Small Ruminants Flashcards
1
Q
Sheep vs Goat: Grazing (grass, succulents)
A
Sheep
2
Q
Sheep or Goat: Browsing (twigs, leaves)
A
Goat
3
Q
Sheep or Goat: “lying in” newborn behavior
A
Sheep
4
Q
Sheep or Goat: “lying out” newborn behavior
A
Goat
5
Q
Sheep or goat: snort and stamp on foot and form a group for alarm
A
Sheep
6
Q
Sheep or goat: sneeze and form a line when alarmed
A
Goat
7
Q
Sheep or goat: tail hangs down
A
Sheep
8
Q
Sheep or goat: tail stands up
A
Goat
9
Q
Sheep or goat: presence of beard
A
Goat - in bucks and some does
10
Q
Sheep or goat: presence of wattles
A
May be present in goats
11
Q
Sheep or goat: presence of mane
A
Sheep - in hair rams
12
Q
Sheep or goats: distinct philtrum
A
Sheep
13
Q
Sheep or goats: fertile poll condition
A
Sheep (goats are usually sterile)
14
Q
Age when first set of incisors are full grown (2 total)
A
1 year
15
Q
Age when two sets of incisors full grown (4 total)
A
2 years
16
Q
Age when 3 sets of incisors fully grown (6 total)
A
3 years
17
Q
Age when four set of incisors fully grown (8 total)
A
4 years old
18
Q
Ideal body condition score
A
3 - smooth rounded and slightly prominent verebtrae; loin muscle slightly full
19
Q
Most common disease of hte urinary tract in goats:
A
Urolithiasis (do not drink enough water)
20
Q
Contagious ecthyma is also called….
A
Orf, Soremouth
21
Q
T/F: Orf is zoonotic.
A
True - so wear gloves!
22
Q
Orf is a ____ virus.
A
parapox
23
Q
How many stages of development does orf have?
A
6
24
Q
Clinical signs of orf
A
Crusty proliferative lesions on the lips, nose, and gums
25
How long until Orf resolves on its own?
3-6 weeks
26
T/F: Morbidity and mortality are both high in orf.
False, morbidity is high, but mortality is very low!
27
Atypical orf has lesions that appear on areas of hte skin not normally affected, including:
Claws, around legs, front of face
28
In malignant orf, lesions extend down the ___ and ____ tracts, followed by _____ lesions and shedding of the hooves.
GI and respriatory; granulomatous
29
T/F: atypical and malignant manifestations of orf typically result in death.
False - atypical orf will resolve on its own ina few weeks, but malignant orf usually results in death
30
Prevention of orf
vaccination - vaccine made from scab
31
Etiology of contagious agalctia
* Mycoplasma agalactia - sheep and goat
* M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC - goat
* M. carpicolum subsp. carpicolum - mostly goat
32
Contagious agalctia is spread through ___ and \_\_\_\_.
Milk and occular discharge
33
Three common clinical signs of contagious agalactia:
Mastitis, arthritis, conjunctivitis (may not see all three)
Classically: abrupt agalactia, with absecessation of mammary gland
34
Do antibiotics cure contagious agalactia?
No, only mitigate infection
35
Control method of contagious agalctia:
Milking hygeine, and biosecurity
36
Etiology of contagious caprine pleuropneumonia
Mycoplasma capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae
37
Clinical signs of contagious carpine pleuropneumonia
Pleuropenumonia -\> mouth-breathing and salivation - death within a few days
38
When you see clinical signs of contagious carpine pleuropneumonia (CCPP) including open mouth breathing, but other manifestations as well such as arthritis and mastitis, can we still conclude the infectious organism if M. capricolum subsp. capripneumoniae?
No! Most likely due to another mycopaslma organism
39
Etiology of infectious keratoconjunctivitis
Mycoplasma conjunctivae
40
Tx of infectious keratoconjunctivitis
Tetracycline - preferrably parenteral
41
Etiology of Eperythrozoonosis
Mycoplasma ovis
42
clinical signs of eperythrozoonosis (acute vs chronic)
Acute - icteroanemia
Chronic - ill-thrift
43
Treatment of eperythrozoonosis
Tetracycline - however will not clear infection entirely, will cause a negative on blood smears, but still positive on PCR; it will usually knock the infection down to a controllable state however
44
Manifestation of M. carpicolum subsp. carpipneumonia
Species affected
Pathogenicity
Contagious carpine pleuropnumonia
Goat
High
45
Manifestation of M. capricolum subsp capricolum
Species affected
Pathogenicity
Mastitis, arthritis
Goat mostly
High
46
Manifestation of M. mycoides subsp. capri
Species affected
Pathogenicity
Pneumonia, arthritis, septicemia
Goat
Moderate
47
Manifestation of M. mycoides subsp. mycoides LC
Species affected
Pathogenicity
Penumonia, mastitis, arthritis, septicemia
Goat mostly
Moderate
48
Manifestation of M. agalactiae
Species affected
Pathogenicity
Contagious agalactia
Sheep and Goats
High
49
Manifestation of M. conjuctivae
Species affected
Pathogenecity
Infectious keratoconjunctivitis
Sheep and Goats
Mod-High
50
Manifestation of M. ovis
Species affected
Hemolytic anemia
Sheep
51
Carpine arthritis and encephalitis (CAE) virus is a ____ virus.
Lenti
52
Four clinical manifestations of CAE:
Synovitis, Leukoencephalomyelitis, interstitial pneumonia, mastitis
53
Age of CAE synovitis infection
\> 6 months old
54
Age and clinical signs of CAE - leukoencephalomyelitis infections
1-5 months old
CS: hindlimb ataxia --\> parlaysis +/- ascending to forelimbs
55
Age and clinical signs of CAE-interstitial pneumonia infection
Older goats
CS: progressive respriatory disease, weight loss, +/- polysynovitis
56
Clinical signs of CAE mastitis:
Diffuse swelling
Mild - decreased milk production
Moderate - no milk production
57
T/F: Positive test result for CAE on AGID, ELISA or PCR means that the animal is infected and infected for life.
True
58
Treatment for CAE
None - should cull
59
CAE is primary spread through ___ and ____ to nursing kids.
milk and colostrum
60
Ideal prevnetion and control of CAE
Best option: Test and cull!
Other options: remove kids at birth, heat treat colostrum, feed milk replacer, disinfect equipment
61
Ovine progresive pneumonia (OPP) is a ____ virus.
Lenti
62
Age of susceptible sheep to OPP:
\>2-3 years of age
63
Clinical signs of OPP:
Progressive emaciation, progressive and debilitating penumonia
Hard bag = diffusely firm udder, scant milk production, but NO signs of infalmmation
64
Do we see signs of infalmmation in the udder of OPP?
NO - only hard bag - firm udder
65
Prevention and control of OPP:
Test and cull
66
Are there separate tests for OPP and CAE?
No - just one test to test for lentivirus - run every 6 months and cull those that are positive
67
Etiology of caseous lymphadenitis (CLA)
Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
68
CS of CLA:
Caseation of the LN (internal and external) - leading to:
Swollen LNs, draining tract, and chronic weight loss
69
Best tx for CLA
Cull
If client wants the animal to live, remove abscess or flush and pack the abscess, make sure that it does not contaminate the environment
70
Diagnostic test for CLA
Serology - synergisic hemaglutin inhibition test (SHIT)
71
Bluetongue is an ___ virus.
orbivirus
72
Bluetongue is spread by biting insects, primarily _____ species.
Culicoides
73
In bluetongue, which species are reservoirs and which are amplifying hosts?
Cattle are resrvoir, and sheep are amplifying hosts
74
Clinical signs of bluetongue:
Severe fever lasting 5-6 days
48 hour after onset of fever: nasal discharge, reddening of bucal and nasal mucosa, edema of face, lips and jaw
Cyanosis of the tongue and mucous membranes
Erosion/sloughing of oral mucosa
ABortions in pregnant animals
75
If you see oral lesions and sloughing, what is the first thing you should do?
Call the state vet!!!! B/c this can resemble FMD
76
Tx and best prevention for bluetongue?
Supportive care, and vector control; vaccine is a hit-or-miss
77
Border disease is a ____ virus.
Pesti
78
In utero infection of border disease may result in:
* Abortion in early gestation
* Still birth
* Persistently infected lambs in utero from days 21-72 (hairy shaker lambs)
* Teratogenic effects from day 50-90 in utero (short limbs, domed head, thick trunks)
79
The best prevention of border disease is to separate pregnant sheep during ___ gestation, becuase this is when they are most susctible ot the virus.
Early
80
Etiology of footrot
Dichelobacter nodosus
and usually Fusobacterium necrophorum
81
The source of footrot/transmission is:
Lesion discharge - highly contagious!
82
Footrot clinical signs
Interdigital inflammation --\> underrunning of soft horn --\> unerrunning of hard horn
Severe lamemness, foul smell
83
Primary tx for footrot:
Parenteral antibiotics
Then after Abs are given, anyone that is still lame should have their hooves trimmed aggressively
84
What is often a precursor to footrot?
Foot scald
85
Etiology of foot scald:
Fusobacterium necrophorum
86
Is foot scald contagious?
No!
87
Clinical signs of foot scald:
Interdigital dermatitis - may involve heel bulbs, mild-moderate lameness
88
Best control for foot scald:
Dry, clean pasture
89
Etiology of strawberry footrot
Dermatophilus congolensis
90
Where can D. congolensis be found?
Scabs and contaminated groun remain infective for a long period of time (summer - high morbidity)
91
Clinical signs of strawberry footrot:
Proliferative dermatitis - deep scabs, but NO itching and NO lameness
92
Tx for strawberry footrot:
Will self-heal in 5-6 weeks
93
Clinical signs of endoparasitism
Death, anemia, weakness, lethargy, weight loss, decreased production
Diarrhea uncommon, except with coccidia organisms.
94
Haemonchus contortus leads to \_\_\_
anemia
95
What can you do to increase GI transit time of a dewormer?
restrict feed prior to administration
96
In order to make sure the dewormer gets through the entire GIT, and not stuck in the rumen, what tool can you use to administer the drug?
Drenching gun/syringe
97
T/F: farmers can rotate deworming agents within a grazing season.
False - will lead to resistant strains.
98
To prevent further resistance, it is improtant to use one deworming agent until it is no longer effective. To render the drug as ineffective, we want to see less than \_\_\_\_% of egg reduction pre gram within the feces.
90
99
We want to have ___ eggs in the feces before we turn new stock into an existing population.
ZERO
100
What is the purpose of FAMACHA anemia guide?
Selects for natral resistance
Looks for the parasite Haemonchus - rates anemia based on 1-5 (1 being optimal, and 5 being fatal)
Will only treat animal if rated 4 or 5 - this will maintain the "refugia" - allowing for a small population of paraistes that have not been exposed to drugs before, limiting the amount of reistance that develops within the parasite population.
101
When are the two best times to deworm:
Late pregnancy/early lactation due to immunocompromised individuals.
Youngstock - have never been exposed to parasites before
102
Ideal weather conditions for parasites:
wet and warm
