Missed Questions Flashcards
From general exams
Question ID #554: In a study of memory, a researcher displays the letter "V" on a screen for a brief period of time. After removing the letter subjects are asked to recall what they saw. The researcher found that several of the subjects reported seeing the wrong letter. The most common incorrect letter reported was? Select one: A. A B. B C. W D. X
Correct Answer is: B
Studies such as this one have found that although information is presented visually, the confusion during recall is for letters that sound alike, which supports the theory that information is usually stored acoustically in short-term memory [See R. Conrad, 1964, Acoustic confusions in immediate memory. British Journal of Psychology, 1964, 55, 76-84].
Additional Information: Multi-Store Model, Multicomponent Model of Working Memory
The correct answer is: B
Functional nocturnal enuresis
Select one:
A. is associated with some physical medical disorder.
B. most often occurs during REM sleep and is associated with dreaming.
C. is not found in children above 12 years of age.
D. is not associated with any particular stage of sleep.
Correct Answer is: D
If the wetting is associated with a physical cause, then it is not diagnosed as “functional” enuresis. This disorder is not associated with dreaming REM-sleep as one might expect. It actually is not significantly correlated with any particular sleep stage, although it is most likely to occur during the first third of the night. And, while it is less common in older than in younger children, it does exist in older children and adolescents.
Herbert Simon’s decision-making model suggests that decision makers:A. consider all alternatives and then pick the best one.
B. consider alternatives only until they find one that seems acceptable.
C. consider only those alternatives that have a 50% or better chance of success.
D. rely more on their affective than cognitive reactions when choosing an alternative.
Correct Answer is: B
To answer this question, you have to have the name Herbert Simon linked with the bounded rationality (administrative) model of decision making, which proposes that decision makers are not always completely rational in making choices. Instead, time and resources limit their consideration of alternatives, so they tend to consider alternatives only until a satisfactory one is identified.
Additional Information: Individual Decision-Making
Kohler's classic studies of the role of cognition in learning examined the behaviors of: Select one: A. apes B. dolphins C. ducklings D. rats
Correct Answer is: A
Wolfgang Kohler is best known for his research with chimpanzees, which is a type of ape. (Apes are considered more like humans than monkeys or lower primates.) In his classic experiments Kohler placed food outside the reach of the chimps to assess their problem solving abilities. In one study, food was placed outside the chimp’s cage, and the chimp was given two sticks, neither of which was long enough by itself to reach the food. As the chimp was sitting with the two sticks in his hand, he suddenly seemed to have an “a-ha!” experience: He quickly fit the two sticks together and used the new, elongated stick to reach the food. Kohler called this sudden novel solution “insight learning,” which he attributed to a sudden cognitive restructuring of the environment.
If you chose ducklings you were probably thinking of Conrad Lorenz’ research on instinctual behaviors.
Some experts argue that panic attacks do not occur in young children because
Select one:
A. children do not experience the bodily sensations associated with panic.
B. children do not think catastrophically.
C. children are not capable of making internal interpretations of bodily sensations.
D. children are not capable of predicting that certain external events may trigger bodily symptoms.
Correct Answer is: C
Not all experts agree that children cannot experience panic attacks. However, those that do, for the most part, argue that children do not experience panic because they are cognitively incapable of making internal catastrophic interpretations (e.g., I’m going crazy) of bodily symptoms.
Mary obtains a percentile rank of 93 on a chemistry test and John obtains a 58 percentile rank on the same test. Due to errors in scoring their exams, 5 points have to be added to each of their raw scores, but not to the scores of the other examinees. This should cause:
Select one:
A. Mary’s percentile rank to increase more than John’s
B. John’s percentile rank to increase more than Mary’s
C. the percentile ranks to increase by the same amount
D. the percentile ranks to remain the same
Correct Answer is: B
Percentile ranks are evenly distributed, creating a flat or rectangular distribution of percentile scores. However, raw scores in a normal distribution, form a bell-shape, with most of the scores clustered in the center of the distribution and fewer scores at the high and low ends. Therefore, when points are added to a raw score at the 93rd percentile rank (located at the high end of the distribution), it will “jump over” fewer scores than when the same number of points are added to a raw score at the 58th percentile rank (located closer to the center of the distribution).
The neuropsychological term and definition that is incorrectly matched is:
Select one:
A. hyperphagia - complete cessation of eating.
B. aphasia - deficit in the ability to use or comprehend language.
C. stereognosis - the process of identifying objects by touch.
D. adipsia - complete cessation of drinking
Correct Answer is: A
Early research on hunger and satiety focused lesions in the ventromedial and lateral hypothalamus. Lesions to the ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) in animals produced hyperphagia - excessive eating, and extreme obesity leading to the theory of a VMH satiety center.
Lesions to the lateral hypothalamus (LH) were found to produce aphagia, (a complete cessation of eating) and adipisia, (a complete cessation of drinking), and was theorized to be a hunger or feeding center. More recent research indicates a reinterpretation of the effects of VMH and LH lesions, with evidence supporting VMH-lesioned animals overeat because they become obese rather than become obese because they overeat and LH-lesions producing a wide range of severe motor disturbances and general lack of responsiveness to sensory input beyond just food and drink.
Individuals who have had a stroke are at risk for a variety of neuropsychiatric symptoms, not just immediately poststroke, but up to six months after the event. Which of the symptoms provided is the least common? A. depressed mood
B. disinhibition and euphoria
C. pseudobulbar affect
D. catastrophic reaction
Correct Answer is: B
Disinhibition and euphoria are uncommon, whereas depression* is considered the most common psychiatric complication of stroke. The prevalence of major depression following stroke ranges from 10% to 40%, although a recent finding indicates the rate may be as high as 61% (Bourgeois et al, 2004). Other psychiatric conditions such as anxiety disorders, apathy and cognitive impairment are also common and often comorbid with depression.
Two other neuropsychiatric manifestations of stroke include pseudobulbar affect and a catastrophic reaction. Pseudobulbar affect* is a clinical syndrome seen in approximately 10% to 15% of poststroke patients and involves frequent and easily provoked spells of emotion (typically manifested by laughing and crying). Brief fits of crying or laughing occur with appropriate changes in mood in its most common form, however crying or laughing may develop in situations inappropriate to the context in more serious cases.
A catastrophic reaction* is seen in about 10% of individuals poststroke and involves a collection of symptoms (e.g., intense desperation and frustration) that is uncharacteristic of the individual’s prestroke personality (* incorrect options). A catastrophic reaction is strongly associated with poststroke depression as well as a personal and family history of psychiatric disorders. (See: Kaplan, A. (2005) Neuropsychiatric Symptoms in Poststroke Patients. Psychiatric Times. Vol. XXII, Issue 1; J. A. Bourgeois et al., Poststroke neuropsychiatric illness: An integrated approach to diagnosis and management, Current Treatment Options in Neurology, 2004, 6(5), 403-420.)
In terms of the Atkinson and Shiffrin model of human memory, which of the following best accounts for the recency effect?
Select one:
A. better storage in long-term memory due to rehearsal.
B. the lack of decay of information from short-term memory at the time of testing.
C. better retention in the sensory register due to stimulus characteristics.
D. less forgetting due to a lack of proactive interference.
Correct Answer is: B
The Atkinson and Shiffrin Multi-store Model of human memory divides the structure of memory into three components: the sensory register, short-term memory, and long-term memory. The sensory register stores unprocessed sensory information for less than a second. This information may or may not get selected for transfer to short-term memory, which retains information for about 15-30 seconds and has a capacity of 5-9 information chunks. If properly attended to, information from short-term store may be transferred to long-term memory, which holds information on a lasting basis. The recency effect refers to the tendency, when recalling items in a list, to better remember those toward the end of the list. There is also a tendency, called the primacy effect, to better remember items toward the beginning of the list. Together, the primacy and recency effects are referred to as the serial position effect. Research supports the notion that the recency effect occurs because, at the time of testing, the information at the end of the list is still present in short-term memory. For instance, if subjects engage in a distracting task after they study a list, the recency effect will be much weaker or disappear entirely.
A client expresses anger at his therapist for being unsupportive rather than acknowledge feelings of hostility toward an unsupportive spouse. This is an example of the defense mechanism called: Select one: A. sublimation B. projection C. undoing D. displacement
Correct Answer is: D
Displacement is a defense mechanism in which an uncomfortable impulse is expressed toward a safe target, rather than the true target, of the impulse.
“Sublimation” is the transformation of unwanted impulses away from destructive acts into something that is socially acceptable and/or creatively effective. “Projection” is a defense mechanism in which one attributes to others one’s own unacceptable or unwanted thoughts or/and emotions. “Undoing” is an ego defense mechanism in which a person relieves anxiety over a behavior by attempting to make up for it in other areas.
The correct answer is: displacement
According to empathy development theories, “emotional contagion” is considered to be earliest expression of empathy and appears in infants:
Select one:
A. by the end of the first year of age.
B. between 6 and 9 months of age.
C. between 3 and 6 months of age.
D. between the first few days and weeks of life.
D
The terms "circumscription" and "compromise" are associated with: Select one: A. Gottfredson B. Super C. Krumboltz D. Meichenbaum
Correct Answer is: A
Gottfredson’s (1981; 1996; 2002) theory of circumscription and compromise addresses about how gender and prestige influence and limit career choice. The theory proposes four stages of cognitive development including: orientation to size and power; orientation to sex roles; influence of social class; introspection and perceptiveness and that the expression of occupational aspirations emerges as a process of elimination or is the outcome of the competing processes of circumscription and compromise. Circumscription refers to the progressive elimination of least preferred options or alternatives that occurs as children become increasingly aware of occupational differences in gender or sex-type, prestige, and then field of work. Compromise refers to the expansion of preferences in recognition of and accommodation to external constraints (e.g., level of effort required, accessibility, cost) encountered in implementing preferences. (See: Gottfredson, L. S. (1981). Circumscription and compromise: a developmental theory of occupational aspirations. Journal of Counseling Psychology Monograph, 28(No. 6, November), 545-579.) Gottfredson, L. S. (2002). Gottfredson’s theory of circumscription, compromise, and self creation. In D. Brown (Ed.), Career Choice and Development (4th ed., pp. 85-148). San Francisco: Jossey-Bass.)
Super’s theory proposed a five stage model of career development wherein people achieve job satisfaction when they are able to express themselves and develop their self-concept through their work roles. Krumboltz’s Social Learning Theory of Career Decision Making (SLTCDM) includes four types of influences on making career decisions: genetic characteristics and special abilities; environmental conditions and events; learning experiences; performance standards and values. Social learning influences can be positive or negative factors. Meichenbaum is associated with cognitive-behavioral therapy.
A patient uses similar phonemes or words instead of the specific words required. What impairment does the patient have? Select one: A. apraxia B. dysarthria C. paraphasias D. dysprosody
Correct Answer is: C
Paraphasias involves the production of unintended syllables, words, or phrases during the effort to speak. Verbal paraphasia is a dominant symptom within the more general category of anomia which refers to word finding difficulty. When an individual is unable to evoke, retrieve, or recall a particular word then an incorrect word or phrase is substituted for an intended or target word. Prosody is the variation in stress, pitch, and rhythm of speech by which different shades of meaning are conveyed.
apraxia
Apraxia of speech (AOS) is a disorder of articulation in which individuals have difficulty planning, initiating, and sequencing speech movements accurately.
dysarthria
Dysarthria is the collective name for a group of motor speech disorders caused by a disturbance in the neuromuscular control of speech, due to either central or peripheral nervous system damage, and manifested as weakness, slowness, or incoordination of speech. It involves difficulty in articulation, not in word finding or grammar.
dysprosody
Dysprosody includes difficulties in rhythm and intonation, affecting enunciation, pronunciation and patterns of stress.
Albert Ellis’ Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy focuses on
Select one:
A. uncovering childhood causes of current dysfunction.
B. present problems and practical ways to solve them.
C. reward and punishment for appropriate and inappropriate affective responses.
D. self-monitoring and thought stopping.
Correct Answer is: B
Albert Ellis’ Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT, sometimes referred to as Rational Emotive Therapy, or RET) is based on the notion that irrational thinking, feeling, and behavior is behind most problems encountered in therapy. It relies on Ellis’ A-B-C model of disturbance: An activating event (A) triggers irrational beliefs about that event (B), and those beliefs have consequences (C) such as negative emotions and self-defeating behavior. REBT adds D and E to this chain of events: The therapist disputes (D) the irrational beliefs, leading to their replacement with rational beliefs and an effective outlook (E). REBT focuses mostly on the present–currently-held maladaptive attitudes, emotions and behaviors. It does recognize that events in early life may play a role in people’s problems, but it views the past as affecting people by contributing to beliefs that we hold in the present.
Additional Information: Rational Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)
The correct answer is: present problems and practical ways to solve them.
Meta-cognition has been defined as “knowing about knowing.” A more precise definition might be:
Select one:
A. philosophical knowledge about the nature of knowledge, such as about limits of knowledge and the validity of our observations.
B. scientific knowledge about human knowledge, such as the parts of the brain involved in long-term memory storage and the stages of cognitive development.
C. an individual’s knowledge about his or her own cognitive processing, such as strategies that enhance the efficiency of memorization.
D. knowledge about what somebody else knows.
Correct Answer is: C
Metacognition refers specifically to knowledge we have about our own cognitive processes, rather than about the nature of human knowledge in general.
Additional Information: Metacognition
The correct answer is: an individual’s knowledge about his or her own cognitive processing, such as strategies that enhance the efficiency of memorization.
According to Janet Helms, a White member of a city council meeting, which consists of members from different racial and cultural backgrounds, is most likely to work cooperatively if the member is in which stage of development: Select one: A. contact B. integration C. reintegration D. autonomy
Correct Answer is: D
Janet Helms developed the White Racial Identity Development Model, which consists of six stages. “Contact”, the first stage, is characterized by ignorance and disregard of any racial differences. The next stage is “disintegration” which involves awareness of racial inequalities which results in moral confusion and conflict. This is followed by “reintegration”, in which Whites are viewed as superior to minorities. “Pseudo-Independence” is marked by dissatisfaction with reintegration. “Immersion-Emersion” follows, during which, people embrace their whiteness without rejecting minorities. “Autonomy”, the last stage, is reached when a person internalizes a nonracist White identity, whereby similarities and differences are acknowledged but are not perceived as threatening.
Note that “Integration” is not one of the stages in Helms’ model; rather, it refers to Berry’s Acculturation Model, in which a minority has a high retention for the minority culture and high maintenance of the mainstream culture.
Additional Information: Helms’ Racial Identity Models
The correct answer is: autonomy
Which of the following would be least useful as a method for management development? Select one: A. Outward Bound programs B. job rotation C. coaching or mentoring D. vestibule training
Correct Answer is: D
Management development is a growing field in organizational psychology. A number of techniques are used to train (develop) managers including job rotation, coaching, mentoring, and even Outward Bound, which fosters trust and cooperation. Vestibule training involves the use of procedures or an environment similar to the actual job and is used for such jobs as bank tellers, clerks, and typists.
Additional Information: Program Design (Training)
The correct answer is: vestibule training
Studies investigating the relationship between suicide and health status in the elderly suggest that:
Select one:
A. contrary to what is commonly believed, there is no clear relationship between these two variables.
B. physical health is a predictor of suicide in the elderly only when it is combined with social isolation.
C. physical health is a predictor of suicide in the elderly only for males.
D. concern about physical health is one of the most common reasons for suicide in the elderly.
Correct Answer is: D
Older people have more health problems than younger ones and are often faced with a terminal illness, chronic pain, and/or an inability to take part in normal activities because of the illness. Not surprisingly, physical illness has been found in several studies to be the most common reason for suicide among the elderly.
Additional Information: Suicide among Older Adults
The correct answer is: concern about physical health is one of the most common reasons for suicide in the elderly.
The ability to understand that changing an object's appearance doesn't change the object's physical qualities typically develops during years: Select one: A. 0 to 2 B. 2 to 6 C. 7 to 10 D. 11 to 13
Correct Answer is: C
Conservation is the ability to understand that changing an object’s appearance doesn’t change the object’s physical qualities. For example, water poured from a tall thin glass into a short wide glass will be conserved, or understood to be the same amount of water. Conservation develops during the concrete operations stage (7 to 12 years). Note that there may be slight variations between age ranges that you have studied and the age ranges presented in test questions. In this case, the most correct choice is 7 to 10 years, which falls within the 7 to 12 year range. This choice, 11 to 13 years, overlaps between the high end of concrete operations and the low end of formal operations (12 onward) - which is not as good a choice for the typical development of concrete operations.
Additional Information: Concrete Operational Stage (Piaget)
The correct answer is: 7 to 10
Holland's investigative type is least similar to which other one of his types? Select one: A. artistic B. conventional C. enterprising D. social
Correct Answer is: C
Holland’s theory categorizes individuals based on their resemblance to six personality types: realistic, investigative, artistic, social, enterprising, and conventional (you can remember the sequence as “RIASEC” ). The personality types reflect a person’s primary interest, or an environment’s primary characteristic; for example, the investigative type enjoys working alone and solving complex problems; likes dealing with ideas more than people or things and has math or scientific abilities. There is overlap between the types, with some overlapping more than others. For example, the investigative type is more similar to the realistic and artistic, and less similar to the enterprising, conventional and social* types (* incorrect choices).
Additional Information: Holland’s Personality and Environment Typology
The correct answer is: enterprising
Beck’s cognitive therapy includes all of the following characteristics except:
Select one:
A. it is referred to as “collaborative empiricism.”
B. it is structured and goal-oriented.
C. relapse prevention is a focus throughout.
D. it is based on an elaboration likelihood model.
Correct Answer is: D
Beck’s model includes all of the characteristics except an elaboration likelihood model, which is a cognitive model of attitude change that predicts that persuasion can occur in one of two ways–through a central and peripheral route (Petty, 1994). Beck’s model is referred to as “collaborative empiricism” because it is founded on a collaborative relationship between the therapist and client, and involves gathering evidence and testing hypotheses about the client’s beliefs.
According to APA’s Ethical Standards, psychologists would be banned under all circumstances from soliciting testimonials from
Select one:
A. anyone.
B. current patients.
C. current and former patients.
D. no one - the Ethical Standards do not deal with the issue of testimonials.
Correct Answer is: B
Ethical Standard 5.05 states that “Psychologists do not solicit testimonials from current therapy clients/patients or other persons who because of their particular circumstances are vulnerable to undue influence.” So you would be banned under all circumstances from soliciting testimonials from current patients. Certainly, the “vulnerable due to undue influence” language would ban you from soliciting testimonials from former patients in many if not most cases. But this is not an absolute ban from seeking testimonials from former patients, so, due to the wording “under all circumstances” in the question, this choice (“current and former patients”) is not the best answer.
Terrie Moffitt distinguishes between adolescent-limited and life-course persistent antisocial behavior. Two of the distinguishing variables cited are age of onset and duration of symptoms. Another variable which distinguishes them is: Select one: A. level of moral development B. age of onset of puberty C. access to antisocial peers D. type of offenses
Correct Answer is: D
Moffitt’s theory of antisocial behavior describes 2 types: the life-course persistent type, consisting of a smaller group that engages in antisocial behavior at every life stage, in a wider range of crimes, including more victim-oriented offenses; The adolescent-limited type, making up the majority of deviant adolescents, engage in antisocial behaviors only temporarily or in limited, less severe, offenses that represent power and autonomy from parental control. [See T. E. Moffitt, Adolescent-limited and life-course-persistent antisocial behavior: A developmental taxonomy. Psychological Reports, 1993, 100(4), 674-701.]
Age of onset of puberty* and access to antisocial peers* are variables that can distinguish between adolescents who do not engage in antisocial behaviors and those who do (* incorrect options).
The correct answer is: type of offenses
A test with limited ceiling would have a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ distribution shape. Select one: A. normal B. flat C. positively skewed D. negatively skewed
Correct Answer is: D
A test with limited ceiling has an inadequate number of difficult items resulting in few low scores. Therefore the distribution would be negatively skewed.
If you find yourself getting confused in distinguishing between a positively and negatively skewed distribution, we have two ways to help you. First, remember that “the tail tells the tale”; that is, the location of the tail (extreme scores) determines the labeling of the distribution. In a positively skewed distribution, there are very few high scores, so the tail is drawn on the positive end; similarly, in a negatively skewed distribution, there are very few low scores, so the tail is drawn on the negative end. Second, it may help you to remember that “positively skewed = difficult test” and “negatively skewed = easy test.” This can help cue you to remember that a positively skewed distribution contains mostly low scores and a negatively skewed distribution contains mostly high scores.
Which type of brain waves predominate when a person is awake, alert, and actively processing information? Select one: A. alpha B. beta C. delta D. theta
Correct Answer is: B
Brain wave activity is typically described in terms of the following frequency bands, in order from lowest to highest wave repetition per second: delta, theta, alpha, and beta (some researchers also classify higher frequency beta waves as gamma waves). Beta waves are associated with alert wakefulness. They predominate when one’s eyes are open and the brain is actively processing information. Alpha waves predominate in states of relaxed wakefulness when the person is not actively processing information; they have also been linked to creative problem solving. Theta waves predominate in the state between wakefulness and sleep, and delta waves predominate during deep sleep.
The authoritative style of parenting typically results in better school performance among: Select one: A. Asians B. Hispanics C. African-Americans D. Whites
Correct Answer is: D
Overall, the authoritative style of parenting (as compared to the authoritarian, permissive, and uninvolved styles) has the most positive outcomes in children’s growth and development - including academic achievement. However, researchers have found that the benefits of authoritative parenting are moderated by ethnicity. Specifically, Hispanics and African-Americans do not appear to benefit as much as Whites from having authoritative parenting. And, although Asian-Americans tend to do well academically, they are least likely to have authoritative parents.
A student wants to memorize a speech to present at an assembly later in the week. Which of the following is likely to be least helpful to the student?
Select one:
A. paraphrasing the content of the speech
B. clarifying the key points in the speech
C. reviewing the way the speech is organized and why
D. reading the speech over and over aloud
Correct Answer is: D
Memory is a group of processes for acquiring, encoding, storing and retrieving information from our brain. The process of getting information into memory for storage is encoding. Semantic encoding involves meaningful organization. Research indicates the best memory retention and retrieval is for things we associate meaning to and store using semantic encoding. Short term memory (STM) is the term used to refer to the ability to access information in mind for a brief time. Information can be kept circulating in short term memory or working memory by rehearsing it; however once the repetition is stopped, the ability to recall the information may be lost quickly.
Unlike its predecessors, the WAIS-IV does not provide Verbal and Performance IQ scores. Consequently, to compare an examinee’s verbal and nonverbal skills, you would compare his or her scores on which Indexes?
Select one:
A. Working Memory and Processing Speed
B. Verbal Comprehension and Perceptual Reasoning
C. Perceptual Reasoning and Working Memory
D. Verbal Comprehension and Processing Speed
Correct Answer is: B
The Verbal Comprehension Index provides information on reasoning with orally presented verbal information, while the Perceptual Reasoning Index provides information on reasoning with visual nonverbal stimuli. Consequently, an examinee’s scores on these two Indexes are useful for comparing his or her verbal and nonverbal skills.
If you had a categorical variable and a continuous variable which of the following tests would you use? Select one: A. Point-biserial B. Eta C. Spearman Rho D. Tetrachoric
Correct Answer is: A
The point-biserial correlation is used with a continuous variable and one dichotomous (categorical).
Eta is used when there is a nonlinear relationship between variables. The Spearman Rho is a correlation coefficient used to correlate two variables that have been ordinally ranked. A tetrachoric coefficient is used when both variables are artiifiicially dichotomized.
The term "reminiscence bump" refers to the increased number of autobiographical memories older adults have for events that happened between the ages of: Select one: A. 40-50 B. 35-45 C. 25-35 D. 15-25
Correct Answer is: D
While adults 65 years and older generally report the most memories for events that occurred within the ten years before being evaluated, the next largest recall of autobiographical memories is from adolescence and early adulthood. In other words, recent and remote events are more frequently recalled than intermediate events.
According to Vygotsky, what has the greatest impact on the development of language? Select one: A. social relationships B. internal cognitive structures C. schemas D. scaffoldings
Correct Answer is: A
For Vygotsky, language is originally and primarily social. Thus a child’s language and cognitive processes are greatly influenced by his social relationships and culture. From these experiences the child formulates his language. This is in contrast to Piaget (“internal cognitive structures” and “schemas”) who believed that universal internal cognitive structures or schema developed first within the child, and then were influenced by his surroundings. “Scaffolding” is Vygotsky’s term for the assistance adults give to children to help them learn about the world.
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
Scales of Measurement
Data collected in research studies can be quantified according to four types, or four scales of measurement: nominal, ordinal, interval and ratio.
Nominal Data
A nominal scale of measurement divides a variable into unordered categories into which the data may fall. Categories such as “sex, “diagnostic category” and “hair color” are examples of nominal variables. Numbers may be assigned to nominal categories, but they are merely used as labels that could validly be replaced with names. For example, in a study in which the data is gender, number 1 could be assigned to male and number 2 to females. In such cases, it is clear that Category 2 is not any greater than or less than Category 1. In other words, the categories are not ordered, even though they are labeled with numbers.
Ordinal Data
Unlike a nominal scale, an ordinal scale provides information about the ordering of categories. In other words, an ordinal scale orders the amounts of the variable being measured so that we know that the individuals in Category 1 have less (or more) of the given attribute than the individuals in Category 2. However, we do not know anything about how much more or less of the attribute is possessed by the individuals in Category 2. Examples of ordinal scales include ranks (e.g., 1st best, 2nd best, 3rd best), win/place/show, high/moderate/low, and attitude scales that ask people to choose between “strongly agree,” “agree,” “neutral,” “disagree,” and “strongly disagree” in response to a statement. As you can see, in all of these cases, the data tell you how the categories are ordered, but they don’t indicate how much more or less one category is in relation to the others. For example, the amount of difference between the highest scorer and the second highest scorer on a test is not necessarily the same as the distance between the second and third highest scorer.
Interval Data
When numbers are scaled at equal distances, but the scale itself has no absolute zero point, the scale is termed interval. An absolute zero point means that the number “0” indicates a complete absence of the attribute being measured. Examples of interval scales include IQ scores as well as scores on most standardized tests. Another example would be temperature, as measured on a Fahrenheit or Celsius scale. In all these cases, a score of 0 is not absolute; e.g., a temperature of 0 degrees fahrenheit does not mean there is no heat. With interval scales, addition and subtraction can be performed, but multiplication and division cannot. For example, while a person with an IQ of 120 is 60 points higher than a person with an IQ of 60, it is not possible to say that the first person is twice as smart as the second. That’s because you can’t do multiplication or division when there’s no absolute zero point.
Ratio Data
Ratio scales are identical to interval scales, except they have an absolute zero point. Multiplication and division require a ratio scale. Examples of ratio data include dollar amounts; time as measured in seconds, minutes, or hours; measures of distance, height, weight; and frequency of behaviors per hour.
Kuder-Richardson reliability applies to Select one: A. split-half reliability. B. test-retest stability. C. Likert scales. D. tests with dichotomously scored questions.
Correct Answer is: D
The Kuder-Richardson formula is one of several statistical indices of a test’s internal consistency reliability. It is used to assess the inter-item consistency of tests that are dichotomously scored (e.g., scored as right or wrong).
J. Berry who view acculturation as a multidimensional construct would describe an integrated client as one who:
A. Has a low retention of the minority culture
B. Has high maintenance of the mainstream culture
C. Rejects the mainstream culture but has a high retention of the minority culture
D. Gets along with others in the workplace
B
Positive and negative life events are likely to have which of the following types of effect on a person's sense of satisfaction and well-being? A. Neither st or lt effects B. St but not lt effects C. Lt but not st effects D. both st and lt effects
b
According to Lenore Walker, which of the following best describes the dynamic that keeps battered women “hooked” into their relationship with the batterer?
A. Due to having grown up in an abusive family, the victim believes that battering is a normal part of relationships.
B. The costs of the abuse and benefits of remaining in the relationship are about equal.
C. The woman fears that the abuse will become even more severe if she tries to leave the relationship.
D. The woman lacks knowledge about the resources available to help her leave the relationships.
B
The purpose of rotation in factor analysis is to facilitate interpretation of the factors. Rotation:
A. Alters the factor loadings for each variable, but not the eigenvalue for each factor
B. Alts the eigenvalue for each factor but not the factor loadings for the variables
C. Alts the factor loadings for each variable and the eigenvalue for each factor
D. Does not alt the eigenvalue for each factor nor the factor loadings for the variables
c - in factor analysis, rotating the factors changes the factor loadings for the variables and eigenvalue for each factors, although the total of the eigenvalues remains the same
To determine whether or not the doctrine of comparable worth is lived up to in an organization, one would rely on: A. the perception of employees B. a job description C. a job evaluation D. a task analysis
c - DoCW states that workers should get = pay for performing jobs that have = worth.
By the time an individual dx w/___reaches middle age, particularly the 4th decade of life, the sx often become less evident or remit to no longer meeting dx criteria”
a. HPD
b. Avoidant PD
c. Antisocial PD
d. Schizo PD
C
The Solomon four-group design is:
a. a quasi-experimental design
b. used to analyze the different scores among 4 different tx groups
c. used to reduce practice effects
d. used to evaluate the effects of pretesting
D - is a true exp design used to evaluate the effects of pretesting, since some groups are pretested and others are not
A MANOVA is used to statistically analyze data when:
a. a study includes two or more IV
b. a study includes two or more DV
c. there are more than two levels of a single IV
d. a study includes at least one IV that is a btwn-groups variable and another IV that is a w/i-subjects variable
b - used to analyze the effects of one or more IV on two or more DV that are each measured on an interval or ratio scale
Larry P. v Riles is important bc:
a. defined the relationship between standard intellectual assessments and placement in retardation classes.
b. was the first time a court addressed bias in job selection in private industry
c. relates to how much information must be revealed to research participants
d. limited certain restraint of trade clauses in the AP Ethics Code, such as using pt testimonials
A - twas a CA case related to the use of standardized IQ test for assessing children…looked at validity of using these tests for this purpose.
An advantage of using a MANOVA over multiple one-way ANOVAs is that:
a. the use of a MANOVA reduces the experiment-wise error rate
b. a MANOVA can be used when the study involves more than one DV
c. a MANOCA is the more appropriate test when the researcher has an a priori hypotheses about the nature of the relationship between the IV and DV
d. a MANOVA involves simpler math calcs.
A - When a study involves 2+ DV, data can be analyzed with either multiple (one for each DV) statistical tests or one MANOCA. An advantage of the latter technique is that it reduces the probability that at least one Type 1 error (incorrect rejection of the null hypothesis) will be made. This is because the fewer statistical tests one conducts, the less likely it is that a Type 1 error will occur. In an experiment that involves more that one comparison, the probability of at least one Type 1 error is referred to as the experiement-wise error rate.
The major threat to internal validity of a time-series experiment would be:
a. maturation
b. selection
c. regression
d. history
D - time-serious design is when you take a number of measurements over time to get a longitudinal baseline trend, then somewhere along the line you introduce your experimental manipulation. If, following the manipulation, you see the trend change, you can infer that your intervention caused the change. No control over historical events.
The basic requirements of a token economy are:
Select one:
A. stimulus sensitization, choice of tokens, rate of exchange.
B. target behaviors, choice of reinforcers, rate of exchange.
C. goal setting, staff cooperation, choice of reinforcers.
D. target behaviors, choice of tokens, primary reinforcers.
Correct Answer is: B
To institute a token economy program, you need to know the behaviors you want to change (the target behaviors). You also need to know what is reinforcing for the client (choice of reinforcer). For a hospitalized schizophrenic, it might be walking around; for a child, it might be a candy treat. You also need to know the relationship between token and the reinforcer (rate of exchange); that is, how many tokens will purchase the reinforcer.
Failure to recognize one's functional deficits is referred to as: Select one: A. agnosia B. anosognosia C. apraxia D. receptive aphasia
Correct Answer is: B
Failure to recognize one’s functional deficits is referred to as anosognosia. It usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe.
Agnosia* is an inability to recognize objects. Apraxia* is a loss in ability to perform motor acts. And receptive aphasia, also known as Wernicke’s aphasia, is the loss of the ability to comprehend language, which also results in the production of inappropriate language ( incorrect options).
A college graduate is hired by a small firm and is promised bonuses and promotions based on his work performance. After working at the firm for two years, he has not received a bonus, raise, or promotion, despite the fact that he has regularly worked overtime and is generally recognized to be one of the firm's best workers by the other employees. From the perspective of expectancy theory, which of the following would be lowered in the man as a result of this experience? Select one: A. valence B. expectancy C. instrumentality D. idealism
Correct Answer is: C
According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of expectancy, valence, and instrumentality. Instrumentality refers to the degree to which performance leads to certain desired outcomes. In this situation, the man’s performance is not leading to promotions and bonuses; as a result, according to the theory, instrumentality and, as a result, motivation, would be lowered.
Valence refers to the importance of outcomes that follow from performance. In this situation, valence would be related to how much the man values promotions and bonuses. And expectancy refers to belief that effort will pay off in performance. In this situation, expectancy refers to the man’s belief that working hard would lead to good performance on the job.
A supervisor realizes that his employees are becoming less productive when working in a group. To avoid the effects of social loafing he should:
Select one:
A. provide clearly defined goals
B. require everyone to provide an equal amount of effort
C. make their jobs more challenging
D. offer the group a reward for meeting the company’s goal
Correct Answer is: C Social loafing often occurs when employees, particularly those in high-level positions, are evaluated based on a combined effort of the group, rather than for their individual contributions. It is also more likely to occur when tasks are simple and boring. Thus, to avoid social loafing an employer should insure that each employee's job is challenging and that they receive recognition for their individual efforts. This choice (providing clearly defined goals) is also a useful suggestion, but is more related to goal-setting theory than social loafing.
Members of a cohesive group, as compared to members of a non-cohesive group, are more likely to have: Select one: A. lower absenteeism B. lower productivity C. better decision-making D. higher turnover
Correct Answer is: A
Group cohesiveness has been associated with less absenteeism and turnover and, in some situations, greater productivity. You should have been able to eliminate this option (better decision-making) if you recalled the research on groupthink, which is characterized, in part, by high group cohesiveness, and is associated with poorer quality decisions.
To reduce a client's fear of cats, a behavioral psychologist has the client imagine approaching a cat and then, when anxiety occurs, pair that image with deep muscle relaxation. This technique is known as: Select one: A. covert sensitization. B. guided imagery. C. implosive therapy. D. reciprocal inhibition
Correct Answer is: D
You may have been looking for counterconditioning or systematic desensitization as the correct response. Both involve reducing anxiety by pairing it with relaxation or other incompatible response. This technique was originally described by Wolpe, who referred to it as reciprocal inhibition.
Which of the following is not typically involved in the implementation of a quality assurance program for a mental health service provider?
Select one:
A. identification of goals and objectives
B. comparison of different theoretical approaches
C. definition of criteria and standards
D. implementation of corrective recommendations
Correct Answer is: B
In the health fields, quality assurance is a planned and systematic approach to evaluating and monitoring care provided, in order to maintain current levels of care, find areas in which care can be improved, and take action to improve care. It includes both an evaluative and a control component, meaning that it involves both assessing the quality of care and taking steps to improve it or correct problems with it. In the mental health fields, experts have identified seven steps involved in implementing a quality assurance program: 1) identification of goals and objectives; 2) selection of interventions; 3) definition of criteria and standards; 4) provision of care; 5) evaluation of care; 6) comparison between practice and standards; and 7) implementation of remedial recommendations. A comparison of different theoretical approaches is typically not part of quality assurance.
The Cattell-Horn-Carroll (CHC) model of cognitive abilities can be used to interpret an examinee's scores on which of the following? Select one: A. PPVT-4 B. KABC-II C. Slosson Intelligence Test D. Columbia Mental Maturity Scale
Correct Answer is: B
The KABC-II is a measure of cognitive ability for children 3 through 18 years of age. Scores can interpreted on the basis of the CHC model of cognitive abilities or Luria’s neuropsychological processing model.
Patrick was elated, in a meeting with senior management, when he was told that the company president was impressed with his recent contributions. After he left the meeting and was alone in his office, however, Patrick started to experience feelings of anger. Which of the following best explains Patrick's circumstances? Select one: A. Model of Facet Satisfaction B. Opponent Process Theory C. The Vitamin Model D. Job Dissatisfaction Theory
Correct Answer is: B
Landy’s (1978) Opponent Process Theory of job satisfaction hypothesizes that job attitudes emanate from a person’s physiological state. Opponent process theory assumes that when a person experiences an extreme emotional state, his or her central nervous system mechanisms attempt to bring him or her back to a state of emotional equilibrium or neutrality. In returning to neutrality, the emotional state may even surpass equilibrium and progress to the opposite emotional state. In this case, Patrick initially felt elated when informed of the praise then when the positive emotional state waned over time it continued to the opposite emotional state of anger. (See: Landy, F. J. (1978). An opponent process theory of job satisfaction. Journal of Applied Psychology, 63, 533-547.)
Lawler’s (1973) Model of Facet Satisfaction* posits that job satisfaction is conceived in terms of different facets of an individual’s job; a compilation of feelings of satisfaction on an array of situational, biological, social and educational factors. Lawler’s model specifies that workers compare what their jobs should provide in terms of job facets to what they currently receive from their jobs. Examples of facets include: gender, age, race, work load, job security, working conditions, workplace location, supervisor-subordinate relations, status and prestige of job, compensation, etc. (See: Lawler, E.E. (1973), Motivation in Work Organizations, Brooks/Cole, Monterey CA.).
Warr’s (1987) Vitamin Model* of work and mental health suggests that certain features in the workplace act in much the same way as vitamins. The level and combination of stressors have an effect on well-being and as with vitamins, some of the features start to have a negative effect if they increase beyond a recommended daily dose. The nine proposed stressors include: opportunity for control, opportunity for skill use, externally generated goals, variety, environmental clarity, availability of money, physical security (freedom from physical threat or danger), opportunity for interpersonal contact and valued social position . There is substantial empirical support for the particular stressors identified by Warr as he developed the stressor content of his model by reviewing the empirical literature on workplace stressors. (See: Warr, P. (1987). Work, Unemployment, and Mental Health, Clarendon Press, Oxford.)
The job satisfaction/job dissatisfaction* theory is the basis of Herzberg’s concept of job satisfaction which distinguishes two separate groups of factors influencing individual job satisfaction and dissatisfaction (* incorrect choices). The first group, called “motivators,” leads to job satisfaction; the second group, called “hygienes,” leads to job dissatisfaction. Motivator or “intrinsic” factors of job satisfaction include achievement, recognition, the work itself, and the intrinsic interest of the job. Hygiene or “extrinsic” factors of the job include pay, job security, working conditions, policy and administration, and relationships with peers and supervisors.
Hypnosis involves three factors
Select one:
A. Absorption, regression, dissociation
B. Dissociation, absorption, suggestibility
C. Suggestibility, dissociation, regression
D. Regression, distortion, suggestibility
Correct Answer is: B
According to Hales, Yudofsky and Talbott, (1944), hypnosis involves three factors, 1) absorption, whereby the individual is completely engrossed in a central experience, 2) dissociation, whereby the ordinary functioning of consciousness and memory are altered in some way and 3) suggestibility, whereby individuals have a tendency to be less inhibited and restricted while in the trance-like state.
