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Anatomy & Physiology 1 > Skeletal System > Flashcards

Skeletal System Flashcards

1
Q

Reference terms for “bone”

A

os-
osteo-

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2
Q

the process of osteoblasts hardening the matrix of bone due to the infiltration of calcium and phosphate

A

Ossification

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3
Q

List the 5 functions of bones

A
  1. Support
  2. Protection
  3. Leverage
  4. Storage - minerals
  5. Hematopoiesis
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4
Q

the formation of blood cells

A

Hematopoiesis

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5
Q

Calcium homeostasis is controlled by what 2 hormones? Where are they produced? What do they prevent?

A
  1. Calcitonin > thyroid gland > hypercalcemia
  2. Parathyroid Hormone > parathyroid gland > hypocalcemia
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6
Q

a calcitropic hormone produced in the thyroid gland that prevents hypercalcemia

A

Calcitonin

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7
Q

a calcitropic hormone that prevents hypocalcemia

A

Parathyroid Hormone

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8
Q

the condition in which there is too much calcium in the blood

A

Hypercalcemia

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9
Q

the condition in which there is not enough calcium in the blood

A

Hypocalcemia

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10
Q

How do calcitonin and parathyroid hormone control calcium homeostasis?

A
  1. Calcitonin > encourages osteoblasts to deposit calcium into the bones + inhibits osteoclasts
  2. Parathyroid Hormone > encourages osteoclasts to withdraw calcium from bones + inhibits osteoblasts
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11
Q

consists of tiny spicules of bone and the bone-marrow-filled spaces between them that are arranged in a way that allows the bone to stand up to the forces it’s subjected to

A

Cancellous Bone

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12
Q

consists of Haversian systems and makes up the shafts of long bones and the outside layer of all bones

A

Compact Bone

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13
Q

the vascular membrane that covers the outer surface of bones (NOT articular surfaces) and is involved in the healing of bone fractures

A

Periosteum

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14
Q

the membrane that lines the hollow inner surfaces of bones

A

Endosteum

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15
Q

cells responsible for secreting the material that forms and ossifies bones

A

Osteoblasts

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16
Q

mature bone cells that get trapped in the lacunae of the hardened matrix after ossification

A

Osteocytes

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17
Q

cells involved in the breakdown of bones and the calcium withdraw needed during hypocalcemia

A

Osteoclasts

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18
Q

central channel in the shafts of long bones that contain blood vessels, lymph vessels, and nerves that supply the osteocytes with nutrients

A

Haversian Canal

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19
Q

channels in the bone matrix that come in perpendicular to the long axis of the bone and contain blood vessels for the osteocytes

A

Volkmann’s Canals

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20
Q

tiny, threadlike channels that provide blood supply to osteocytes within bone lacunae

A

Canaliculi

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21
Q

Layers of bone

A

Lamellae (sg. Lamella)

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22
Q

the process of bone formation that begins with the creation of a cartilage rods in the developing fetus that are subsequently replaced by bone

A

Endochondral Bone Formation

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23
Q

the diaphysis of the cartilage rod where bone begins developing and the growth center expands as cartilage is gradually removed

A

Primary Growth Center

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24
Q

the shaft of a long bone

A

Diaphysis

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25
Q

develop in the epiphyses of the long bone

A

Secondary Growth Center

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26
Q

the end of a long bone

A

Epiphysis

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27
Q

2 plates of cartilage, located between the diaphysis and the epiphyses of long bones, that are the sites of new bone formation and allow the bones to lengthen as the animal grows

A

Epiphyseal Plates (Growth Plates)

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28
Q

the process of bone forming in the fibrous tissue membranes that cover the brain in the developing fetus and creates the flat bones of the cranium

A

Intramembranous Bone Formation

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29
Q

Bone Shapes:
bones that make up most limbs

A

Long Bones

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30
Q

Bone Shapes:
bones shaped like small cubes that consist of a cancellous bone core and a thin outer layer of compact bone

A

Short Bones

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31
Q

Bone Shapes:
thin bones that consist of 2 outer plates of compact bone and 1 inner layer of cancellous bone

A

Flat Bones

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32
Q

Bone Shapes:
bones that either have characteristics of more than one of the other categories or don’t fit any at all

A

Irregular Bones

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33
Q

Give 3 examples of irregular bones

A
  1. Sesamoid bones
  2. Vertebrae
  3. Patella
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34
Q

the alignment of fractured bone fragments

A

Reducing (Setting)

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35
Q

immobilizing the fracture after reducing

A

Fixation

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36
Q

a blood clot at the site of a bone fracture

A

Fracture Hematoma

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37
Q

Give 2 examples of external fixation devices and 4 internal

A

External
1. Splints
2. Casts
Internal
1. Pins
2. Wires
3. Screws
4. Plates

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38
Q

healing tissue formed by osteoblasts that gradually bridges a fracture gap and can be felt as a lump at the fracture site

A

Bone Callus

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39
Q

hematopoietic tissue that makes up the majority of bone marrow in young animals but only a small portion of marrow in older animals

A

Red Bone Marrow

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40
Q

Where is red bone marrow found in older animals? Give 3 locations

A
  1. Ends of some long bones
  2. Interior of pelvic bones
  3. Interior of sternum
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41
Q

adipose tissue that is the most common type of marrow in adult animals and can revert to the other type of bone marrow if the body needs it

A

Yellow Bone Marrow

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42
Q

smooth areas of compact bone where bones come in contact with each other to form joints

A

Articular Surfaces

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43
Q

a smooth, thin layer of hyaline cartilage that covers articular surfaces and reduces friction in joints

A

Articular Cartilage

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44
Q

a large, round end of a bone that articulates with another bone

A

Condyle

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45
Q

Where are the 3 major condyles?

A
  1. Distal end of the humerus
  2. Distal end of the femur
  3. Occipital bone
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46
Q

the rounded articular surface on the proximal end of long bones such as the humerus, femur, and ribs

A

Head

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47
Q

the narrowed region of the diaphysis of the bone that connects to the head

A

Neck

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48
Q

a flat articular surface whose joint movement is a rocking motion

A

Facet

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49
Q

various projections and bumps on a bone where tendons of muscles attach whose names vary based on location

A

Processes

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50
Q

What does the size of the process indicate?

A

The larger the process > the more powerful the muscular pull is on that area of the bone

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51
Q

a natural opening in a bone that usually allows nerves or blood vessels to pass through

A

Foramen (pl. Foramina)

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52
Q

a depressed area on the surface of a bone that are usually occupied by muscles or tendons

A

Fossa

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53
Q

What are the 3 main skeleton groups and what do they include?

A
  1. Axial Skeleton - bones of head and trunk
  2. Appendicular Skeleton - bones of limbs
  3. Visceral Skeleton - bones formed in some soft organs of some species
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54
Q

jagged, immovable, fibrous joints of skull bones

A

Sutures

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55
Q

List the 3 regions of bones in the skull

A
  1. Bones of Cranium
  2. Bones of the Ear
  3. Bones of the Face
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56
Q

the portion of the skull that surrounds the brain

A

Cranium

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57
Q

List the 5 external bones of the cranium

A
  1. Occipital Bone
  2. Interparietal Bones
  3. Parietal Bones
  4. Temporal Bones
  5. Frontal Bones
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58
Q

the caudoventral portion of the skull where the spinal cord exits the skull and is the skull bone that articulates with the first cervical vertebra

A

Occipital Bone

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59
Q

the large hole in the center of the occipital bone where the spinal cord exits the skull

A

Foramen Magnum

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60
Q

the articular surfaces on either side of the foramen magnum that form the atlantooccipital joint with the first cervical vertebra

A

Occipital Condyles

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61
Q

forms a joint

A

Articulates

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62
Q

2 small bones located on the dorsal midline between the occipital bone and parietal bones that are clearly visible in young animals, but fuse in older animals

A

Interparietal Bones

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63
Q

2 bones that form the dorsolateral walls of the cranium

A

Parietal Bones

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64
Q

2 bones that form the lateral walls of the cranium, contain the middle and inner ear structures, and are the skull bones that form that TMJ joints with the mandible

A

Temporal Bones

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65
Q

the junction of the mandible and the temporal bones

A

Temporomandibular Joints (TMJ)

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66
Q

the bony canal that leads into the middle and inner ear cavities and is the only ear structure that is visible from the outside

A

External Acoustic Meatus

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67
Q

bones that form the rostrolateral portion of the cranium and a portion of the orbit

A

Frontal Bones

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68
Q

the concave socket that holds the eye

A

Orbit

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69
Q

a paranasal sinus within the frontal bone that communicates with the cornual process in horned breeds of cattle

A

Frontal Sinus

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70
Q

What are the 2 internal bones of the cranium?

A
  1. Sphenoid Bone
  2. Ethmoid Bone
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71
Q

a single bone located rostral to the occipital bone that forms the ventral part of the cranium, contains the pituitary fossa, and is shaped like a bat

A

Sphenoid Bone

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72
Q

a depression in the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland

A

Pituitary Fossa

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73
Q

a paranasal sinus within the sphenoid bone of most animals

A

Sphenoid Sinus

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74
Q

a single bone located rostral to the sphenoid bone that contains a cribriform plate

A

Ethmoid Bone

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75
Q

a sieve-like passage through which the branches of the olfactory nerve pass from the upper portion of the nasal cavity to the olfactory bulbs of the brain

A

Cribriform Plate

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76
Q

a paranasal sinus located in the ethmoid bone that is small in humans and horses

A

Ethmoidal Sinus

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77
Q

the 3 bones of the middle ear that transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane across the middle ear cavity to the cochlea

A

Ossicles

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78
Q

the eardrum

A

Tympanic Membrane

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79
Q

the region of the inner ear where hearing receptor cells convert vibrations to nerve impulses that are interpreted by the brain as sound

A

Cochlea

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80
Q

What are the 3 ossicles?

A
  1. Malleus
  2. Incus
  3. Stapes
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81
Q

the outermost ossicle

A

Malleus

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82
Q

the middle ossicle

A

Incus

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83
Q

the innermost ossicle

A

Stapes

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84
Q

List the 6 external bones of the face

A
  1. Incisive Bones (premaxillary bones)
  2. Nasal Bones
  3. Maxillary Bones
  4. Lacrimal Bones
  5. Zygomatic Bones
  6. Mandible
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85
Q

the 2 most rostral skull bones that house the upper incisor teeth of all common domestic animals (except ruminants)

A

Incisive Bones

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86
Q

What do ruminants have instead of upper incisors?

A

Hard dental pad

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87
Q

the 2 bones forming the dorsal part of the nasal cavity whose size and shape are dependent on the shape of the face of the species and breed

A

Nasal Bones

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88
Q

breeds with long, thin nasal bones and long faces

A

Dolichocephalic

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89
Q

breeds with short, triangular nasal bones and short faces

A

Brachycelphalic

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90
Q

the 2 bones that make up most of the upper jaw and house the upper canine and all of the upper cheek teeth

A

Maxillary Bones

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91
Q

the bony separation between the mouth and the nasal cavity formed by the maxillary bones and the palatine bones

A

Hard Palate

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92
Q

What makes up the rostral and caudal portions of the hard palate?

A

Rostral > maxillary bones
Caudal > palatine bones

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93
Q

2 small bones that form part of the medial portion of the orbit and contain a space to house part of the tear drainage system of the eye

A

Lacrimal Bones

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94
Q

part of the tear drainage system of the eye located in spaces within each _____ bone

A

Lacrimal Sac

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95
Q

2 bones that form a portion of the orbit and join with processes of the temporal bones

A

Zygomatic Bones

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96
Q

The caudal-facing temporal process of zygomatic bone + rostral facing zygomatic process of the temporal bone

A

Zygomatic Arches

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97
Q

the only moveable skull bone that forms the TMJ with the temporal bones on each side and houses all the lower teeth

A

Mandible

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98
Q

What are the 2 regions of the mandible called?

A
  1. Shaft
  2. Ramus
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99
Q

the horizontal portion of the mandible that houses all the teeth

A

Shaft

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100
Q

the vertical portion of the mandible where the jaw muscles attach and where the articular condyles that form the TMJs with the temporal bones are located

A

Ramus

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101
Q

The mandible is how many bones in cattle, horses, cats, swine, and dogs?

A

Horses + Swine > 1 bone
Dogs + Cats + Cattle > 2 bones

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102
Q

a cartilaginous joint between the rostral end of the mandibles of certain species

A

Mandibular Symphysis

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103
Q

the separation of the mandibles at the mandibular symphysis due to blunt-force trauma and is the most common type of mandibular fracture in dogs and cats

A

Mandibular Symphyseal Fracture

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104
Q

List the 4 internal bones of the face

A
  1. Palatine Bones
  2. Pterygoid Bones
  3. Vomer Bones
  4. Turbinates
105
Q

the caudal portion of the hard palate

A

Palatine Bones

106
Q

the 2 small bones that support part of the lateral walls of the pharynx

A

Pterygoid Bones

107
Q

a single bone located on the midline of the skull and forms part of the nasal septum

A

Vomer Bone

108
Q

4 thin, scroll-like bones that fill most of the space in the nasal cavity and are covered in moist, vascular soft tissue

A

Turbinates

109
Q

the bone and cartilage that help the animal swallow by supporting the base of the tongue, the pharynx and larynx and is shaped like a U

A

Hyoid Bone

110
Q

the usual numbers of vertebrae within each region of the spinal column

A

Vertebral Formulas

111
Q

the main, strongest, and most massive portion of a vertebra

A

Body

112
Q

fibrocartilage shock-absorbers that separate adjacent vertebrae

A

Intervertebral Discs

113
Q

a hollow arch located dorsal to the vertebrae bodies

A

Neural Arch

114
Q

single, dorsally projecting processes of a vertebra that act as sites for muscle attachment and provide leverage to move the spine and trunk

A

Spinous Processes

115
Q

the 2 laterally projecting processes of a vertebra that act as sites for muscle attachment and provide leverage to move the spine and trunk

A

Transverse Processes

116
Q

the processes at the cranial and caudal ends of the vertebral arches that help form joints between adjacent vertebrae

A

Articular Processes

117
Q

What is C1 called?

A

Atlas

118
Q

the 2 large, winglike transverse processes that can be palpated just behind the skulls of most animals

A

Wings of Atlas

119
Q

What is C2 called?

A

Axis

120
Q

a peg-like process that fits into the caudal end of the atlas

A

Dens

121
Q

the joint between the C1 and C2

A

Atlantoaxial Joint

122
Q

the condition the results when 1 or more discs of the spinal column degenerate and normal mechanical forces on the spine push degenerated disc material into the spinal column

A

Intervertebral Disc Disease

123
Q

What are 4 clinical signs of Intervertebral Disc Disease and what breed of dog is it common in?

A
  1. Pain
  2. Numbness
  3. Weakness
  4. Paralysis

Long-backed dogs

124
Q

disc disease of the midback

A

Paresis

125
Q

What are the biggest bones in the spinal column?

A

Lumbar Vertebrae

126
Q

the structure formed from the fused sacral vertebrae

A

Sacrum

127
Q

the joints between the sacrum and the pelvis

A

Sacroiliac Joint

128
Q

the bones of the tail

A

Coccygeal Vertebrae (Cy)

129
Q

a condition caused by the narrowing of the spinal canal in the cervical region and results in the compression of the spinal cord and an unstable gait

A

Wobbler Syndrome

130
Q

What is the difference between Malformations and Malarticulations?

A

Malformations = physical abnormalities

Malarticulations = improper joints

131
Q

weakness and incoordination

A

Ataxia

132
Q

the vertebra used as a landmark in spinal radiographs due to its vertically projecting spinous processes that are unlike those of the surrounding vertebrae

A

Anticlinal Vertebra

133
Q

What is the anticlinal vertebra in the following species?
1. Dogs
2. Cats
3. Horses
4. Cattle
5. Sheep
6. Swine

A
  1. Dogs - T11
  2. Cats - T11
  3. Horses - T16
  4. Cattle - T13
  5. Sheep - T13
  6. Swine - T10
134
Q

Which direction do the spinous processes of the following vertebrae project?
1. 1st set of T
2. Anticlinal Vertebrae
3. 2nd set of T

A
  1. 1st set of T > recline caudally
  2. Anticlinal Vertebrae > stick straight up
  3. 2nd set of T > incline cranially
135
Q

flat bones that form the lateral walls of the thorax

A

Ribs

136
Q

term for rib

A

Costal

137
Q

the cartilaginous part of the ribs

A

Costal Cartilage

138
Q

the junction of the bony and cartilaginous parts of the ribs

A

Costochondral Junction

139
Q

List the 3 types of ribs

A
  1. Sternal Ribs
  2. Asternal Ribs
  3. Floating Ribs
140
Q

ribs whose cartilages join the sternum and make up the cranial part of the thorax

A

Sternal Ribs

141
Q

ribs whose cartilages join the adjacent costal cartilage and make up the caudal part of the thorax

A

Asternal Ribs

142
Q

the ribs whose cartilages may end in the muscles of the thoracic wall or join nothing at all

A

Floating Ribs

142
Q

the floor of the thorax made up of a series of rod-like bones

A

Sternum

143
Q

the numbered rod-like bones that make up the sternum

A

Sternebrae

144
Q

the first, most cranial sternebra

A

Manubrium

145
Q

the last, most caudal sternebra

A

Xiphoid Process

146
Q

a easily palpable piece of cartilage that extends from the caudal end of the sternum

A

Xiphoid Cartilage

147
Q

front legs with regard to the appendicular skeleton that have no direct, bony connection to the axial skeleton of all animals that are non-primates

A

Thoracic Limbs

148
Q

the flat, somewhat triangular bone with a prominent, longitudinal ridge on its lateral surface and forms the socket portion of the shoulder joint at its distal end

A

Scapula

149
Q

the articular surface of the scapula that forms the socket of the shoulder joint

A

Glenoid Cavity

150
Q

the prominent, longitudinal ridge on the lateral surface of the scapula

A

Spine

151
Q

the grooves on the cranial side of the scapular spine

A

Supraspinous Fossa

152
Q

the grooves on the caudal side of the scapular spine

A

Infraspinous Fossa

153
Q

List the 7 components of Thoracic Limbs

A
  1. Scapula
  2. Humerus
  3. Ulna
  4. Radius
  5. Carpus
  6. Metacarpal Bones
  7. Phalanges
154
Q

the long bone of the brachium

A

Humerus

155
Q

the upper arm

A

Brachium

156
Q

processes on the proximal end of the humerus where the shoulder muscles attach

A

Greater + Lesser Tubercles

157
Q

the proximal end of the humerus that forms the ball portion of the shoulder joint

A

Humeral Head

158
Q

distal articular surfaces of the humerus

A

Humeral Condyles

159
Q

the medial articular surface of the humerus that articulates with the ulna

A

Medial Trochlea

160
Q

the non-articular “knobs” on the medial surfaces of the humerus condyle that can be easily palpated to be used as landmarks on living animals

A

Medial Epichondyle

161
Q

the lateral articular surface of the humerus that articulates with the radius

A

Lateral Capitulum

162
Q

the non-articular “knobs” on the lateral surfaces of the humerus condyle that can be easily palpated to be used as landmarks on living animals

A

Lateral Epicondyle

163
Q

the deep indentation on the back surface of the humerus just above the condyle that forms part of the elbow

A

Olecranon Fossa

164
Q

one of the long bones of the antebrachium that forms a major portion of the elbow joint with the distal end of the humerus

A

Ulna

165
Q

the forearm

A

Antebrachium

166
Q

the large process at the proximal end of the ulna where the tendon of the triceps brachii muscle attaches

A

Olecranon Process

167
Q

the half-moon shaped and proximal articular surface of the ulna that wraps around part of the humeral condyle to help make the elbow joint tight and secure

A

Trochlear Notch

168
Q

the beak-shaped process at the proximal end of the trochlear notch that tucks into the olecranon fossa when the elbow is extended into a straightened position

A

Anconeal Process

169
Q

the processes located on the medial and lateral sides of the horizontal, concave facet at the proximal end of the ulna that articulates with the radius

A

Coronoid Processes

170
Q

the pointed processes at the distal ends of the ulna and radius that articulate with the carpus

A

Styloid Process

171
Q

one of the long bones of the antebrachium and is the main weight-bearing bone in the antebrachium

A

Radius

172
Q

2 parallel proximal and distal rows of short bones that are considered the knee in horses and cattle

A

Carpus

173
Q

How are the carpus and tarsus bones indentified?

A
  1. Proximal Rows - individual names
  2. Distal Rows - numbered medially > laterally
174
Q

All common species have what 3 carpal bones?

A
  1. Radial Carpus
  2. Ulnar Carpus
  3. Accessory Carpus
175
Q

bones that extend distally from the distal row of carpal/tarsal bones to the proximal phalanges of the digits

A

Metacarpals + Metatarsals

176
Q

What determines the appearance of the metacarpals and metatarsals?

A

The kind of foot the animal has

177
Q

How many digits are on the thoracic limbs of:
1. Horses
2. Cattle
3. Dogs + Cats

A
  1. Horses > 1 digit
  2. Cattle > 2 digits
  3. Dogs + Cats > 5 digits
178
Q

How many digits are on the pelvic limbs of:
1. Horses
2. Cattle
3. Dogs + Cats

A
  1. Horses > 1 digit
  2. Cattle > 2 digits
  3. Dogs + Cats > 4 digits
179
Q

the largest and weightbearing metacarpal and metatarsal bone in horses

A

Cannon Bone

180
Q

the 2 non-weightbearing, vestigial metacarpal and metatarsal bones that only extend 2/3 of the way down that shaft of the cannon bone in horses

A

Splint Bones

181
Q

a painful condition caused by the inflammation of the ligaments joining the splint bones and cannon bone in horses

A

Splints

182
Q

the inflammation of the periosteum over the cranial surface of the 3rd metacarpal bone in equines

A

Bucked Shins

183
Q

What is the name of Metacarpal I in dogs and cats?

A

Dewclaw

184
Q

the individual bones that make up the digits

A

Phalanges (sg. Phalanx)

185
Q

irregular bones found in some tendons that change direction suddenly over the surface of joints to allow the muscles to exert powerful forces on the bones without the tendons wearing out from constant use over the joint

A

Sesamoid Bones

186
Q

the 2 bones located behind the fetlock joint in the large digital flexor tendons

A

Proximal Sesamoid Bones

187
Q

the bone located deep in the hoof behind the joint between the middle and distal phalanges, where the digital flexor tendon attaches to the distal phalanx

A

Navicular Bone (Distal Sesamoid Bone)

188
Q

the joint between the cannon bone and the proximal phalanx in horses

A

Fetlock Joint

189
Q

How many phalanges to horses have and what are their names?

A

Three

  1. Long Pastern Bone (proximal phalanx)
  2. Short Pastern Bone (middle phalanx)
  3. Coffin Bone (distal phalanx)
190
Q

How many phalanges do dogs and cats have?

A

Digit I > 2 phalanges > 1 proximal + 1 distal phalanx

Digits II to V > 3 phalanges > 1 proximal + 1 middle + 1 distal phalanx

191
Q

a complex syndrome in horses involving degeneration of the distal sesamoid bone, damage to the bone’s blood supply and/or damage to surrounding structures such as bursas, tendons, and ligaments

A

Navicular Disease

192
Q

List the 9 components of pelvic limbs

A
  1. Pelvis
  2. Femur
  3. Patella
  4. Medial + Lateral Fabellae
  5. Tibia
  6. Fibula
  7. Hock (tarsus)
  8. Metatarsals
  9. Phalanges
193
Q

3 separate bones that eventually fuse into a solid structure and joins the axial skeleton dorsally at the left and right sacroiliac joints

A

Pelvis

194
Q

the cartilaginous joint located ventrally between the two halves of the pelvis

A

Pelvic Symphysis

195
Q

the large holes on either side of the pelvic symphysis that function to lighten the pelvis

A

Obturator Foramina

196
Q

the socket of the hip joint that encloses the femur head

A

Acetabulum

197
Q

What are the 3 bones of the pelvis?

A
  1. Iliac
  2. Ischium
  3. Pubis
198
Q

the cranial-most bone of the pelvis that connects to the sacrum of the spine

A

Ilium

199
Q

the process of the ilium that projects medially and joins with the sacrum to form the sacroiliac joint

A

Tuber Sacrale

200
Q

the process of the ilium that projects laterally

A

Tuber Coxae (Point of the hip)

201
Q

the caudal-most pelvic bone that forms the caudal portion of the pelvic floor

A

Ischium

202
Q

the main, rear-projecting process of the ischium

A

Ischial Tuberosity

203
Q

the cranial portion of the pelvic floor and is the smallest pelvic bone

A

Pubis

204
Q

the small, spherical portion of the hip joint that fits into the acetabulum

A

Femur Head

205
Q

large processes at the proximal end of the femur where the hip and thigh muscles attach

A

Trochanters

206
Q

the largest process on the proximal end of the femur

A

Greater Trochanter

207
Q

joint formed by the distal end of the femur, the patella and the proximal end of the tibia

A

Stifle Joint

208
Q

What are the 3 components of the stifle joint?

A
  1. Distal epiphysis of the femur
  2. Patella
  3. Proximal epiphysis of the tibia
209
Q

the smooth articular groove on the femur in which the patella rides

A

Femoral Trochlea

210
Q

the articular surfaces of the distal end of the femur that articulate with the proximal end of the tibia

A

Medial + Lateral Condyles

211
Q

the nonarticular “knobs” on the medial surfaces of the femoral condyle that can be easily palpated to be used as landmarks on living animals

A

Medial Epichondyles

212
Q

the nonarticular “knobs” on the lateral surfaces of the femoral condyle that can be easily palpated to be used as landmarks on living animals

A

Lateral Epicondyle

213
Q

the bone that protects the tendon as it passes down over the femoral trochlea to insert on the tibial crest and is the largest sesamoid bone in the body

A

Patella

214
Q

the small sesamoid bones located in the proximal gastrocnemius tendon just above and behind the femoral condyles of dogs/cats and are not present in cattle/horses

A

Medial + Lateral Fabellae

215
Q

forms the stifle joint with the femur and the hock with the tarsus

A

Tibia

216
Q

the forward-facing point of the proximal end of the tibia that attaches the patellar ligament

A

Tibial Tuberosity

217
Q

Describe the differences in shape of the Tibial Diaphysis

A

Proximal end > triangular
Distal end > rounded

218
Q

the palpable process on the medial side of the distal end of the tibia

A

Medial Malleolus

219
Q

the lower leg bone that primarily functions as a muscle attachment site

A

Fibula

220
Q

the palpable process on the distal end of the fibula

A

Lateral Malleolus

221
Q

2 parallel proximal and distal rows of short bones that are considered the ankle in humans

A

Hock (Tarsus)

222
Q

List the 3 proximal tarsal bones

A
  1. Tibial Tarsal Bone
  2. Fibular Tarsal Bone
  3. Central Tarsal Bone
223
Q

the process of the fibular tarsal bone that projects upward and backward to form the point of the hock and acts as a point of attachment for the gastrocnemius tendon

A

Calcaneal Tuberosity

224
Q

abnormal laxity of the hip joints that leads to joint instability and degenerative bony changes

A

Hip Dysplasia

225
Q

to pop out of normal place

A

Luxation

226
Q

What are the appropriate BCS for:
1. Desired Condition
2. Low BCS
3. High BCS

A
  1. Desired Condition = 3/5 or 5/9
  2. Emaciated = 1/5 or 1/9
  3. Obese = 5/5 or9/9
227
Q

Explain the technique for determining an animal’s body condition score (BCS)

A
  1. Visually assess the animal’s body shape
  2. Palpate external skeletal landmarks to determine how much fat is around them
228
Q

Give 3 examples of bones in the visceral skeleton

A
  1. os cordis
  2. os penis
  3. os rostri
229
Q

a bone in the heart of cattle and sheep that helps support the valves of the heart

A

os cordis

230
Q

a bone in the penis of dogs, beavers, raccoons, and walruses that partially surrounds the penile portion of the urethra

A

os penis

231
Q

a bone in the nose of swine that strengthens the snout for the rooting behavior of pigs

A

os rostri

232
Q

Reference terms for joints

A
  1. arthro-
  2. articular
233
Q

List the 3 types of joints and give examples

A
  1. Fibrous Joints - sutures on skull bones
  2. Cartilaginous Joints - mandibular symphysis
  3. Synovial Joints - shoulder joint
234
Q

immovable joints

A

Fibrous Joints

235
Q

joints only capable of a slight rocking movement

A

Cartilaginous Joints

236
Q

freely moveable joints

A

Synovial Joints

237
Q

a fluid filled space between joint surfaces enclosed by a joint capsule

A

Joint Cavity

238
Q

a multilayered tissue that encloses the joint cavity

A

Joint Capsule

239
Q

the outer layer of the joint capsule that produces fluid to lubricate joint surfaces

A

Synovial Membrane

240
Q

the lubricating fluid produced in and for joints

A

Synovial Fluid

241
Q

What is the difference between ligaments and tendons?

A

Ligaments = bone > bone
Tendons = muscle > bone

242
Q

the large tendon that passes over the cranial surface of the stifle joint and attaches to the proximal end of the tibia at the tibial tuberosity

A

Distal Tendon of the Quadriceps Femoris Muscle

243
Q

the ligament that provides support on the front of the stifle joint and is an extension of the distal tendon of the large quadriceps femoris muscle

A

Patellar Ligament

244
Q

the medial and lateral ligaments that connect the femur and tibia on the outside of the stifle joint to prevent sideways movement of the bones

A

Collateral Ligaments

245
Q

on both sides

A

Collateral

246
Q

the ligaments that cross inside the stifle joint and prevent the bones of the joint from sliding forward and backward as the joint bends and straightens

A

Cranial and Caudal Cruciate Ligaments

247
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joint movement?

A
  1. Flexion
  2. Extension
  3. Adduction
  4. Abduction
  5. Rotation
  6. Circumduction
248
Q

decreases the angle between 2 bones

A

Flexion

249
Q

increases the angle between 2 bones

A

Extension

250
Q

twisting movement of a part on its own axis

A

Rotation

251
Q

movement of an extremity so that the distal end moves in a circle

A

Circumduction

252
Q

List the 4 types of synovial joints and give examples

A
  1. Hinge Joints - atlantooccipital joint (nodding yes)
  2. Gliding Joints - carpus
  3. Pivot Joints - atlantoaxial joint (shaking head no)
  4. Spheroidal Joints - hip
253
Q

joints in which 1 joint surface swivels around another and the only possible movements are flexion and extension

A

Hinge Joints

254
Q

joints in which the movement between articular surfaces is a rocking motion of one bone on the other and the main movements include flexion and extension, but some abduction and adduction may be possible

A

Gliding Joints

255
Q

joints in which one bone rotates on another and the only possible movement is rotation

A

Pivot Joints

256
Q

joints in which the head of a bone rotates within a concave space and allows for all 6 types of joint movement

A

Ball-and-Socket (Spheroidal) Joints

257
Q

What is the only true pivot joint?

A

Atlantoaxial Joint > shaking head no

258
Q

What is the most commonly injured ligament in dogs?

A

Cranial Cruciate Ligament (CrCL)

Anatomy & Physiology 1 (10 decks)

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