Skeletal Disorders, Teeth Flashcards

1
Q

3 disorders of endochondral ossification

A
  • chondrodystrophies
  • osteochondrosis (OD)
  • osteochondrosis dessicans (OCD)
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2
Q

chondrodystrophy is marked by a primary lesion in the ________ and/or ________

A
  • growth plate (physis)

- articular epiphysis (AE) complex

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3
Q

________ can result in disproportionate dwarfs, such as dachshunds or basset hounds

A

chondrodystrophy

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4
Q

chondrodystrophy causes abnormalities in _____ and _____ of the bones

A
  • shape

- size

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5
Q

_______ is a degenerative process of cartilage with focal or multifocal failure/delay of endochondral ossification

A

osteochondrosis

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6
Q

__________ is described as a retention of growth cartilage due to failure to mineralize and replace by bone

A

osteochondrosis (OD)

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7
Q

one possible pathogenesis of osteochondrosis is __________________

A

the ischemic necrosis of the cartilage

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8
Q

what age group is osteochondrosis most prevalent in?

A

young animals

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9
Q

osteochondrosis of large breed dogs is most prevalent in which 3 areas

A
  • shoulder
  • elbow
  • tarsus
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10
Q

2 symptoms of osteochondrosis

A
  • lameness

- pain

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11
Q

_____________ is dysplasia occurring in the AE complex

A

osteochondrosis dessicans (OCD)

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12
Q

in ___________, clefts form in the retained cartilage with subsequent fracture of the overlying articular cartilage

A

osteochondrosis dessicans (OCD)

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13
Q

when the cartilage flaps formed in osteochondrosis dessicans fracture off it is called a ______

A

joint mouse

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14
Q

4 symptoms of osteochondrosis dessicans

A
  • pain
  • effusion
  • lameness
  • synovitis
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15
Q

common site of osteochondrosis dessicans in the dog

A

shoulder

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16
Q

common site of osteochondrosis dessicans in the horse

A

tarsus

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17
Q

common site of osteochondrosis dessicans in the pig

A

medial condyle of the femur

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18
Q

_________ is the consequence of osteochondrosis dessicans

A

degenerative joint disease

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19
Q

5 types of bone disorders

A
  • disorders of bone modeling
  • disorders of endochondral ossification
  • metabolic bone disease
  • inflammation/necrosis of bone
  • neoplasia
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20
Q

3 metabolic bone diseases

A
  • osteoporosis
  • rickets/osteomalacia
  • osteodystrophy (nutritional and renal)
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21
Q

_________: defined as low bone mass that results in minimal fractures after only minimal trauma

A

osteoporosis

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22
Q

most common sites for bone fractures resulting from osteoporosis

A
  • hip (femoral neck)
  • thoracic and lumbar vertebral bodies
  • wrist (distal radius and ulna)
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23
Q

_______/_______: failure of mineralization with subsequent bone deformities and fracture

A

rickets/osteomalacia

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24
Q

__________: failure of mineralization in a growing skeleton

A

rickets

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25
Q

_________: failure of mineralization in an adult skeleton

A

osteomalacia

26
Q

osteomalacia/rickets is caused by a deficiency of ______ or _______

A
  • vitamin D

- phosphorus

27
Q

3 consequences of rickets/osteomalacia

A
  • bone pain
  • pathologic fractures
  • deformities
28
Q

thickened growth plates are symptomatic of _________

A

rickets

29
Q

_________: increased osteoclastic resorption of bone and replacement by fibrous tissue

A

fibrous osteodystrophy

30
Q

3 clinical signs of fibrous osteodystrophy

A
  • deformities
  • lameness
  • pathologic fractures
31
Q

what causes fibrous osteodystrophy?

A

hyperparathyroidism (primary or secondary)

32
Q

Which type of hyperparathyroidism is a rare cause of fibrous osteodystrophy?

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

33
Q

2 forms of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A
  • nutritional

- renal

34
Q

layman’s term for renal fibrous osteodystrophy

A

“rubber jaw”

35
Q

what kind of diet results in nutritional hyperparathyroidism (leading to fibrous hyperparathyroidism)

A

a diet low in calcium or high in phosphorus

36
Q

2 “classic examples” in veterinary sciences of nutritional osteodystrophy

A
  • “bran disease”

- “Popeye long bone”

37
Q

2 processes by which decreased renal function results in osteodystrophy

A
  • ↓ glomerular function (results in hyperphosphatemia)

- ↓ activation of 1, 25 D3 (results in ↓ calcium absorption)

38
Q

______: infectious inflammation/necrosis of bone

A

osteomyelitis

39
Q

______: non-infectious inflammation/necrosis of bone

A

hypertrophic osteodystrophy

40
Q

________ - “lumpy jaw”

A

actinomycosis

41
Q

2 categories of bone neoplasia

A
  • primary (osteosarcoma)

- secondary (metastatic)

42
Q

osteosarcoma is ________ neoplasia

A

primary

43
Q

metastatic (breast, prostate cancer, etc.) is _______ neoplasia

A

secondary

44
Q

4 different types of teeth

A
  • incisor
  • canine
  • premolar
  • molar
45
Q

________ teeth grow continuously throughout life

A

hypsodontic

46
Q

________ teeth do not grow continuously throughout life

A

brachydontic

47
Q

_________ teeth require floating

A

hypsodontic

48
Q

_________ teeth do not have enamel covered roots

A

brachydontic

49
Q

from superficial to deep, what are the material layers of hypsodontic teeth?

A
  • cementum
  • enamel
  • dentine
50
Q

from superficial to deep, what are the material layers of brachydontic teeth?

A

Crown:

  • enamel
  • dentine

Root:

  • cementum
  • dentine
51
Q

species with hypsodontic teeth

A
  • horses (all)

- ruminants (cheek teeth)

52
Q

species with brachydontic teeth

A
  • man
  • carnivores
  • pigs
53
Q

3 types of teeth abnormalities

A
  • malocclusion
  • gingivitis/peridontitis
  • tooth retention
54
Q

_________: failure of the upper and lower teeth to interdigitate properly

A

malocclusion

55
Q

_________: protrusion of the lower jaw

A

prognathia

56
Q

________: a disproportionately shortened lower jaw

A

brachygnathia

57
Q

malocclusion leads to difficulties on the _______ and _______ of food

A
  • prehension

- mastication

58
Q

malocclusion results from ____________ or _____________

A
  • abnormal jaw conformation

- abnormal tooth eruption patterns

59
Q

4 consequences of long term periodontitis

A
  • chronic gingivitis
  • pocket formation
  • loss of attachment
  • alveolar bone loss
60
Q

6 indications for tooth extraction

A
  • mobile teeth
  • crowding of teeth
  • retained deciduous teeth
    teeth in the line of a fracture
  • teeth destroyed by disease
  • endodontically diseased teeth
61
Q

6 stages of normal healing of an extraction socket

A
  • intact molar and alveolar bone
  • clot formation and removal phase
  • repair phase
  • initiation of bone formation
  • woven bone
  • lamellar bone