Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Part 121 - CRJ 701/900 > Full Limitations > Flashcards

Full Limitations Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum Crosswind Component for Takeoff and Landing

A

27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Maximum crosswind component for landing from a Category II approach

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Maximum headwind component for landing from a category II approach

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Maximum tailwind component for takeoff and landing (INCLUDES GUSTS)

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Maximum Operating Altitude

A

41,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Except in an emergency, takeoff or landing will not be attempted whenever peak wind value exceeds

A

50 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Maximum altitude for single pack operation

A

31,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Turbulence penetration speed

A

280 or .75M, whichever is lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Maximum gear extension speed

A

220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Maximum gear extended speed

A

220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum gear retraction speed

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Maximum speed for windshield wiper operation

A

220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Vfo/Vfe Flaps 1

A

230

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Vfo/Vle Flaps 8

A

230

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Vfo/Vfe Flaps 20

A

220

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Vfe/Vlo Flaps 30

A

185

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Vfe/Vlo Flaps 45

A

170

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The APU starter motor duty cycle is limited to not more than ______ starts/start attempts in _____ hour with a ______ minute delay between cranking attempts

A

3; 1; 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Maximum APU starting Altitude

A

37,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Maximum APU operating altitude

A

41,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum altitude for APU Bleed Air for Air Conditioning

A

25,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

With the APU door not closed or the door position is unknown the airspeed limitation is ______ or the APU ________.

A

220, must remain in operation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Maximum AC Electrical load on the engine or APU driven Generator

A

40 Kva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Maximum DC Electrical Load on each TRU

A

120 amps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Maximum time on the ground with only DC power available

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

During all starts, do not exceed ______ N1 for _______ after start, or until all operating indications are in the normal range, whichever is longer.

A

75%; 2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Operate engines at or near idle for _____ minutes prior to shutdown

A

2 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Maximum Time at TOGA power on 2 engines

A

5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Maximum ITT for engine start on the ground _______.

A

120 before attempting start; 815 during the start

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Maximum ITT for engine start in flight

A

90 before starting; 927 while starting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Minimum oil pressure at idle

A

25 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Minimum oil pressure at takeoff power

A

45 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

After cold start, engine must remain at _______ until oil pressure returns to normal range

A

Idle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Continuous engine ignition must be used during the following:

A
  1. Takeoff AND landing on contaminated runway 2. Takeoff with high crosswind components (15 knots or greater) 3. Flight through moderate or heavier intensity rain 4. Flight through moderate or heavier turbulence 5. Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Starter cranking limits:

A

90sec - 10sec 90sec - 10sec 90sec - 5min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

During landing, maximum reverse thrust is prohibited below ______, and reverse idle should be achieved by _______.

A

75knots; 60knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Engine Operating Limits Due to Wind Direction: Within 30 degrees on either direction of the airplane nose-no windspeed limit OR… >30 degrees in either direction of the airplane nose-between <5 knots of windspeed

A

No limitation; TOGA thrust can be applied before brake release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Engine Operating Limits Due to Wind Direction: >30 degrees in either direction of the airplane nose-between 5 and 30 knots of windspeed

A

Max 75% N1 prior to brake release, then TOGA thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Engine Operating Limits Due to Wind Direction: >30 degrees in either direction of the airplane nose-between >30 knots of windspeed

A

Apply maximum of idle/taxi thrust before brake release, then TOGA thrust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

If Static/Standing takeoff data is generated and wind limits prevent a static/standing takeoff winds must be entered in _____ OR for aircraft with ACARS inoperative, Dispatch must _______ winds into TLR data

A

ACARS; manually insert

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Enroute use of slats/flaps is

A

Prohibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Maximum slats and/or flaps extended altitude

A

15,000’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Minimum altitude for flight spoiler deployment

A

1,000’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Minimum airspeed to extend the flight spoilers is

A

Recommended reference speed plus 17 KIAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the left and right-wing tanks for TAKEOFF

A

300 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between the left and right-wing tanks for ALL OTHER PHASES OF FLIGHT

A

800 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Maximum Fuel Quantity - Pressure Refueling (700/900)

A

19,594

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Maximum fuel quantity - Gravity refueling (700)

A

14,580

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Maximum fuel quantity - Gravity refueling (900)

A

14,810

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Takeoff with a fuel load in excess of _____ lbs. in the center tank is not permitted unless each wing tank is above ______ lbs.

A

500; 4,400

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Powered CROSSFLOW and gravity CROSSFLOW must be ______ for takeoff

A

OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The minimum fuel quantity for go-around per wing tank (with the airplane level) and assuming a maximum airplane climb attitude of 10 degrees nose up ______ lbs

A

600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ground Contamination Definition

A

Runways, ramps or taxiways with surface snow, ice, slush or standing water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Visible moisture definition

A

Visible moisture or precipitation in any form (such as fog with visibility of one mile or less, mist, rain, now, sleet, and ice crystals or clouds inflight)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

If visible moisture is present below 400’ AGL with OAT ______ or below activate ______ anti-ice. if OAT _______ activate both ______ anti-ice for takeoff.

A

10; COWL; 5; COWL and WING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Icing conditions in flight exist when visible moisture is present, and the TAT ______, except when the SAT is ____ or below

A

10C; -40C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

If icing conditions exist in flight wing and cowl anti-ice is required when the airspeed is below _____ KTS and cowl anti-ice is required when the airspeed is at or above ____ KTS

A

230; 230

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

If If Ground Contamination or visible moisture is present for takeoff and the OAT is at or below _____ Cowl and wing anti-ice are required

A

5C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

If If Ground Contamination or visible moisture is present for takeoff and the OAT is at or below _____ Cowl anti-ice is required

A

10C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In addition to a visual check, a tactile check of the wing leading edge, wing forward upper surface and wing rear upper surface is required during the exterior inspection to determine that the wing is free from frost, ice, snow, or slush when: 1. The OAT is _____ or less, or 2. The bulk fuel temperature is ____ or less, or 3. ___________ 4. Ice and frost may continue to adhere to wing surfaces for some time even at outside air temperatures above ________

A

10C; 0C; The atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation; 10C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Do not hold in icing conditions with ________ extended

A

Slats and/or flaps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The Taxi lights must be switched OFF whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of ___________

A

10 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Equipment Requirements for RVSM

A

1 Autopilot with Altitude Hold - Needs to be operational 1 Altitude Alerting System - Needs to be operational 2 Altitude Reporting Transponders - 1 must be operational 2 Air Data Computers - 2 must be operational

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Minimum brake cooling time is ________, and all BTMS indicators must be ___________

A

15 Minutes; green and not increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

CAT II approaches are prohibited when the braking action is reported as less than _______

A

MEDIUM (less than 3 CC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Flight must be within _____ minutes of a suitable airport, if cargo is carried in either cargo compartment

A

60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Operation with the autopilot engaged is prohibited at altitudes below _______

A

600’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Minimum AP Altitude for visual and non-precision approaches

A

400’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Minimum AP altitude for precision approaches

A

80’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Minimum AP altitude for Single Engine Precision approaches or those with vertical guidance on the 900 is _____ feet

A

110’ AGL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Use of SPEED MODE (DES or IAS) with the flight director or autopilot coupled during approach is _____ permitted

A

NOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Use of VNAV with the flight director or autopilot coupled during climb and approach phases of flight is ______ permitted

A

NOT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Maximum Taxi and Ramp Weight (700)

A

75,250 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight (700)

A

75,000 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Maximum Landing Weight (700)

A

67,000 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (700)

A

62,300 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Maximum Ramp and Taxi Weight (900)

A

85,000 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Maximum Takeoff Weight (900)

A

84,500 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Maximum Landing Weight (900)

A

75,100 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (900)

A

70,750 LBS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Cabin Alt/Emergency Descent

A
  1. Oxygen Masks…… Don and 100%
  2. Crew Communications …… ESTABLISH
  3. Captain Assumes PF Duties
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Smoke/Fire/Fumes

A
  1. Oxygen masks (if required) ……….. DON and 100%
  2. Crew Communication ………. ESTABLISH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Stabilizer Trim Runaway:

A
  1. Control Wheel ………… ASSUME manual control and OVERRIDE runaway
  2. STAB TRIM DISC………… Push, hold and release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Maximum pressure differentials:

A

Positive: 8.7

Negative: -0.5

Ground Maneuvering: 0.1

Initial Landing (at touchdown): 1.0

85
Q

When Does Low Pressure air have to be OFF?

A

Prior to the main cabin door being closed and secure

86
Q

What must we ensure before opening any of the airplane doors?

A

It is completely depressurized

87
Q

When is the use of EMER DEPRESS switch prohibited?

A

Above 15,000’

88
Q

Maximum airspeed for windshield wiper operation failed in the non-parked position (Vstuck)

A

250

89
Q

Maximum cruise Mach in RVSM airspace

A

0.82M

90
Q

Tire limit ground speed

A

700: 182KIAS
900: 195KIAS

91
Q

Full application of rudder and aileron controls, as well as maneuvers that involve angles of attack near the stall, must be confined to speeds below ______.

A

Va

92
Q

In order to prevent structural failure, we should…

A

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw (e.g., large side slip angles) as they may cause structural failure at any speed, including below Va

93
Q

When is intentional speed reduction prohibited?

A

When it’s below the onset of stall warning, as defined by stick shaker operation, Unless a lower speed is specifically authorized for flight tests or training operations

94
Q

Minimum temperature for cold-soaked APU starting on the ground

A

-40C

95
Q

The APU starter motor duty cycle is limited to what?

A

Not more than 3 starts/start attempts in 1 hour with a 2 minute delay between cranking attempts

96
Q

Maximum RPM for the APU.

A

106%

97
Q

APU Maximum EGT for All Conditions

A

1038

98
Q

All APU Limitations Lowest to Highest Altitude.

A

21,000’ - Highest Altitude for Main Engine Starter using APU Bleed Air (Technically a MES Limitation)

25,000’ - APU Bleed Air Extraction for Packs Maximum Altitude

37,000’ - Maximum APU Starting Altitude

41,000’ - Maximum APU Operating Altitude

99
Q

The flight deck door must be ___________, during flight, except to permit _____________.

A

Kept closed and locked; access and egress in accordance with FAA and company procedures for opening, closing, and locking the door.

100
Q

Any time at the flight deck door is opened in flight….

A

A challenge and response closing and locking verification must be used to verify that the door is closed and locked.

101
Q

Any time a required flight crew member leaves the flight deck, another crew-member must….

A

Be present in the flight deck to ensure that they are not locked out of the flight deck.

102
Q

Maximum APU electrical load

A

40Kva

103
Q

Maximum permissible DC electrical System loads:

A

120 amps

104
Q

During all starts, do not exceed ____ N1 for ______ minutes after start or ________

A

75%; 2; until all operating indications are in the normal range, whichever is longer.

105
Q

Operate engines at or near idle for ______ minutes prior to shutdown.

A

2

106
Q

Taxi time at a stabilized _________ or below may be credited towards the two-minute cool down period required to operate the engines at prior to shutdown

A

80% N2.

107
Q

Engines:

A
  1. 700 - General Electric CF 34-8C5B1
  2. 900 - General Electric CF 34-8C5
108
Q

Normal takeoff power and maximum power (2 engines) is limited to ______.

A

5 minutes

109
Q

APR power (1 engine) is limited to _____.

A

10 minutes.

110
Q

Pilot initiated APR thrust is prohibited _________.

A
  1. For first 30 minutes after any engine start at altitudes below 7,500’ MSL
  2. At all times above 7,500’ MSL
  3. does not prohibit the pilot from selecting APR as required for safety of flight.
111
Q

Before Start ITT Temperature Limitations (Ground and Air)

A

Ground: 120C

Air: 90C

112
Q

Oil pressures (above IDLE) between _________ require oil temperature monitoring.

A

25 and 45 PSI

113
Q

Oil pressures should show positive value during start and may peak beyond _____ and are displayed as _______.

A

182 psi; amber dashes

114
Q

Oil pressure may be greater than ______ for a maximum of 10 minutes.

A

95 psi

115
Q

Minimum oil level for flight

A

40% min with affected engine not started

116
Q

N2 limitations for starting:

A

Ground or Assisted Air Start: 0-45%

117
Q

Definition of cold soaked

A
  1. First flight of the day
  2. Temperature of -30C or less
  3. More than 8 hours
118
Q

What should you do if your airplane is cold soaked?

A
  1. Thrust reversers must be actuated until the deploy and stow cycles are 2 seconds or less
  2. verify N1 fan rotation.
119
Q

Minimum Oil Temperature for starting

A

-40

120
Q

Steady-state idle oil pressure minimum

A

25 psi

121
Q

Minimum oil pressure for takeoff power

A

45psi

122
Q

Maximum continuous thrust max oil pressure

A

95 psi

123
Q

After a cold start the engine must….

A

Remain at idle until oil pressure returns to normal range

124
Q

Maximum oil consumption

A

6.4 ounces per hour/0.05 US gallons per hour

125
Q

The starter must not be engaged if indicated N2 RPM exceeds _____ (inflight or on the ground).

A

45%

126
Q

Air start starter limitations:

A

1st start: 2 minutes On, 10 Seconds OFF 2nd and on: 1 minute on; 5 minutes OFF

127
Q

An initiation of thrust lever movement from SHUT OFF to IDLE:

A

ITT must be less than 120C for ground starts ITT must be less than 90C for air starts

128
Q

A dry motoring cycle (thrust levers at SHUT OFF) may be used for engine ground starts and engine air starts as long as:

A

1st start: 90s on 5m OFF 2nd and subsequent: 30s on 5m OFF

129
Q

What is a dry-motoring cycle?

A

Thrust levers at SHUT OFF

130
Q

Relight Limitations: Windmilling

A

25,000 - SL: Speed 250KIAS to Vmo and from 7.2% N2 minimum

131
Q

Relight Limitations: Starter Assisted.

A

Altitude from 21,000’ to SL: Speed from Vref up to Vmo and from 0-45%N2

132
Q

Engine Relight Limitations: All Engine-Out Rapid Relight

A

FADEC rapid relight capability has been demonstrated at 200KIAS for up to 15-second fuel interruptions

133
Q

Thrust reversers are approved for _______ and prohibited in _______.

A

Ground use only; flight

134
Q

Thrust reversers are intended for use during ________ landings.

A

Full-stop

135
Q

Do not attempt a __________ after deployment of thrust reversers.

A

Go-around

136
Q

Takeoff with any _____________ displayed is prohibited except as described in MEL 78-30-01

A

Thrust reverser lights ON, icons, or EICAS thrust reverser messages

137
Q

During preflight check of the thrust reversers with the Airplane stationary, reverse thrust must be limited to ________.

A

Reverse idle

138
Q

________ using thrust reversers is prohibited

A

Backing-up

139
Q

Dispatch with ______ on runway ______________ is prohibited.

A

1 thrust reverser deferred; contaminated with ice

140
Q

If static/standing takeoff data is generated and wind limits prevent a Static/standing takeoff:

A
  1. Must must be entered in ACARS 2. IF ACARS inoperative, dispatch must manually insert winds into TLR data.
141
Q

In order to do a FLEX takeoff ______ must be operative

A

Anti-skid

142
Q

When is a FLEX thrust takeoff prohibited:

A
  1. Contaminated runways
  2. Airplane has been de-iced
  3. Anti-ice is on
  4. Warnings of windshear or downdrafts have been forecast
  5. An engine that cannot achieve full-rated thrust 6. A special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
  6. When Anti-skid is inop
143
Q

Maximum permissible fuel imbalance between left and right wing tanks:

A
  1. Takeoff: 300lbs 2. All other phases of flight: 800lbs 3. Refuel/Defuel: 2,500lbs
144
Q

Fuel remaining in a tank when the appropriate fuel quantity reads _______ is ______.

A

Zero; not usable.

145
Q

Fuel quantities for the limitations are based on:

A

6.75 lbs/per US gal.

146
Q

______ must be on OFF for takeoff

A

Powered CROSSFLOW and gravity CROSSFLOW.

147
Q

Minimum fuel quantity for go-around per wing tank (with the airplane level) and assuming a maximum airplane climb attitude of 10 degrees nose up:

A

600 lbs

148
Q

Takeoff with engine fuel temperature below _____ is prohibited

A

5 degrees.

149
Q

Takeoff with bulk fuel temperature indications below ______ using Jet A is prohibited.

A

-40C

150
Q

When using JET A type fuel with ambient temperature of ______ or below, the bulk fuel temperature prior to flight must be verified to be above ______.

A

-30; -29C…. So it needs to be -28 or warmer

151
Q

If the wing anti-ice system is selected ON for take off…

A

The cowl anti-ice system must also be on.

152
Q

When type IV anti-icing fluids have been applied, what must be done differently with the CRJ’s Anti-icing Systems?

A

Wing anti-ice system must only be selected and confirmed on just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.

153
Q

Wing and/or cowl anti-ice selection inflight is prohibited with the ______ as a bleed source in ______ mode.

A

APU; Manual

154
Q

What can adversely affect stall speeds, stall characteristics, and the protection from the stall protection system and lead to loss of control on takeoff?

A

Small amount of frost, ice, snow, or slush on the wing leading edges and froward upper wing surface

155
Q

Takeoff is prohibited with frost, ice, snow, or slush adhering to any ______

A

Critical surface: 1. Wings 2. Horizontal stabilizer 3. Vertical stabilizer 4. Control surfaces 5. Engine inlets

156
Q

Other than _________, the upper fuselage must also be de-iced anytime the _______ require de-icing.

A

Frost; wing and tail surfaces

157
Q

Take-off is permitted with frost adhering to:

A
  1. The upper surface of the fuselage 2. The underside of the wing, (maximum 1/8 inch) caused by cold soaked fuel.
158
Q

Frost on the upper fuselage surface is not considered critical if _____. Frost in excess of this ______.

A

It is possible to distinguish surface features (markings and lines); must be removed from the fuselage

159
Q

Single Engine Taxi is prohibited when ramps or taxiways are __________.

A

Contaminated with snow, slush, or ice, or when snow or other freezing/frozen precipitation is present

160
Q

When and why should operating thrust reversers during taxi operations be avoided?

A

Taxiway is wet or contaminated and to prevent wing contamination from reverse jet blast.

161
Q

In addition to a visual check, a tactile check of the _________. Is required during the _________ to determine that the wing is free from frost, ice, snow, or slush when:

A

Wing forward upper and rear upper surface; exterior inspection. 1. OAT is 10C or less 2. Bulk fuel is 0C or less 3. Atmospheric conditions have been conducive to frost formation

162
Q

Taxi lights must be switched OFF whenever the airplane is stationary in excess of _____ minutes.

A

10

163
Q

What must be observed between a landing or rejected takeoff and a subsequent takeoff?

A

Brake cooling times. In order to ensure sufficient brake energy is available.

164
Q

Category II approaches are prohibited with RCC codes (Braking Action Codes) less than: _________.

A

“Medium”

165
Q

Crosswind component under _____ braking action is not limited by _____.

A

Good (5); Gusts.

166
Q

CC Code Wind Limits:

A

5: 10kt TW; 27kt CW (Not including gusts)
4: 10kt TW; 27kt CW (Including gusts)
3: 5kt TW; 15kt CW (Including gusts)
2: 5kt TW; 10kt CW (Including gusts)
1: 0kt TW; 10kt CW (Including gusts

167
Q

For dispatch to an airport use _____ winds.

A

Steady-state

168
Q

Inflight internet system is to be used only _____________.

A

In the passenger cabin.

169
Q

Live animals shall not be transported __________

A

In the forward cargo compartment.

170
Q

Autopilot use lowest authorized altitude (700) PAR/ILS approaches.

A

80’ AGL unless: GPA 3.5-4.0 and airport elevation is less than or equal to 4,000’: 120’ AGL GPA 3.5-4.0 and airport elevation greater than 4,000’: AP use PROHIBITED GPA greater than 4.0: AP use is PROHIBITED

171
Q

Autopilot use lowest authorized altitude (900) PAR/ILS approaches.

A

80’ AGL GPA greater than 3.5, AP use is PROHIBITED.

172
Q

In the 900, the minimum height for autopilot use OEI is?

A

110’ AGL

173
Q

Category II approaches ______ with the autopilot.

A

Must be flown.

174
Q

If an engine failure occurs during a climb while in “ALTS CAP” or just before “ALTS CAP” ________.

A

The airspeed may drop significantly below the safe operating speed. Crew intervention may be required to maintain safe operating speed.

175
Q

Use of ISI localizer and BC information is prohibited _______.

A

During LOC BC approaches.

176
Q

Before takeoff, the difference between the published field elevation and the altimeter display should not exceed _____.

A

75’

177
Q

In flight: primary and stand-by altimeters should be cross-checked _______.

A

At least every hour.

178
Q

If there is a difference greater than _______’ the altimeter system should ________/

A

200’, be reported to ATC as being defective.

179
Q

Airplane navigation must not be predicated upon ______.

A

Use of the terrain display.

180
Q

To avoid giving unwanted alerts, the terrain awareness alerting and display functions must be inhibited ________.

A

On takeoff, approach, or landing within 15NM of an airport not included in the EGPWS airport database.

181
Q

The terrain database, terrain displays, and alerting system do not ___________.

A

Account for man-made obstructions, except for all KNOWN man-made obstructions in Canada, the US and Mexico

182
Q

When would the EGPWS fail to alert when a terrain threat exists?

A

If GPS is inoperative during ambient surface temperatures below ISA, non-standard temperature lapse rates, or if incorrect barometric settings are set on the altimeter.

183
Q

How would you identify if GPS is inoperative?

A

LOSS OF INTEGRITY GNSS NOT AVAILABLE; GNSS-FMS DISAGREE messages on the FMS CDU

184
Q

FMS Prohibited Approaches:

A

RNAV (RNP), ILS, LOC, LOC/BC, LDA, and SDF

185
Q

FMS ________ information is advisory only

A

Thrust, range, fuel management and VNAV system information.

186
Q

FMS instrument approaches must not be continued past the ______ if an _________.

A

Final approach fix; FMS NO APPR message is displayed on the PFD.

187
Q

In aircraft with a dual FMS installation, if both CDUs and FMCs are operating normally, the system must be operated in ______ mode.

A

SYNC

188
Q

Use of the FMS ________ is prohibited

A

Temperature Compensation Function

189
Q

FMS generated altitudes and V-paths are ______.

A

Not corrected for non-ISA conditions.

190
Q

Changes to altitudes in the _____________ are prohibited.

A

Departure and missed approach procedures.

191
Q

Use of descent angles > 4.5 degrees at high altitude ___________.

A

May result in unintended acceleration beyond permitted speeds.

192
Q

The FMS does not provide automatic transition to the _____.

A

ILS

193
Q

Currently PSA does not serve any destination north of _____ latitude.

A

48N

194
Q

The _______ source coupled to the active ______ must be ___________ during flight in RVSM airspace.

A

ADC; FCC; the same as that coupled to the ATC transonder.

195
Q

In flight, prior to entering RVSM airspace __________.

A

All required equipment for operation in RVSM airspace must be operation.

196
Q

Maximum Cruise speed in RVSM airspace.

A

0.82M.

197
Q

Maximum weight forward cargo compartment (700 and 900)

A

700 = 1000lbs 900 = 1900lbs

198
Q

Maximum weight in aft cargo compartment 900

A

3740

199
Q

Pitch trim must be set according to the aircrafts _______. Failure to set the pitch trim appropriate to the computed _______ may result in _______.

A

Computed C.G; C.G; excessive rotation rate at take-off.

200
Q

What is an excessive rotation rate?

A

More than 3 degrees per second.

201
Q

Excessive rotation rates or _______ over rotations may lead to high pitch attitudes being attained while near the ground. This can ___________. Pilots must ___________ then _______.

A

Over-rotations Reduce stall margins significantly, resulting in stick shaker/pusher activation and potentially loss of control. Rotate smoothly towards the target pitch attitude Transition to speed control.

202
Q

Minimum PSI bleed pressure for Cross Bleed Starts.

A

42 PSI

203
Q

Immediate action items that do not have steps which must be accomplished from memory:

A
  1. L/R ENG OIL PRESS Msg. Or Oil Pressure Low 2. Aileron System Jammed 3. Rudder System Jammed 4. Elevator System Jammed 5. Uncommanded Yaw Motion 6. Unreliable Airspeed In-Flight
204
Q

Double-engine Failure:

A
  1. CONT IGNITION……..ON 2. Airspeed……………….240 KIAS minimum
205
Q

RVSM is from ______ to ________.

A

FL290 to FL410

206
Q

Maximum temperature for takeoff and landing:

A

ISA + 40C or OAT of 51C

207
Q

Braking Loss/Asymmetry

A
  1. Wheel brakes………………Release momentarily
  2. PM will select ANTI-SKID to OFF
  3. Wheel Brakes…………..Re-apply as required
  4. Reverse Thrust………….Apply maximum until stopping assured
208
Q

All CRJ 700 and 900 Weight Limits:

A

700:

Ramp/Taxi - 75,250

Takeoff - 75,000

Landing - 67,000

Zero Fuel - 62,300

900:

Ramp/Taxi - 85,000

Takeoff - 84,500

Landing - 75,100

Zero Fuel - 70,750

209
Q

All Flap and Gear Speeds

A

GEAR:

Landing Gear Extension: 220

Landing Gear Extended: 220

Landing Gear Retraction: 200

FLAPS:

Flaps 1: 230

Flaps 8: 230

Flaps 20: 220

Flaps 30: 185

Flaps 45: 170

Part 121 - CRJ 701/900 (25 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions