AATBS Mock Exam Flashcards
Sue and Sue (2003) propose that culturally competent therapists work toward achieving goals in which of the following domains?
Select one:
A. awareness, knowledge, and skills
B. integrity, flexibility, and openness to experience
C. thoughts, feelings, and actions
D. self-understanding, empathy, and expertise
In their book, Counseling the Culturally Diverse: Theory and Practice, D.W. Sue and D. Sue (2003), describe the characteristics of culturally competent practitioners.
a. CORRECT According to Sue and Sue, culturally competent practitioners work toward achieving self-awareness, cultural knowledge, and appropriate skills.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: awareness, knowledge, and skills
Conger's (1956) tension reduction hypothesis emphasizes the role of which of the following in substance addiction? Select one: A. anxiety and other negative emotions B. environmental cues C. higher-order conditioning D. heredity
Answer A is correct: According to J. J. Conger, people drink to alleviate anxiety, fear, and other negative emotions and are reinforced for doing so because alcohol does, in fact, reduce tension (Reinforcement theory and the dynamics of alcoholism, Quarterly Journal of Studies on Alcohol, 17, 296-306, 1956).
Answers B, C, and D: See explanation for answer A.
The correct answer is: anxiety and other negative emotions
According to Sternberg (1999), traditional intelligence tests focus primarily on \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, which is one of the three abilities identified in his triarchic theory of intelligence. Select one: A. analytical ability B. logical-mathematical ability C. verbal memory D. processing speed
Being familiar with the three intellectual abilities identified by Sternberg would have allowed you to identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT Sternberg’s three abilities are analytical, creative, and practical.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: analytical ability
A personnel director decides to raise a selection test’s cutoff score when using the test to assist in hiring decisions. Most likely the personnel director has made this decision in order to:
Select one:
A. increase the number of true positives.
B. decrease the number of false positives.
C. increase the number of false negatives.
D. decrease the number of true negatives.
Raising the predictor cutoff score decreases the number of true and false positives and increases the number of true and false negatives.
a. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff score would decrease the number of true positives.
b. CORRECT Most likely, a personnel director would raise the predictor cutoff to decrease the number of false positives since these individuals “cost the company money” (i.e., they would be hired on the basis of their test scores but would be unsuccessful on the job).
c. Incorrect Although raising the predictor cutoff score increases the number of false negatives, this would not be considered desirable in most situations - i.e., a personnel director would not want to increase the number of people who are rejected (not hired) on the basis of their selection test scores but would have been successful on the job if they had been hired.
d. Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff increases the number of true negatives.
The correct answer is: decrease the number of false positives.
Kohlberg argued that there is a monotonic relationship between moral judgment and moral action and proposed that, as one moves from a lower to a higher stage of moral development:
Select one:
A. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
B. the range of possible moral actions becomes broader and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
C. the range of possible moral actions remains the same but the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
D. the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower but the individual’s sense of responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions remains about the same.
Although Kohlberg believed that there is a positive relationship between moral judgment and moral action, he proposed that this relationship is much stronger at higher levels of moral development.
a. CORRECT The stronger relationship between judgment and action at higher stages is attributable to two factors: first, the range of actions suggested by the individual’s judgment narrows; and, second, the individual experiences an increasing sense of responsibility to act.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: the range of possible moral actions becomes narrower and the individual assumes greater responsibility for relating his/her judgments to actions.
To evaluate the effectiveness of a training program designed to promote safe behaviors at work, Dr. Juarez observes and records each employee’s behavior for 30 minutes each day for one week before and one week after his/her participation in the training program. Dr. Juarez is using which of the following research designs?
Select one:
A. multiple baseline
B. changing criterion
C. time sampling
D. time series
Dr. Juarez’s study involves measuring the safety behaviors of workers at regular intervals before and after their participation in the training program.
a. Incorrect A multiple baseline design is single-case (single-subject) design that involves sequentially applying a treatment across different baselines - i.e., across participants, behaviors, or settings.
b. Incorrect The changing criterion design is also a single-case design. When using this design, the criterion (e.g., the desired frequency of the target behavior) is progressively increased or decreased during the course of the study.
c. Incorrect Time sampling is a behavioral observation technique that involves observing an individual or group of individuals during prespecified periods of time and recording whether or not the target behavior(s) occurred during each period.
d. CORRECT When using a time series design, the dependent (outcome) variable is assessed several times at regular intervals before and after administration of the independent variable.
The correct answer is: time series
B. F. Skinner attributed which of the following to accidental, noncontingent reinforcement? Select one: A. experimental neurosis B. superstitious behavior C. overshadowing D. satiation
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the terms listed in the answers to this question. These are described in the Learning Theory chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Skinner found that his animal subjects would repeat behaviors that were accidentally reinforced and proposed that noncontingent reinforcement may account for the acquisition of superstitious behaviors in humans.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: superstitious behavior
A psychologist wants to know if a husband's participation in housework is related to the wife's occupational status and the couple's socioeconomic status. He obtains a sample of married men and determines the current occupational status of each man's wife (working full-time outside the home, working part-time outside the home, working full- or part-time in the home, or not working) and their SES (upper, middle, or lower) and asks each man to estimate the average number of hours he spends doing housework each week. The appropriate test for analyzing the data the researcher collects in study is the: Select one: A. one-way ANOVA. B. two-way ANOVA. C. MANOVA. D. multiple-sample chi-square.
The first step in determining the correct answer to this question is to identify the study’s independent and dependent variables by translating the information provided into the following question: What are the effects of a wife’s occupational status and the couple’s socioeconomic status on the number of hours the husband spends doing housework? This question indicates that the study has two independent variables (occupational status and socioeconomic status) and one dependent variable (hours doing housework) and that the dependent variable is measured on a ratio scale.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The two-way ANOVA is the appropriate statistical test for a study that has two independent variables and one dependent variable that is measured on a ratio scale.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: two-way ANOVA.
Several authorities have noted that traditional forms of psychotherapy reflect a Eurocentric (Western) perspective that emphasizes:
Select one:
A. a concrete non-linear approach.
B. a linear cause-effect approach. Correct
C. a reciprocal (interactive) approach.
D. a directive behavioral approach.
This issue has been addressed by several experts interested in family therapy or cross-cultural counseling.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The Eurocentric perspective emphasizes one-on-one problem-solving and adopts an atomistic, linear, and reductionist cause-effect approach.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: a linear cause-effect approach.
A patient whose corpus callosum has been severed as a treatment for severe epilepsy will be able to do which of the following?
Select one:
A. verbally identify an odor that has been presented only to her right nostril
B. identify a pen with her left hand after an image of a pen has been projected to her left visual field
C. say the word “pen” after an image of a pen has been projected to her left visual field
D. repeat four words that have been whispered into her left ear
Feedback
If you encounter a question like this one on the exam, keep in mind that (1) language is controlled by the left hemisphere in most people and (2) most functions are controlled contralaterally but that olfaction is an exception to this general rule.
a. Incorrect As noted above, olfactory signals do not cross to the other side of the brain. Consequently, an odor entering the right nostril only will be sent to the right hemisphere.
b. CORRECT An image presented to the left visual field will be processed by the right hemisphere which controls the left hand. Therefore, the patient will be able to perform this task.
c. Incorrect Because information projected to the left visual field will be sent to the right hemisphere, the patient will not be able to say what she has seen.
d. Incorrect Information entering the left ear is sent to the right hemisphere. Consequently, the patient will not be able to repeat that information.
The correct answer is: identify a pen with her left hand after an image of a pen has been projected to her left visual field
Which of the following is a cause of conductive deafness? Select one: A. infection of the middle ear B. damage to the hair cells C. cochlear damage D. lesions in the auditory cortex
There are three types of deafness: conductive, sensorineural, and central.
a. CORRECT Conductive deafness results from failure of mechanical stimulation to reach the cochlea and can be caused by an infection or obstruction in the outer or middle ear.
b. Incorrect This refers to sensorineural deafness.
c. Incorrect Damage to the cochlea results in sensorineural deafness.
d. Incorrect This is a cause of central deafness.
The correct answer is: infection of the middle ear
When making the appointment with a new client for her first therapy session, Dr. Steven Sue asks the client to notice whether any changes in her behavior occur between their phone conversation and her first therapy session. Then, during the first session, Dr. Sue asks the client what she noticed. Apparently, Dr. Sue is a practitioner of: Select one: A. motivational interviewing. B. interpersonal therapy. C. solution-focused therapy. D. reality therapy.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the major assumptions and processes of the four therapies listed in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Asking a client to notice if any changes in behavior occur between the initial phone conversation and first therapy session is one of the techniques used by solution-focused therapists to obtain information that can help identify solutions to the client’s problem.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: solution-focused therapy.
When using covert sensitization to reduce a client's cigarette smoking, a mild electric shock is applied to the client's hand just as he begins to smoke. In this situation, the electric shock is acting as a(n): Select one: A. conditioned stimulus. B. unconditioned stimulus. C. negative reinforcer. D. negative discriminative stimulus
Knowing that covert sensitization is classified as a type of aversive counterconditioning may have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT When using covert sensitization, a stimulus that is associated with the undesirable behavior is the conditioned stimulus, which is paired with an unconditioned stimulus that naturally elicits an unpleasant response. In the situation described in this question, the cigarette is the conditioned stimulus and the electric shock is the unconditioned stimulus.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: unconditioned stimulus.
Common side effects of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ include stomach cramps, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, insomnia, nervousness, headache, and joint and muscle pain. Select one: A. disulfiram (Antabuse) B. methylphenidate (Ritalin) C. naltrexone (ReVia) D. propranolol (Inderal)
For the exam, you want to be familiar with the side effects of the drugs listed in the answers to this question. This information is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials. Useful active study strategies for learning drug side effects are to create and frequently review a table of side effects and write and answer matching questions.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT The symptoms listed in this question are common side effects of naltrexone, which is an opioid receptor antagonist that blocks the craving for and reinforcing effects of alcohol.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: naltrexone (ReVia)
The DSM-5 requires that which of the following be ruled out as the cause of an individual’s symptoms before assigning a diagnosis of a sexual dysfunction?
Select one:
A. other mental disorders, physiological/medical factors, and partner factors
B. a nonsexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition
C. a nonsexual mental disorder, the effects of a substance/medication, and a lack of information about sexuality
D. other mental disorder/condition, the effects of a substance/medication, and psychosocial factors
Answer B is correct: The following is included as a diagnostic criterion for a DSM-5 diagnosis of Erectile Disorder, Premature Ejaculation, and other sexual dysfunctions: “The sexual dysfunction is not better explained by a nonsexual mental disorder or as a consequence of severe relationship distress or other significant stressors and is not attributable to the effects of a substance/medication or another medical condition.”
Answers A, C, and D: See explanation above.
The correct answer is: a nonsexual mental disorder, severe relationship distress, and the effects of a substance, medication, or other medical condition
In the context of test validity, specificity refers to which of the following?
Select one:
A. the correct identification of true negatives
B. the correct identification of true positives
C. the correct identification of true negatives and true positives
D. the correct identification of false negatives and false positives
As described in the Test Construction chapter of the written study materials, the data used to evaluate a test’s accuracy with regard to decision-making can be expressed in terms of sensitivity, specificity, positive predictive value, and negative predictive value.
a. CORRECT Specificity refers to the correct identification of true negatives – i.e., the percent of cases in the validation sample who do not have the characteristic being screened for and were accurately identified by the predictor as not having that characteristic.
b. Incorrect Sensitivity refers to the correct identification of true positives.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: the correct identification of true negatives
In the context of the serial position effect, the “primacy effect”:
Select one:
A. is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory.
B. is due to interference that prohibits transfer from short- to long-term memory.
C. is due to the repetition of information so that it is maintained in short-term memory.
D. is due to distractions that make it difficult to retrieve information from long-term memory.
Feedback
The serial position effect refers to the tendency to recall items in the beginning and end of a word list better than the items in the middle of the list.
a. CORRECT The ability to recall items in the beginning of the list (primacy effect) is believed to be due to the fact that these items have been transferred from short- to long-term memory, while the ability to recall items in the end of the list (recency effect) is due to the fact that they are still present in short-term memory.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: is due to transfer of information from short- to long-term memory.
Research has found that our self-image remains relatively stable due, in part, to the fact that we seek, elicit, and remember information that confirms our beliefs about ourselves. This finding is predicted by which of the following? Select one: A. constancy bias B. self-serving bias C. false consensus bias D. confirmation bias
The question is referring to the tendency to search for and recall information that confirms our preconceptions.
a. Incorrect This is a distractor (made-up term).
b. Incorrect The self-serving bias is the tendency to take credit for our successes but blame external factors for our failures.
b. Incorrect The false consensus bias is the tendency to overestimate the degree to which the beliefs of others are similar to our own.
d. CORRECT This tendency is referred to as the confirmation (confirmatory) bias.
The correct answer is: confirmation bias
A study conducted by Buhrmester and Furman (1990) of 3rd, 6th, 9th, and 12th graders found that, as children approach the end of middle childhood, relationships between siblings become more: Select one: A. distant. B. egalitarian. C. conflictual. D. complementary.
Research by D. Buhrmester and W. Furman found a combination of closeness and conflict among siblings in middle childhood with a trend toward less conflict and greater egalitarianism with increasing age (Perceptions of sibling relationships during middle childhood and adolescence, Child Development, 61, 1387-1398, 1990).
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The study cited in the question found that, by the end of middle childhood, sibling relationships had become much more egalitarian and lower in intensity and conflict.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: egalitarian.
A practitioner of cognitive therapy is most likely to conceptualize a personality disorder as a consequence of: Select one: A. impulsive action tendencies. B. cognitive enactments. C. maladaptive life scripts. D. compelling schemata.
Even if you are unfamiliar with the cognitive view of the personality disorders, your familiarity with cognitive therapy in general should have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT Although the word “compelling” might be unfamiliar, the word “schemata” is one you want to have associated cognitive therapy. According to A. Freeman and R. C. Leaf, people with personality disorders are “generally governed by very compelling schemata,” which are not easily challenged or surrendered” [Cognitive therapy applied to personality disorders, in A. Freeman, et al. (eds.), Comprehensive Handbook of Cognitive Therapy, New York: Plenum Press, 1989].
The correct answer is: compelling schemata.
A psychophysicist is measuring “just noticeable differences” while investigating the relationship between changes in the intensity of light and her research participants’ perceptions of those changes. The measuring scale being used has:
Select one:
A. physically equal intervals.
B. psychologically equal intervals.
C. physically and psychologically equal intervals.
D. physically and psychologically unequal intervals.
Psychophysics is the study of the relationship between stimulus magnitude and perception of that stimulus.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Psychophysicists use just noticeable differences (JNDs) and similar measurements to study the relationship between changes in physical stimuli and the psychological responses to those changes. JNDs are considered to be equal; however, the corresponding physical stimuli usually are not. For example, it may take only the addition of one pound to notice a difference when you start with ten pounds but the addition of ten pounds to notice a difference when you start with 100 pounds. In each case, the JND is equal to one, but the physical differences in weight are not the same.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: psychologically equal intervals.
You saw a family in therapy for several months but they terminated when the husband and wife decided to get a divorce. Now, two months later, you are being asked to conduct an evaluation of the husband for a custody hearing. Your best course of action is to:
Select one:
A. do so but avoid making a recommendation without evaluating all members of the family.
B. do so only with the consent of both parents.
C. do so only if you believe you can remain unbiased.
D. not conduct the evaluation.
This issue is addressed by ethical guidelines that require psychologists to avoid multiple relationships.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This issue is addressed, for example, in Guideline 7 of the Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Family Law Proceedings, which states that “psychologists strive to avoid conflicts of interest and multiple relationships in conducting evaluations.”
The correct answer is: not conduct the evaluation.
When the item discrimination index (D) equals \_\_\_\_\_, this means that all of the examinees in the upper-scoring group and none of the examinees in the lower-scoring group answered the item correctly. Select one: A. 50 B. 1 C. -1 D. 0
Answer B is correct. The item discrimination index ranges in value from -1.0 to +1.0. An item discrimination index of +1.0 indicates maximum discrimination between high- and low-scoring groups, with all examinees in the upper group answering the item correctly and none of the examinees in the lower group answering the item correctly.
According to Patterson and his colleagues, aggression in children is linked to the use of coercive discipline by their parents. In turn, the parents’ use of coercive discipline is directly related to:
Select one:
A. the parents’ misinterpretations of the child’s intentions when he or she misbehaves.
B. the parents’ personality characteristics and the child’s temperament.
C. the nature of the attachment between the child and the parent.
D. the effectiveness of the discipline in stopping the child’s misbehavior.
Patterson’s theory regarding coercive family interactions takes into account the reciprocal influences of the parent and child.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT Patterson (1992) views coercive discipline as being more likely in the presence of stressful life events, certain personality characteristics in the parents, and a temperamentally difficult child.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: the parents’ personality characteristics and the child’s temperament.
A woman's clothing store hires only females as sales clerks because one of the clerks' tasks is to assist women in the store's dressing room. In this case, the store would use which of the following standards to justify hiring only women as sales clerks? Select one: A. quid pro quo B. business necessity C. bona fide occupational qualification D. systematic discrimination
In the situation described in the question, gender is a necessary qualification for the job.
a. Incorrect Quid pro quo is a term associated with sexual harassment and occurs when a hiring or employment decision is based on the person’s submission to or rejection of sexual advances.
b. Incorrect Business necessity is a defense to a charge of adverse impact and refers to using a discriminatory hiring practice on the ground that it is job related and necessary for the safe and efficient operation of the business. For example, considering only applicants with specific educational qualifications is a business necessity when those qualifications are necessary to perform the job at a minimum level of competence.
c. CORRECT Bona fide occupational qualification (BFOQ) is another defense to a charge of adverse impact and applies when the characteristic is an essential determinant of the genuineness of the job or must be taken into consideration to maintain community standards of morality or propriety. Gender is a BFOQ for the job described in this question.
d. Incorrect Systematic discrimination refers to a pattern of discrimination at a particular place of employment that is due to pervasive, interrelated policies and procedures.
The correct answer is: bona fide occupational qualification
Bill B., a 26-year old small business owner, has trouble completing tasks at home and work, frequently "blows his fuse" at family members and employees, and has his wife do all the paperwork at the office because he doesn't have the patience for it. His wife says Bill never listens to her and often does things without thinking about the consequences. When asked about his past, Bill says that he often got in trouble while he was in school. He frequently got into fights and, in high school, was arrested several times for drugs and drunk driving. All through school, his teachers said he wasn't living up to his potential. Although Bill no longer uses illegal drugs, he often drinks heavily on weekends. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Bill is: Select one: A. Antisocial Personality Disorder. B. Adult Antisocial Behavior. C. ADHD. D. Bipolar I Disorder.
Answer C is correct: Bill’s childhood history of problem behaviors and his current attention difficulties and impulsivity are most suggestive of ADHD.
Answer A: For a diagnosis of Antisocial Personality Disorder, there should be a current pattern of antisocial behavior.
Answer B: Adult Antisocial Behavior is included in the DSM with Other Conditions That May Be a Focus of Clinical Attention and applies when the individual exhibits antisocial behavior that is not meet the diagnostic criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder or other mental disorder.
Answer D: The continuous and long-term nature of Bill’s symptoms are more suggestive of ADHD than Bipolar I Disorder.
The correct answer is: ADHD.
A meta-analysis of the research conducted by Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer (2006) found that scores on which of the following personality traits continue to increase into later adulthood?
Select one:
A. agreeableness and conscientiousness
B. neuroticism and social vitality
C. social vitality and agreeableness
D. openness to experience and conscientiousness
The results of Roberts, Walton, and Viechtbauer’s (2006) meta-analysis is summarized in the Lifespan Development chapter of the written study materials.
a. CORRECT These investigators found that agreeableness, conscientiousness, social dominance, and emotional stability continue to increase over the lifespan.
b. Incorrect See explanation above.
c. Incorrect See explanation above.
d. Incorrect See explanation above.
The correct answer is: agreeableness and conscientiousness
Hans Eysenck (1952) concluded that the apparent effectiveness of psychotherapy is due to: Select one: A. patient expectancies. B. nonspecific factors of therapy. C. spontaneous remission. D. a false consensus effect.
Eysenck’s conclusions sparked an ongoing controversy in the literature about the effectiveness of psychotherapy.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
c. CORRECT Eysenck’s review of the research led him to conclude that the effects of psychotherapy are small or nonexistent and are due primarily to spontaneous remission.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response c.
The correct answer is: spontaneous remission
When conducting a research study, you want to ensure that you will detect a difference between the treatment group and the control (no treatment) group. Therefore, you will:
Select one:
A. decrease error variance by decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable.
B. increase experimental variance by increasing the magnitude of the independent variable.
C. decrease the probability of making a Type I error by decreasing alpha.
D. decrease the probability of making a Type II error by increasing beta.
Rephrased, this question would read “how do you increase power?” To identify the correct answer to this question, your understanding of power must be beyond a definitional level (e.g., “power is 1 - beta,” or “power is the probability of correctly rejecting a false null hypothesis,”) and at an abstract or conceptual level. Power can be thought of as the sensitivity of an empirical study. That is, if significant differences exist between groups, a powerful study will be sensitive enough to detect the differences.
a. Incorrect Decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable will result in less power. For instance, if you are studying the effects of a drug on a behavior, you are less likely to detect its effects when your experimental group receives a low dosage than when it receives a higher dosage. Moreover, this response does not make sense because decreasing the magnitude of the independent variable does not decrease error variance.
b. CORRECT Increasing the magnitude of the independent variable would increase experimental variance by increasing the difference between the experimental and control (no treatment) groups. This would increase power, or the ability to detect the effects of the independent variable. As an example, if you are studying the effects of a new learning procedure on performance, you are more likely to detect its effects if you administer the learning procedure to the experimental group subjects for six weeks rather than for one week.
c. Incorrect Decreasing alpha does decrease the probability of making a Type I error but, at the same time, it reduces power.
d. Incorrect Power does increase as the probability of making a Type II error decreases. However, this response does not make sense, since an increase in beta will, by definition, result in an INCREASE of the probability of making a Type II error.
The correct answer is: increase experimental variance by increasing the magnitude of the independent variable.
According to Selye (1956), during the \_\_\_\_\_\_ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which causes the adrenal cortex to release cortisol. Select one: A. alarm B. resistance C. preparation D. exhaustion
Selye’s general adaptation sydrome consists of three stages – alarm, resistance, and exhaustion. Additional information about these stages is provided in the Physiological Psychology and Psychopharmacology chapter of the written study materials.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
b. CORRECT The resistance stage occurs when stress persists and, as a result, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release ACTH which then activates the adrenal cortex to release the stress hormone cortisol.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response b.
The correct answer is: resistance
Which of the following types of biofeedback is likely to be most effective for reducing migraine headaches? Select one: A. skin conductance B. blood volume pulse C. EMG (electromyography) D. EEG (electroencephalograph)
Several types of biofeedback have been evaluated as treatments for migraine headaches.
a. Incorrect Skin conductance biofeedback provides information on autonomic arousal and is used primarily to reduce stress and anxiety reactions.
b. CORRECT Several studies indicate that blood volume pulse biofeedback is as effective as or more effective than skin temperature biofeedback for treating migraine headaches. Blood volume pulse is measured using a photoplethysmograph (PPG) that monitors change in blood flow in the blood vessels beneath the skin. See, e.g., Y. Nestoriuc & A. Martin, Efficacy of biofeedback for migraine: A meta-analysis, Pain, 128(1-2), 111-127, 2007.
c. Incorrect EMG biofeedback is useful for muscle tension headaches but has not been found to be more effective than blood volume pulse biofeedback for treating migraine headaches.
d. Incorrect EEG biofeedback provides information on brain activity and is not used as a treatment for migraine headaches.
The correct answer is: blood volume pulse
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ drugs are sometimes used to alleviate the extrapyramidal symptoms produced by an antipsychotic drug but are themselves associated with a number of undesirable side effects including dry mouth, blurred vision, urinary retention, constipation, and tachycardia. Select one: A. Anticholinergic B. Adrenergic C. Cholinergic D. Antiserotonergic
Being familiar with the anticholinergic side effects of antihistamines, antidepressants, antipsychotics, and a number of other drugs would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
a. CORRECT The common side effects of the anticholinergic drugs include those listed in the question. These drugs exert their effects by antagonizing the action of acetylcholine at muscarnic receptors.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. Incorrect See explanation for response a.
The correct answer is: Anticholinergic
The goodness-of-fit model proposed by Thomas and Chess (1977) is supported by which of the following research findings?
Select one:
A. Modeling and imitation are primary contributors to the development of a gender role identity.
B. Providing a child with experiences that are slightly beyond his/her abilities maximizes opportunities for social and cognitive development.
C. Parents who adopt an authoritative style are likely to have children who obtain high scores on measures of self-esteem, peer popularity, and scholastic achievement.
D. Irritable temperament in children is predictive of insecure attachment only when mothers are not socially supportive.
Thomas and Chess proposed that childhood pathology is related to a lack of fit between the child’s basic temperament and the parents’ behaviors toward the child.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT This finding is consistent with the prediction made by Thomas and Chess - i.e., it is the combination of the child’s temperament and the parents’ parenting style that determines the child’s developmental outcomes.
The correct answer is: Irritable temperament in children is predictive of insecure attachment only when mothers are not socially supportive.
A teacher administers a math achievement test to the 25 students in her 6th grade class on the first day of the semester and then again on the last day of the semester to see how much they gained in math ability. To analyze the data she obtains, the teacher should use which of the following statistical tests? Select one: A. t-test for a single sample B. t-test for correlated samples C. t-test for uncorrelated samples D. t-test for multiple means
For the exam, you want to know when it is appropriate to use each of the t-tests listed in answers a, b, and c.
a. Incorrect The t-test for a single sample is used to compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean.
b. CORRECT The t-test for correlated (dependent) samples is used to compare two related means – e.g., means obtained from the same sample at two different times.
c. Incorrect The t-test for uncorrelated (independent) means is used to compare two means obtained from unrelated samples
For the exam, you want to know when it is appropriate to use each of the t-tests listed in answers a, b, and c.
a. Incorrect The t-test for a single sample is used to compare an obtained sample mean to a known population mean.
b. CORRECT The t-test for correlated (dependent) samples is used to compare two related means – e.g., means obtained from the same sample at two different times.
c. Incorrect The t-test for uncorrelated (independent) means is used to compare two means obtained from unrelated samples.
d. Incorrect There is no t-test for multiple means.
The correct answer is: t-test for correlated samples
A psychotherapist who has adopted an emic perspective believes that:
Select one:
A. a particular mental disorder is manifested in similar ways in all cultures.
B. the manifestation of a particular mental disorder is impacted by cultural values, norms, and attitudes. Correct
C. the primary goal of therapy should be altering the client’s internal state.
D. the primary goal of therapy should be altering the client’s environment.
For the exam, you want to be familiar with all of the terms described in the answers to this question.
a. Incorrect Viewing a mental disorder as being manifested similarly in all cultures reflects an etic perspective.
b. CORRECT Viewing a mental disorder as being affected by cultural values, norms, and attitudes reflects an emic perspective.
c. Incorrect The goal of an autoplastic intervention is to change the individual so that he/she is better able to function effectively in his/her environment.
d. Incorrect The goal of an alloplastic interventin is to change the environment so that it better accommodates the individual.
The correct answer is: the manifestation of a particular mental disorder is impacted by cultural values, norms, and attitudes.
When determining a treatment plan for mild to moderate hypertension, it is important to keep in mind that:
Select one:
A. EMG feedback is the most effective treatment.
B. EKG feedback plus medication is the most effective treatment.
C. biofeedback is ineffective for hypertension.
D. blood pressure feedback is an effective training in general relaxation.
This is a difficult question since the research has been inconsistent (see, e.g., I. S. Goldstein, Biofeedback in the treatment of hypertension, in L. White and B. Tursky, Clinical Biofeedback: Efficiency and Mechanisms, New York: Guilford Press, 1982). The BEST answer to this type of question is usually the one that does not claim any one treatment to be superior to all others.
a. Incorrect Although EMG feedback has been found useful, it hasn’t been found to be the most effective treatment for hypertension.
b. Incorrect An EKG provides information about cardiac functioning and is not useful as a treatment for hypertension.
c. Incorrect While the degree of its effectiveness has not been established, biofeedback (especially blood pressure feedback) has been found useful as a treatment for mild to moderate hypertension.
d. CORRECT This response is most consistent with the conclusion that can be drawn from the research. While blood pressure feedback is effective, many studies have found that training in general relaxation is equally effective for mild to moderate cases.
The correct answer is: blood pressure feedback is an effective training in general relaxation.
For a test with a mean of 100 and standard deviation of 15, the upper and lower limits of the standard error of measurement are: Select one: A. 0 to +1.0. B. -1.0 to +1.0. C. 0 to 100. D. 0 to 15.
Knowing the formula for the standard error of measurement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question: The standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation times the square root of one minus the reliability coefficient.
a. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
b. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
c. Incorrect See explanation for response d.
d. CORRECT When a test’s reliability coefficient is equal to +1.0 (the highest reliability coefficient possible), there is no error in measurement; and the standard error of measurement equals zero. At the other extreme, when the test’s reliability coefficient is equal to 0, the standard error of measurement equals the standard deviation of the test scores.
The correct answer is: 0 to 15.
Which of the following is the LEAST common side effect of the beta-blocker propranolol (Inderal)? Select one: A. bradycardia B. fatigue and malaise C. sexual dysfunction D. coldness in extremities
The beta-blockers are associated with a number of undesirable side effects.
a. Incorrect Bradycardia occurs in about 10% of cases.
b. Incorrect Fatigue and malaise also occur in about 10% of cases and may lead to a misdiagnosis of depression.
c. Incorrect Decreased sexual ability also occurs in about 10% of cases.
d. CORRECT Coldness in the extremities occurs in less than 1% of cases. See, e.g., M. A. Fuller & M. Sajatovic (1999), Drug information handbook for psychiatry, Hudson, OH, Lexi-Comp, Inc.
The correct answer is: coldness in extremities
