Slides 18 Flashcards

1
Q

What is a market?

A

A market is a group of buyers and sellers that exchange payment for goods or services.

Value is created for both the buyer (satisfying a need) and the seller (earning revenue).

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2
Q

What are the three factors of market segmentation?

A

Market segmentation can be divided into:
* Geographic
* Demographic
* Psychographic

These factors help identify specific needs and problems of individuals.

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3
Q

What is the significance of geographic location in market segmentation?

A

Needs and problems may vary between or be specific to geographic locations.

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4
Q

What demographic factors are considered in market segmentation?

A

Demographic factors include:
* Age
* Gender
* Income level
* Education

Different people encounter different needs and problems at different life stages.

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5
Q

What is psychographic segmentation?

A

Psychographic segmentation considers individual values and interests that drive consumers’ needs and wants.

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6
Q

How do you identify a competitive market?

A

Identify a competitive market by looking at how consumers are solving a problem, rather than product similarities.

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7
Q

What criteria do antitrust regulators use to identify a competitive market?

A

Antitrust regulators identify competitors based on pricing criteria and whether a merger would lead to a significant increase in price.

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8
Q

What is the definition of Net Profit Margin?

A

Net Profit Margin is a financial metric that shows the percentage of revenue remaining after all expenses have been deducted.

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9
Q

What is Return on Assets (ROA)?

A

Return on Assets (ROA) measures a company’s profitability relative to its total assets.

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10
Q

What does Asset Utilization refer to?

A

Asset Utilization refers to how effectively a company uses its assets to generate revenue.

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11
Q

What is the Asset Turnover Ratio?

A

The Asset Turnover Ratio measures the efficiency of a company’s use of its assets in generating sales revenue.

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12
Q

What is the Average Cost per Unit?

A

Average Cost per Unit is calculated by dividing total production costs by the number of units produced.

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13
Q

What is the Contribution Margin?

A

Contribution Margin is the difference between sales revenue and variable costs.

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14
Q

What is the Break-Even Point in Revenue?

A

The Break-Even Point in Revenue is the amount of revenue needed to cover total costs.

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15
Q

What is the Break-Even Point in Units?

A

The Break-Even Point in Units is the number of units that must be sold to cover total costs.

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16
Q

What is the expected life of the investment for Plants A, B, and C?

A

The expected life of the investment is 25 years.

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17
Q

True or False: The maximum capacity of Plant A is 2,500,000 units.

A

True.

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18
Q

True or False: The direct labor cost for Plant B is higher than for Plant A.

A

False.

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19
Q

What is the annual maintenance cost for Plant C?

A

The annual maintenance cost for Plant C is €7,300,000.

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20
Q

What is the direct materials cost for the supplier’s component parts in Plant C?

A

The direct materials cost for the supplier’s component parts in Plant C is €30.00.

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21
Q

In the context of competition, what does SSNIP stand for?

A

SSNIP stands for Small but Significant Nontransitory Increase in Price.

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22
Q

What was the outcome of Facebook’s acquisition of Instagram in 2012?

A

The government allowed the merger because the combined company would lack dominant market share in the ‘personal social networking’ market.

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23
Q

What was the government’s concern regarding the merger between DirecTV and DISH in 2002?

A

The government believed it would create a monopoly for rural consumers who had no other options.

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24
Q

In 2024, why did the government allow the merger between DirecTV and DISH?

A

Because these companies were now competing with online video streaming services, reducing the risk of a television monopoly.

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25
Q

What is the primary focus of the upcoming lectures?

A

The focus is on where firms compete and with whom, as well as how they compete against each other.

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26
Q

What do Siemens and Alstom represent in the context of European rail manufacturers?

A

They are Europe’s two largest rail manufacturers.

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27
Q

What was the EU Commission’s focus regarding the merger of Siemens and Alstom?

A

The EU Commission focused on Siemens and Alstom’s share in Europe.

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28
Q

Did the EU allow the merger between Siemens and Alstom?

A

No.

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29
Q

What did regulators consider when evaluating Six Flags and Cedar Fair?

A

Regulators considered the market for family entertainment.

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30
Q

Are Six Flags and Cedar Fair considered direct competitors?

A

No, they did not compete in the same city.

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31
Q

What is a competitor?

A

Firms whose strategic choices impact one another.

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32
Q

What are product performance characteristics?

A

What my product does for consumers and if there are similarly performing products.

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33
Q

What does the geographic market refer to?

A

Are there other similar products being sold in the same location?

34
Q

Define direct competition.

A

Direct competitors operate within the same industry and offer similar products or services.

35
Q

What is an example of direct competition?

A

Uber vs. Lyft vs. FreeNow.

36
Q

What defines indirect competition?

A

Products that are fundamentally different but satisfy a similar need.

37
Q

What is an example of indirect competition?

A

Different products that can satisfy thirst, such as water, soda, and beer.

38
Q

True or False: Orange juice is a competitor for beer.

39
Q

What is diversion analysis?

A

Asking customers to identify their ‘second choice’ to identify direct competitors.

40
Q

What is a catchment area?

A

The locations where a firm receives most of its customers.

41
Q

Define market structure.

A

The number of individual firms and the distribution of firms in a market.

42
Q

What does a lower Herfindahl Index indicate?

A

More perfect competition.

43
Q

What is perfect competition?

A

Occurs when there are many producers selling easily substitutable products.

44
Q

What are the necessary conditions for perfect competition?

A

Many sellers, perceived product homogeneity, and excess capacity.

45
Q

Provide an example of perfect competition.

A

Agriculture with many farmers producing similar crops.

46
Q

Define monopolistic competition.

A

A market with many sellers and buyers where products are differentiated.

47
Q

What is monopoly power?

A

The ability to act in an unconstrained way, such as increasing price or reducing quality.

48
Q

What happens to demand as a monopolist raises prices?

A

Demand decreases.

49
Q

How do monopolies determine their prices?

A

By producing the quantity where Marginal Revenue equals Marginal Cost.

50
Q

What is the primary goal of monopolists regarding pricing?

A

To maximize their own profit.

51
Q

True or False: Monopolists can price discriminate.

52
Q

What is the typical outcome of monopolistic markets for consumers?

A

Higher prices and lower available supply.

53
Q

What condition must be met to determine the production quantity in a monopoly?

A

Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost.

54
Q

What Herfindahl score indicates a monopoly?

55
Q

Provide an example of a monopoly.

56
Q

What percentage of the world’s diamond mines does De Beers control?

57
Q

What strategy does De Beers use to maximize profits?

A

Purposefully limits the supply of diamonds.

58
Q

What are the barriers to entry in diamond mining?

A

Incredibly high barriers; all diamond mines are already owned.

59
Q

What is the impact of lab-grown diamonds on De Beers?

A

They are cutting into De Beers’ market share.

60
Q

Define oligopoly.

A

Markets with only a few sellers.

61
Q

What is the typical Herfindahl score for an oligopoly?

A

0.2 < Oligopoly < 0.6.

62
Q

What is a common characteristic of firms in an oligopoly?

A

They are highly aware of each other’s actions.

63
Q

What is the profit comparison of an oligopoly to other market structures?

A

Greater than perfect or monopolistic competition, but lower than a monopoly.

64
Q

Provide an example of an oligopoly.

A

Telecommunications Industry.

65
Q

What keeps competitors out of the telecommunications market?

A

High capitalization costs.

66
Q

What is Cournot Quantity Competition?

A

A model simulating a duopoly selling homogenous products.

67
Q

What occurs at a Cournot-Nash Equilibrium?

A

Each firm’s output decision is the best response to the other’s output.

68
Q

What is the Revenue Destruction Effect in Cournot competition?

A

The combined output of both firms determines the market price.

69
Q

Provide an example of Cournot competition.

A

Global Oil Production.

70
Q

What is the role of OPEC in oil production?

A

They coordinate on yearly production to maintain high prices.

71
Q

What does the Bertrand Price Competition model emphasize?

A

Firms compete on price.

72
Q

In the Bertrand model, what happens if prices are the same?

A

Companies will split demand 50/50.

73
Q

What is the outcome when a firm lowers its price in the Bertrand model?

A

It captures 100% of the market.

74
Q

What drives firms to reduce prices in the Bertrand model?

A

To reach Price = Marginal Cost.

75
Q

What distinguishes Cournot from Bertrand competition?

A

Cournot focuses on capacity while Bertrand focuses on price.

76
Q

In Cournot competition, firms are ______ constrained.

77
Q

In Bertrand competition, firms can service the entire market without being ______ constrained.

78
Q

What strategy can firms use to avoid Bertrand Price competition?

A

Diversifying their products horizontally.

79
Q

What happens to prices when the number of firms increases in a market with undifferentiated products?

A

Prices decrease and the number of units sold increases.

80
Q

What is the result of a reduction in the number of firms operating?

A

Price increases.