shape as the sample size increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution of scores. (The central limit theorem assumes an infinite number of equal-sized samples, and its prediction about the shape of the sampling distribution is based on the size of the samples.)
The studies have not provided entirely consistent results, but they have generally found that which of the following Big Five personality traits increase with increasing age during adulthood?
A. conscientiousness and neuroticism
B. neuroticism and extraversion
C. agreeableness and conscientiousness
D. agreeableness and openness to experience
Answer C is correct.
McCrae and his colleagues conclude that, “from age 18 to age 30 there are declines in Neuroticism, Extraversion, and Openness to Experience, and increases in Agreeableness and Conscientiousness; after age 30 the same trends are found, although the rate of change seems to decrease”
According to Sue and Zane (1987), in terms of ensuring good treatment outcomes, the most important factor in culturally sensitive therapy is:
Select one:
A. demonstrating cultural knowledge.
B. using culture-specific techniques. Incorrect
C. using techniques that establish credibility.
D. being authentic and empathic.
c. CORRECT
According to Sue and Zane, the therapist’s credibility is a key determinant of therapy outcome. Cultural knowledge and the use of culture-specific techniques are beneficial only to the extent that they contribute to the therapist’s credibility.
A person-centered (Rogerian) therapist would most likely respond to a client’s transference by:
Select one:
A. interpreting it.
B. challenging it.
C. disregarding it.
D. reflecting it.
c. CORRECT
Transference in person-centered therapy is essentially accepted and disregarded rather than interpreted as it is in many other forms of therapy. This is consistent with the here-and-now approach of person-centered therapy.
