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IP11 - Food Animal Medicine > Small Ruminants > Flashcards

Small Ruminants Flashcards

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1
Q

Sheep vs Goat: Grazing (grass, succulents)

A

Sheep

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2
Q

Sheep or Goat: Browsing (twigs, leaves)

A

Goat

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3
Q

Sheep or Goat: “lying in” newborn behavior

A

Sheep

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4
Q

Sheep or Goat: “lying out” newborn behavior

A

Goat

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5
Q

Sheep or goat: snort and stamp on foot and form a group for alarm

A

Sheep

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6
Q

Sheep or goat: sneeze and form a line when alarmed

A

Goat

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7
Q

Sheep or goat: tail hangs down

A

Sheep

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8
Q

Sheep or goat: tail stands up

A

Goat

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9
Q

Sheep or goat: presence of beard

A

Goat - in bucks and some does

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10
Q

Sheep or goat: presence of wattles

A

May be present in goats

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11
Q

Sheep or goat: presence of mane

A

Sheep - in hair rams

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12
Q

Sheep or goats: distinct philtrum

A

Sheep

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13
Q

Sheep or goats: fertile poll condition

A

Sheep (goats are usually sterile)

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14
Q

Age when first set of incisors are full grown (2 total)

A

1 year

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15
Q

Age when two sets of incisors full grown (4 total)

A

2 years

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16
Q

Age when 3 sets of incisors fully grown (6 total)

A

3 years

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17
Q

Age when four set of incisors fully grown (8 total)

A

4 years old

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18
Q

Ideal body condition score

A

3 - smooth rounded and slightly prominent verebtrae; loin muscle slightly full

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19
Q

Most common disease of hte urinary tract in goats:

A

Urolithiasis (do not drink enough water)

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20
Q

Contagious ecthyma is also called….

A

Orf, Soremouth

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21
Q

T/F: Orf is zoonotic.

A

True - so wear gloves!

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22
Q

Orf is a ____ virus.

A

parapox

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23
Q

How many stages of development does orf have?

A

6

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24
Q

Clinical signs of orf

A

Crusty proliferative lesions on the lips, nose, and gums

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25
Q

How long until Orf resolves on its own?

A

3-6 weeks

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26
Q

T/F: Morbidity and mortality are both high in orf.

A

False, morbidity is high, but mortality is very low!

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27
Q

Atypical orf has lesions that appear on areas of hte skin not normally affected, including:

A

Claws, around legs, front of face

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28
Q

In malignant orf, lesions extend down the ___ and ____ tracts, followed by _____ lesions and shedding of the hooves.

A

GI and respriatory; granulomatous

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29
Q

T/F: atypical and malignant manifestations of orf typically result in death.

A

False - atypical orf will resolve on its own ina few weeks, but malignant orf usually results in death

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30
Q

Prevention of orf

A

vaccination - vaccine made from scab

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31
Q

Etiology of contagious agalctia

A
  • Mycoplasma agalactia - sheep and goat
  • M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC - goat
  • M. carpicolum subsp. carpicolum - mostly goat
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32
Q

Contagious agalctia is spread through ___ and ____.

A

Milk and occular discharge

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33
Q

Three common clinical signs of contagious agalactia:

A

Mastitis, arthritis, conjunctivitis (may not see all three)

Classically: abrupt agalactia, with absecessation of mammary gland

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34
Q

Do antibiotics cure contagious agalactia?

A

No, only mitigate infection

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35
Q

Control method of contagious agalctia:

A

Milking hygeine, and biosecurity

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36
Q

Etiology of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia

A

Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae

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37
Q

Clinical signs of contagious carpine pleuropneumonia

A

Pleuropenumonia -> mouth-breathing and salivation - death within a few days

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38
Q

When you see clinical signs of contagious carpine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) including open mouth breathing, but other manifestations as well such as arthritis and mastitis, can we still conclude the infectious organism if M. capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae?

A

No! Most likely due to another mycopaslma organism

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39
Q

Etiology of infectious keratoconjunctivitis

A

Mycoplasma conjunctivae

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40
Q

Tx of infectious keratoconjunctivitis

A

Tetracycline - preferrably parenteral

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41
Q

Etiology of Eperythrozoonosis

A

Mycoplasma ovis

42
Q

clinical signs of eperythrozoonosis (acute vs chronic)

A

Acute - icteroanemia

Chronic - ill-thrift

43
Q

Treatment of eperythrozoonosis

A

Tetracycline - however will not clear infection entirely, will cause a negative on blood smears, but still positive on PCR; it will usually knock the infection down to a controllable state however

44
Q

Manifestation of M. carpicolum subsp. carpipneumonia

Species affected

Pathogenicity

A

Contagious carpine pleuropnumonia

Goat

High

45
Q

Manifestation of M. capricolum subsp capricolum

Species affected

Pathogenicity

A

Mastitis, arthritis

Goat mostly

High

46
Q

Manifestation of M. mycoides subsp. capri

Species affected

Pathogenicity

A

Pneumonia, arthritis, septicemia

Goat

Moderate

47
Q

Manifestation of M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC

Species affected

Pathogenicity

A

Penumonia, mastitis, arthritis, septicemia

Goat mostly

Moderate

48
Q

Manifestation of M. agalactiae

Species affected

Pathogenicity

A

Contagious agalactia

Sheep and Goats

High

49
Q

Manifestation of M. conjuctivae

Species affected

Pathogenecity

A

Infectious keratoconjunctivitis

Sheep and Goats

Mod-High

50
Q

Manifestation of M. ovis

Species affected

A

Hemolytic anemia

Sheep

51
Q

Carpine arthritis and encephalitis (CAE) virus is a ____ virus.

A

Lenti

52
Q

Four clinical manifestations of CAE:

A

Synovitis, Leukoencephalomyelitis, interstitial pneumonia, mastitis

53
Q

Age of CAE synovitis infection

A

> 6 months old

54
Q

Age and clinical signs of CAE - leukoencephalomyelitis infections

A

1-5 months old

CS: hindlimb ataxia –> parlaysis +/- ascending to forelimbs

55
Q

Age and clinical signs of CAE-interstitial pneumonia infection

A

Older goats

CS: progressive respriatory disease, weight loss, +/- polysynovitis

56
Q

Clinical signs of CAE mastitis:

A

Diffuse swelling

Mild - decreased milk production

Moderate - no milk production

57
Q

T/F: Positive test result for CAE on AGID, ELISA or PCR means that the animal is infected and infected for life.

A

True

58
Q

Treatment for CAE

A

None - should cull

59
Q

CAE is primary spread through ___ and ____ to nursing kids.

A

milk and colostrum

60
Q

Ideal prevnetion and control of CAE

A

Best option: Test and cull!

Other options: remove kids at birth, heat treat colostrum, feed milk replacer, disinfect equipment

61
Q

Ovine progresive pneumonia (OPP) is a ____ virus.

A

Lenti

62
Q

Age of susceptible sheep to OPP:

A

>2-3 years of age

63
Q

Clinical signs of OPP:

A

Progressive emaciation, progressive and debilitating penumonia

Hard bag = diffusely firm udder, scant milk production, but NO signs of infalmmation

64
Q

Do we see signs of infalmmation in the udder of OPP?

A

NO - only hard bag - firm udder

65
Q

Prevention and control of OPP:

A

Test and cull

66
Q

Are there separate tests for OPP and CAE?

A

No - just one test to test for lentivirus - run every 6 months and cull those that are positive

67
Q

Etiology of caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)

A

Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

68
Q

CS of CLA:

A

Caseation of the LN (internal and external) - leading to:

Swollen LNs, draining tract, and chronic weight loss

69
Q

Best tx for CLA

A

Cull

If client wants the animal to live, remove abscess or flush and pack the abscess, make sure that it does not contaminate the environment

70
Q

Diagnostic test for CLA

A

Serology - synergisic hemaglutin inhibition test (SHIT)

71
Q

Bluetongue is an ___ virus.

A

orbivirus

72
Q

Bluetongue is spread by biting insects, primarily _____ species.

A

Culicoides

73
Q

In bluetongue, which species are reservoirs and which are amplifying hosts?

A

Cattle are resrvoir, and sheep are amplifying hosts

74
Q

Clinical signs of bluetongue:

A

Severe fever lasting 5-6 days

48 hour after onset of fever: nasal discharge, reddening of bucal and nasal mucosa, edema of face, lips and jaw

Cyanosis of the tongue and mucous membranes

Erosion/sloughing of oral mucosa

ABortions in pregnant animals

75
Q

If you see oral lesions and sloughing, what is the first thing you should do?

A

Call the state vet!!!! B/c this can resemble FMD

76
Q

Tx and best prevention for bluetongue?

A

Supportive care, and vector control; vaccine is a hit-or-miss

77
Q

Border disease is a ____ virus.

A

Pesti

78
Q

In utero infection of border disease may result in:

A
  • Abortion in early gestation
  • Still birth
  • Persistently infected lambs in utero from days 21-72 (hairy shaker lambs)
  • Teratogenic effects from day 50-90 in utero (short limbs, domed head, thick trunks)
79
Q

The best prevention of border disease is to separate pregnant sheep during ___ gestation, becuase this is when they are most susctible ot the virus.

A

Early

80
Q

Etiology of footrot

A

Dichelobacter nodosus

and usually Fusobacterium necrophorum

81
Q

The source of footrot/transmission is:

A

Lesion discharge - highly contagious!

82
Q

Footrot clinical signs

A

Interdigital inflammation –> underrunning of soft horn –> unerrunning of hard horn

Severe lamemness, foul smell

83
Q

Primary tx for footrot:

A

Parenteral antibiotics

Then after Abs are given, anyone that is still lame should have their hooves trimmed aggressively

84
Q

What is often a precursor to footrot?

A

Foot scald

85
Q

Etiology of foot scald:

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

86
Q

Is foot scald contagious?

A

No!

87
Q

Clinical signs of foot scald:

A

Interdigital dermatitis - may involve heel bulbs, mild-moderate lameness

88
Q

Best control for foot scald:

A

Dry, clean pasture

89
Q

Etiology of strawberry footrot

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

90
Q

Where can D. congolensis be found?

A

Scabs and contaminated groun remain infective for a long period of time (summer - high morbidity)

91
Q

Clinical signs of strawberry footrot:

A

Proliferative dermatitis - deep scabs, but NO itching and NO lameness

92
Q

Tx for strawberry footrot:

A

Will self-heal in 5-6 weeks

93
Q

Clinical signs of endoparasitism

A

Death, anemia, weakness, lethargy, weight loss, decreased production

Diarrhea uncommon, except with coccidia organisms.

94
Q

Haemonchus contortus leads to ___

A

anemia

95
Q

What can you do to increase GI transit time of a dewormer?

A

restrict feed prior to administration

96
Q

In order to make sure the dewormer gets through the entire GIT, and not stuck in the rumen, what tool can you use to administer the drug?

A

Drenching gun/syringe

97
Q

T/F: farmers can rotate deworming agents within a grazing season.

A

False - will lead to resistant strains.

98
Q

To prevent further resistance, it is improtant to use one deworming agent until it is no longer effective. To render the drug as ineffective, we want to see less than ____% of egg reduction pre gram within the feces.

A

90

99
Q

We want to have ___ eggs in the feces before we turn new stock into an existing population.

A

ZERO

100
Q

What is the purpose of FAMACHA anemia guide?

A

Selects for natral resistance

Looks for the parasite Haemonchus - rates anemia based on 1-5 (1 being optimal, and 5 being fatal)

Will only treat animal if rated 4 or 5 - this will maintain the “refugia” - allowing for a small population of paraistes that have not been exposed to drugs before, limiting the amount of reistance that develops within the parasite population.

101
Q

When are the two best times to deworm:

A

Late pregnancy/early lactation due to immunocompromised individuals.

Youngstock - have never been exposed to parasites before

102
Q

Ideal weather conditions for parasites:

A

wet and warm

IP11 - Food Animal Medicine (10 decks)

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