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Part 121 - CRJ 701/900 > Simulator Worksheets > Flashcards

Simulator Worksheets Flashcards

1
Q

The V1 Calculation is based on the use of thrust reverse (True or False)

A

False

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2
Q

The “1,000 foot” fallout is based on _____ altitude.

A

AFE

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3
Q

Operate engines for at least ______ prior to applying thrust above 75% N1

A

2 Minutes.

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4
Q

How do you determine acceleration altitude?

A

FE + 1,000’ or refer to company pages.

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5
Q

When Taxiing to the gate, an engine should be operated at idle for _______ prior to shutdown.

A

2 Min

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6
Q

The Autopilot may be used above ______ after takeoff and should be used in high workload situations.

A

600’

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7
Q

Minimum battery voltage for the safety and power of checklist is _____.

A

22 Volts

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8
Q

The departure setup includes what five items?

A
  1. ATIS
  2. Clearance
  3. FMS
  4. RTUs
  5. PFD
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9
Q

WZTTS

A 
Weight and Balance
Zero Fuel Weight
Takeoff Thrust Setting
Trim
Speeds
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10
Q

After the departure setup is complete and the aircraft has been fueled, the captain will call for the _____.

A

Before start checklist

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11
Q

During a precision approach at 500’ AFE the fallout is _________.

A

“500’, Bug +/- ____, Sink _____, Stable”

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12
Q

On a precision approach, the autopilot must be disengaged by ____.

A

80’

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13
Q

On a non-precision approach, the autopilot must be disengaged by _____.

A

400’

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14
Q

Below _______, each pilot must use headset with a boom microphone.

A

18,000’

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15
Q

Above ______, the pilot at the controls shall don their O2 mask when one pilot leaves the flight deck.

A

FL410

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16
Q

What is the ramp fuel tolerance for dispatch?

A

+/- 500, but no lower than Takeoff + Taxi.

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17
Q

If the First Officer is making the takeoff, the captain will state ________ after aligning the aircraft with the runway centerline to signify he is transferring control of the aircraft to the first officer.

A

“Your Controls”

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18
Q

You are flying the GPS runway 22 in KFAY. You have correctly set up the FMS. The OJORO intersection is not displayed. How do you identify UJORO?

A

ATD from next waypoint.

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19
Q

During a go-around, the lateral mode of the flight director is available above ____.

A

400’

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20
Q

A go around must be initiated if what five things are not met anytime below 1,000’ AFE?

A
  1. In the proper landing configuration
  2. 1,000 FPM or less
  3. On the proper flight path
  4. In Trim
  5. Speed between VREF and VREF + 10 with engines spooled up
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21
Q

The standard traffic pattern is ______ and ______ turns.

A

1500’ and Left Turns

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22
Q

When do you select flaps 8 during initial stall recovery?

A

After airspeed increases, stall warning goes away, and positive rate is called by PM.

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23
Q

When should ‘Flaps 45’ be called on a non-precision approach?

A

1-2 miles prior to FAF

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24
Q

What should be accomplished when the runway is in sight during a non-precision approach that’s not a call out?

A

Select FD OFF!

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25
Q

The “1,000 foot” callout is based on _____.

A

AFE

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26
Q

What is the touchdown zone of the runway?

A

1st 3rd or 3,000’ of the runway, whichever is less.

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27
Q

The “V1” callout is said at what airspeed?

A

V1 - 5

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28
Q

A callout of all FMA Changes is required below ______.

A

3,000’

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29
Q

The airspeed must be reduced to the desired speed for holding ______.

A

Approximately 3 minutes prior to hold.

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30
Q

The purpose of calculated VDP on non-precision approaches is ____________.

A

Ensure situational awareness of the point where a 3 degree glide path intersects the MDA.

31
Q

When descending to the MDA on a non-precision approach, the descent rate will be no greater than _________ by 1,000’ AFE.

A

1,000 FPM

32
Q

On a singe engine go-around, if the airspeed is above V2+10, when the PF calls for “Speed mod, bug V2, what airspeed will the PM actually Bug?

A

V2 + 10

33
Q

During stall recovery at high altitudes, the pilot flying must pitch the nose to _______ using deliberate and smooth elevator control inputs. The flight crew should initially target ________ before attempting level off.

A

10 - 15 degrees nose down; FL250 and 250 Knots.

34
Q

Loss of thrust at or above V1: At VT, the PF will call out _____.

A

“Climb, Set MCT… (L/R) Engine Failure”

35
Q

If an evacuation is not required after a rejected takeoff or an emergency landing the wording for the PA announcement is ______

A

“Please Remain Seated”

36
Q

The Low-Energy Regime Occurs When the Following Conditions are Met:

A
  1. Landing Gear and Flaps set for landing
  2. Aircraft is descending
  3. Thrust is stabilized in idle range
  4. Airspeed is decreasing
  5. A/C is 50’ or less
37
Q

Where is the cross-bleed start procedure for the CRJ 700 located?

A

POH 4.6.3 and 5.4

38
Q

Where is the external air start procedure for the CRJ 700 located?

A

POH 5.2

39
Q

What flap setting is used for a single-engine approach?

A

20 degrees

40
Q

How do you discover minimum recommended holding speed?

A

Flaps 0 REF + 30

41
Q

How do you discover maneuvering speed?

A

Flaps 0 VREF + 10.

42
Q

Flight attendants are authorized to initiate an evacuation if the passengers are in imminent danger only under the following conditions:

A
  1. Severe structural damage
  2. No response from the flight deck
  3. Threatening fire or smoke
43
Q

Compliance with a TCAS RA is _____, regardless of conditions

A

Mandatory.

44
Q

The MFD terrain function displays the highest and lowest terrain/obstacle value of the selected range setting in the _______ of the map display.

A

Upper left hand corner.

45
Q

With ADG power, which hydraulic system is powered?

A

3

46
Q

With the flaps inoperative, you must climb at VREF to 1000’ on a go-around True/False?

A

True

47
Q

Is PSA authorized to conduct CAT II SA approaches?

A

No

48
Q

The captain will conduct the takeoff when the visibility is ________ and the first officer is on low time status.

A

4000 RVR or less

49
Q

SMGCS operations at approved airports are in effect when the visibility is less than ______.

A

1200RVR

50
Q

The Captain will perform the takeoff (ground roll through cleanup) when visibility is ________/

A

1600 RVR or 1/4 SM or less

51
Q

No FMS entries are permitted during taxi operations when:

A
  1. Runway crossings
  2. Complex taxi instructions
  3. Low Visibility Taxiing
52
Q

When does N1 rotation need to be verified when starting the CRJ 700?

A

After 33% N2. Not prior to moving thrust lever from shutoff to idle.

53
Q

During windshear, the PM will make what callouts?

A

Call height above terrain and climbing/descending.

EXAMPLE: “400 feet, descending”…”300 feet climbing”

54
Q

True or False: With radar failure in flight, the flight may continue provided an alternate route clear of thunderstorm or hazardous weather conditions can be flown.

A

TRUE

55
Q

The CRJ Radar has a blanked range area equal to:

A

1/8th the selected range.

56
Q

Radar. Prior to takeoff, a short range selection such as _____ scale should be used and we should ________

A

20nm; tilt the antenna up to approximately +5 degrees to scan for weather along the departure path.

57
Q

The Radar detects only liquid moisture in the form of raindrops, wet hail or wet snowflakes. Unless the beam is aimed __________ the freezing level of weather cells, there may not be sufficient moisture to paint a return on the display.

A

At or below the freezing level.

58
Q

Windshear Recognition Guidelines during Approach?

A 
\+/- 15 KIAS
\+/- 500 FPM
\+/- 5 pitch attitude
\+/- 1 dot glideslope displacement
Unusual thrust setting for extended period
59
Q

First Officer evacuation responsibilities

A
  1. Exit A/C from first available exit
  2. Command evacuation from the outside
  3. After evacuation is complete, assemble passengers a safe distance from the aircraft
60
Q

The maximum speed to which an aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine, and either stop or takeoff in the remaining distance is called:

A

V1

61
Q

To compensate for reaction time, the PM must call “V1” in a ______ manner just before the airplane reaches V1. In turn the PF must recognize the command and respond in a timely manner.

A

Timely, crisp and audible

62
Q

No light off during engine start is recognized by _____.

A

No rise in ITT

63
Q

Memory Items for double engine failure:

A

Continuous ignition - On

Minimum Speed - 240knots

64
Q

After completing the memory items for double engine failure, what should you do next?

A

Complete the immediate action items.

65
Q

During the safety and power on checklist is it acceptable to see CHARGER message on the DC electric synoptic page in the 700 and 900?

A

Yes

66
Q

Prior to starting the APU, we should ensure that the __________.

A

Wing and cowl anti-ice are off. In order to avoid “bleed MISCONFIG” message.

67
Q

The _____ engine is normally started first for the FFD.

A

Left

68
Q

When starting an engine on the CRJ 700/900 is it necessary to verify N1 rotation prior to moving the thrust lever to idle?

A

No

69
Q

Is it permissible to SET on the #1 engine in the 700/900?

A

Yes

70
Q

The _______ must be operating while single-engine taxiing on the #1 engine.

A

2B hydraulic pump

71
Q

In the 700/900, the standard practice is to shut down the _____ after the first engine is started, and then perform a rolling cross bleed start on the second engine.

A

APU

72
Q

Cross-bleed Engine Start procedure:

A 
Bleed Valves - Auto
ECS Synoptic Page - Select
Thrust lever - Advance to achieve minimum 42 psi (max 80% n2)
EICAS secondary page - STAT
Proceed to engine start
73
Q

During the takeoff roll, takeoff thrust is set by advancing the thrust levers to the _______.

A

TOGA indent

74
Q

Maximum single-pack altitude

A

31,000’

Part 121 - CRJ 701/900 (25 decks)

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