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Set 1 > *set 1.7 General anatomy > Flashcards

*set 1.7 General anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the smallest unit of heredity
a. Gene
b. Cell
c. Chromosome
d. Nucleotide

A

a. Gene

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2
Q

Which of the following is classified as a start codon?
a. AUG
b. UAG
c. UGA
d. UAA

A

a. AUG

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3
Q

What best describes the anatomic position
a. A person standing semi supine, with feet flat on the floor, face forward, with hands on the side, palms forward
b. A person standing upright, with feet flat on the floor, face forward, with hands not on the side, palms forward
c. A person standing upright, with feet flat on the floor, face sideward, with hands on the side, palms forward
d. A person standing upright, with feet flat on the floor, face forward, with hands on the side, palms forward

A

d. A person standing upright, with feet flat on the floor, face forward, with hands
on the side, palms forward

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4
Q

What plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves
a. Sagittal
b. Axial plane
c. Coronal plane
d. Para sagittal

A

c. Coronal plane

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5
Q

This lies between the right and left pleura in and near the median sagittal plane of the chest. It extends from the sternum in front to the vertebral column behind, and contains all the thoracic viscera except the lungs.
a. Thoracic cavity
b. Cardiothoracic cavity
c. Mediastinal cavity
d. Pleural cavity

A

c. Mediastinal cavity

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6
Q

The appendix is an organ found on which abdominal region
a. Right Iliac
b. Right Hypochondriac
c. Right Lumbar
d. Right Hypogastric region

A

a. Right Iliac

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7
Q

Proprioceptors are found in each of the following except
a. Pulp
b. PDL
c. Gingiva
d. TMJ

A

a. Pulp

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8
Q

Kidney, spleen, lymph nodes and bone marrow are what type of tissue?
a. Reticular
b. Cartilaginous
c. Adipose
d. Connective

A

a. Reticular

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9
Q

Which cellular junction is damaged in pemphigus vulgaris?
a. Macula adherens
b. Zona occludens
c. Pemphigus
d. Macula lutea

A

a. Macula adherens

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10
Q

The type of tissue present in the lining of kidney tubules, and ducts of salivary glands
a. Squamous
b. Cuboidal
c. Columnar
d. Oblique

A

b. Cuboidal

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11
Q

What is the functional unit of compact bone
a. Osteoid
b. Osteon
c. Osteocytes
d. Osteoblast

A

b. Osteon

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12
Q

The alveolar bone proper is also known as the cribriform plate because it microscopically reveals minute openings which represent?
a. Areas of osteoclastic activity
b. Regions of hematopoietic activity
c. Attachment sites of Sharpey’s fibers
d. Regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements

A

d. Regions for passage of vascular and nerve elements

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13
Q

Radiograph of which teeth is most likely to demonstrate the coronoid process of the mandible?
a. Mandibular molars
b. Maxillary molars
c. Mandibular 8’s
d. Mandibular anteriors

A

b. Maxillary molars

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14
Q

_ is a cone-shaped paired depression deep to the infratemporal fossa.
a. Pterygopalatine fossa
b. Sphenopalatine fossa
c. Pterygopalatine process
d. Sphenopalatine process

A

a. Pterygopalatine fossa

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15
Q

Intervals between the bones in the midline of the cranial base of a newborn child consists of:
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Fibrous cartilage
d. Fibrous connective tissue

A

a. Hyaline cartilage

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16
Q

Which cartilage can undergo ossification
a. Hyaline
b. Elastic
c. Fibrocartilage
d. Pseudocartilage

A

a. Hyaline

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17
Q

The articulating surfaces of the temporomandibular joint are covered by
a. Hyaline cartilage
b. Elastic cartilage
c. Vascular fibrous tissue
d. Fibrous or fibrocartilaginous tissue

A

d. Fibrous or fibrocartilaginous tissue

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18
Q

The bifurcation of the trachea lies at the level of the
a. Sternal angle
b. Xiphosternal junction
c. Second thoracic vertebra
d. Attachment of the fourth costal cartilage to the sternum

A

a. Sternal angle

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19
Q

Foramen transversarium is seen on all cervical vertebra except
a. c1
b. c3
c. c5
d. c7

A

d. c7

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20
Q

The most anterior bone of the pelvis is the
a. Ileum
b. Ilium
c. Ischium
d. Pubis

A

d. Pubis

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21
Q

The TMJ is classified as what type of lever?
a. class I
b. class II
c. Class III
d. Class B

A

c. Class III

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22
Q

This is considered as the main stabilizing ligament of the TMJ which prevents posterior and inferior displacement of the jaw
a. capsular ligament
b. lateral ligament
c. sphenomandibular ligament
d. stylomandibular ligament

A

b. lateral ligament

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23
Q

Which bone forms majority of the palate
a. palatine
b. maxilla
c. nasal
d. sphenoid

A

b. maxilla

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24
Q

What is the largest foramen in the human body?
a. Obturator foramen
b. Foramen magnum
c. Acetabulum
d. Subpubic foramen

A

a. Obturator foramen

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25
Q

What is the most commonly fractured facial bone?
a. Nasal bone
b. Zygomatic process
c. Ethmoid bone
d. Orbital bone

A

a. Nasal bone

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26
Q

The circulatory system of a near-term fetus differs from that of an adult in that, in the fetus, the
a. Ductus venosus carries unoxygenated blood
b. Ductus arteriosus carries fully oxygenated blood
c. Foramen ovale allows blood to pass primarily from the right atrium to the left atrium
d. NOTA

A

c. Foramen ovale allows blood to pass primarily from the right atrium to the left atrium

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27
Q

Ligamentous remnants of the fetal circulatory system persisting in the adult include the:
i. Ligamentum nuchae
ii. Ligamentum venosum
iii. Ligamentum arteriosum
iv. Ligamentum teres of the liver
v. Ligamentum teres of the uterus
a. i, ii, iii
b. i, ii, v
c. i, iv, v
d. ii, iii, iv

A

d. ii, iii, iv

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28
Q

Where are one way valves in the circulatory system located?
a. Arteries
b. Arterioles
c. Veins
d. Capillaries

A

c. Veins

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29
Q

A patient with blood antigen a and blood antigen b have what blood type?
a. A
b. B
c. AB
d. O

A

c. AB

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30
Q

Which of the following factors is responsible for platelet aggregation and adherence
a. VW factor
b. Hagemann
c. Factor V
d. Christmas factor

A

a. VW factor

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31
Q

Which ion serves as a clotting factor in blood coagulation?
a. Magnesium
b. Sodium
c. Potassium
d. Calcium

A

d. Calcium

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32
Q

What is the function of the most numerous cell of the body
a. Fight of infections
b. Trigger an ag ab complex
c. Transport oxygen
d. Protection form UV rays

A

c. Transport oxygen

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33
Q

Epistaxis would likely have been caused by damage to the following blood vessels, except
a. lesser palatine artery.
b. sphenopalatine artery.
c. superior labial artery.
d. anterior ethmoid arteries of internal carotid artery.

A

d. anterior ethmoid arteries of internal carotid artery.

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34
Q

Which of the following layers is thickest in veins?
a. Tunica intima
b. Tunica adventitia
c. Tunica media
d. Vasa vasorum

A

b. Tunica adventitia

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35
Q

The most abundant blood plasma protein
a. Globulins
b. Transport proteins
c. Albumin
d. Fibrinogens

A

c. Albumin

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36
Q

The AV node is an area of specialized tissue between the atria and the ventricles of the heart. The AV node is considered the pacemaker of the heart.
a. The first statement is false, second one is true.
b. Both statements are true.
c. Both statements are false.
d. The first statement is true, second one is false.

A

d. The first statement is true, second one is false.

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37
Q

Sinusoids are commonly seen in which of the following organs?
a. Liver
b. Spleen
c. Bone marrow
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

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38
Q

Vessels supplying blood to the walls of large arteries and veins are known as
a. Arterioles
b. Capillaries
c. Vasa vasorum
d. Artereveniolites

A

c. Vasa vasorum

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39
Q

If fat accumulates in the heart, it is usually seen where?
a. Epicardium
b. Myocardium
c. Endocardium
d. Adipocardium

A

a. Epicardium

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40
Q

A hormone secreted by the atria of the heart, lowers blood pressure by causing vasodilation and by stimulating the kidneys to excrete more water and Na+
a. Renin
b. Angiotensin
c. Serotonin
d. Atrial natriuretic peptide

A

d. Atrial natriuretic peptide

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41
Q

Which blood vessel is commonly affected during a cerebrovascular accident?
a. Junction of anterior communicating and anterior cerebral artery
b. Middle cerebral artery
c. Lenticulo striae
d. Middle cerebellar artery

A

c. Lenticulo striae

42
Q

The average life span of platelets
a. 5 days
b. 7 days
c. 10 days
d. 15 days

A

c. 10 days

43
Q

Which of the following describes a nuclei?
a. A group of cell bodies in the CNS
b. A group of cell bodies in the PNS
c. A group of axons in the CNS
d. A group of axons in the PNS

A

a. A group of cell bodies in the CNS

44
Q

A form of nerve injury in which the axon is damaged, but the connective sheath remains intact.
a. Neuropraxia
b. Neurotmesis
c. Axonotmesis
d. Myelinetmesis

A

c. Axonotmesis

45
Q

Damage to the right side of the frontal lobe of the brain may result in
a. Abnormal pain sensations
b. Paresthesia
c. Ipsilateral paralysis
d. Contralateral paralysis

A

d. Contralateral paralysis

46
Q

The pathway for pain and temperature is _
a. Tyrosine
b. lateral spinothalamic tract
c. corticospinal
d. phenylalanine

A

b. lateral spinothalamic tract

47
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates the muscle for eye closure
a. CN VI
b. CN IV
c. CN III
d. CN VII

48
Q

Which part of the brain do antipyretics work due to its function of thermoregulation
a. Primary sensory cortex
b. Pre central gyrus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Thalamus

A

c. Hypothalamus

49
Q

If the chorda tympani is severed, there is:
a. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of the tongue
b. Loss of touch sense and taste on posterior two-thirds of the tongue
c. Paralysis of muscles of expression on same side
d. Paralysis of muscles of expression on contralateral side

A

a. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of the tongue

50
Q

The PSAN, MSAN and ASAN of the maxillary nerve is collectively known as the
a. Outer nerve loop
b. Inner nerve loop
c. Bochdalek ganglion
d. Valentin ganglion

A

a. Outer nerve loop

51
Q

Nerve responsible for the motor activity during gag reflex
a. CN IX and X
b. CN IX
c. CN X
d. NOTA

52
Q

The segment of a skeletal muscle fiber found between two Z disks is the
a. Sarcolemma
b. I band
c. Sarcomere
d. A band

A

c. Sarcomere

53
Q

What structure separates the sublingual and submandibular salivary glands?
a. Tongue
b. Mylohyoid muscle
c. Inferior border of the mandible
d. Mental symphysis

A

b. Mylohyoid muscle

54
Q

Main muscle for mouth opening?
a. External pterygoid
b. Temporalis
c. Omohyoid
d. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

A

d. Anterior belly of the digastric muscle

55
Q

Unilateral contraction of the external pterygoid will result in
a. Ipsilateral movement of the jaw
b. contralateral movement of the jaw
c. oblique movement of the jaw
d. protrusion of the jaw

A

b. contralateral movement of the jaw

56
Q

Prime extensor of the forearm
a. triceps brachii
b. biceps brachii
c. brachialis
d. latisimus dorsi

A

a. triceps brachii

57
Q

All muscles of the tongue are innervated by CNXII except
a. Genioglossus
b. inferior longtitudinal
c. superior longtitudinal
d. Palatoglossus

A

d. Palatoglossus

58
Q

The pterygomandibular space is bounded posteriorly by the
a. parotid gland
b. Buccinator
c. condyle of the mandible
d. lingula

A

a. parotid gland

59
Q

Which muscle forms the anterolateral portion of the pterygomandibular raphe
a. Superior constrictor pharyngeal
b. Inferior constrictor pharyngeal
c. Buccinator
d. Temporalis

A

c. Buccinator

60
Q

The masseteric space is a space bounded by the _aspect of the mandible and _ aspect of the masseter
a. Superior – inferior
b. Inferior – superior
c. Medial – lateral
d. Lateral – medial

A

d. Lateral – medial

61
Q

The origin of the internal pterygoid is the?
a. Medial surface of the lateral pterygoid of mandible
b. Medial surface of the medial pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone
c. Lateral surface of lateral mandibular plate of mandible
d. Medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone

A

d. Medial surface of lateral pterygoid plate of sphenoid bone

62
Q

All of the following are not intrinsic muscles of the tongue except
a. Genioglossus
b. Oblique
c. Vertical
d. Uvula

A

c. Vertical

63
Q

All of the following are considered strap muscles except
a. Thyrohyoid
b. Sternothyroid
c. Sternohyoid
d. Sternopharyngeus

A

d. Sternopharyngeus

64
Q

Which extrinsic tongue muscle is responsible for inferior movement of the tongue
a. Genioglossus
b. Styloglossus
c. Palatoglossus
d. Hyoglossus

A

d. Hyoglossus

65
Q

The infrahyoid muscles receive their motor innervation from:
a. The pharyngeal plexus
b. Branches of the cervical plexus
c. The vagus nerve
d. Supraclavicular nerves

A

b. Branches of the cervical plexus

66
Q

What mucosa lines the portion of the oral cavity that is highly prone to friction?
a. Lining mucosa
b. Masticatory mucosa
c. Specialized mucosa
d. Advanced mucosa

A

b. Masticatory mucosa

67
Q

Which papillae are responsible for bitter taste
a. filiform
b. fungiform
c. lingual
d. circumvallate

A

b. fungiform

68
Q

Which of the following papillae of the tongue are the largest, least numerous, have many taste buds, and are associated with the ducts of von Ebner’s glands?
A. Foliate
B. Filiform
C. Fungiform
D. Circumvallate

A

D. Circumvallate

69
Q

The passageway between the oral cavity and pharynx
a. Tonsils
b. Fauces
c. Oropharynx
d. Nasopharynx

70
Q

Which of the following muscles form lateral boundaries of the isthmus of the fauces?
a. Palatoglossus and Palatopharyngeus
b. Palatoglossus and Tensor Veli Palatini
c. Palatoglossus and Levator Veli Palatini
d. Palatopharyngeus and Medial Pterygoid

A

a. Palatoglossus and Palatopharyngeus

71
Q

Lymphatics tissues formed by the two palatine tonsils, the pharyngeal tonsil, tubual tonsil, the lingual tonsil, and intervening lymphoid tissue and acts as first line of defense against microbes entering from nasal and oral routes.
a. Waldeyers
b. Pharyngeal
c. Fauces
d. Isthmus

A

a. Waldeyers

72
Q

What salivary gland may be inflamed due to mumps
a. Submandibular
b. Sublingual
c. Parotid
d. Von Ebner’s

A

c. Parotid

73
Q

Demilunes of Giannuzzi may be seen on all of the following glands except
a. Submandibular gland
b. Submaxillary gland
c. Sublingual gland
d. Parotid gland

A

d. Parotid gland

74
Q

Which of the following is the principal immunoglobulin for exocrine secretions
a. IgG
b. IgE
c. IgA
d. IgD

75
Q

Which oral landmark marks the opening of the submandibular duct?
a. Whartons
b. Caruncle
c. Stensens
d. Bartholins

A

b. Caruncle

76
Q

Segment of the small intestine with the most vili and microvilli
a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Ilium
d. Ileum

A

b. Jejunum

77
Q

Cyanocobalamin is absorbed in the
a. Duodenum
b. Jejunum
c. Ilium
d. Ileum

78
Q

Brunner’s glands are glands responsible for producing an alkaline mucuous. It is found at the submucosa of the
a. Stomach
b. Duodenum
c. Jejunum
d. Ileum

A

b. Duodenum

79
Q

The hepatic portal vein is usually formed by the union of the _ vein
a. Superior mesenteric vein and the splenic
b. Left renal vein and the inferior mesenteric
c. Inferior vena cava and the superior mesenteric
d. Superior mesenteric vein and the inferior mesenteric

A

a. Superior mesenteric vein and the splenic

80
Q

What type of gland secretes its product directly into the bloodstream?
a. Endocrine gland
b. Multicellular gland
c. Exocrine gland
d. All of the above

A

a. Endocrine gland

81
Q

The only organ in the body that has both exocrine and endocrine functions?
a. Pancreas
b. Thyroid
c. Spleen
d. Adrenal gland

A

a. Pancreas

82
Q

Which cells of the pancreas is triggered by low blood glucose levels
a. Alpha cells
b. Beta cells
c. Delta cells
d. F cells

A

a. Alpha cells

83
Q

Which is not a secretion of adrenal cortex
a. Cortisol
b. sex hormones
c. Aldosterone
d. Adrenalin

A

d. Adrenalin

84
Q

The primary stress hormone of the body is produced by which portion of the adrenal cortex
a. Zona Glomerulosa
b. Zona Fasciculata
c. Zona reticularis
d. Adrenal medulla

A

b. Zona Fasciculata

85
Q

Oxyphil cells are characteristic of which organ?
a. Pineal body
b. exocrine portion of pancreas
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Parathyroid

A

d. Parathyroid

86
Q

What is the lining of the urinary bladder when it is full
b. Cuboidal
c. Columnar
d. Squamous
e. Smooth

A

d. Squamous

87
Q

In the human, a renal papilla projects directly into the:
a. Ureter
b. Minor calyx
c. Major calyx
d. Renal pelvis

A

b. Minor calyx

88
Q

Which cells are responsible for detecting sodium concentration in the distal convoluted tubules
a. juxtaglomerular cells
b. Renin
c. goblet cells
d. macula densa

A

d. macula densa

89
Q

In which segment of the nephron does the tubular fluid have the highest osmolality?
a. bowman’s capsule
b. henle’s loop
c. proximal tubule
d. distal tubules

A

b. henle’s loop

90
Q

The shortest and least distensible portion of the male urethra
a. penile urethra
b. spongy urethra
c. membranous urethra
d. prostatic urethra

A

c. membranous urethra

91
Q

This is where mature sperm cells are stored
a. Seminal vesicles
b. Epididymis
c. Testes
d. Scrotum

A

b. Epididymis

92
Q

The sperm penetrates the egg cell using which part?
a. Midpiece of the tail
b. Acrosome
c. Chemotactor
d. Flagella

A

b. Acrosome

93
Q

What gland is found at the neck of the urinary bladder?
a. Prostate gland
b. Cowpers gland
c. Cervical gland
d. Corpora cavernosa

A

a. Prostate gland

94
Q

Which portion the of inner ear responsible for hearing and contains two membranes, the vestibular and basilar?
a. Semicircular canals
b. Cochlea
c. Auditory tube
d. Vestibule

A

b. Cochlea

95
Q

_ is the part of the eye that controls the size of the pupil.
a. Cornea
b. Sclera
c. Iris
d. Retina

96
Q

Part of the eye wherein there is absence of both rods and cones
a. Fovea centralis
b. Macula lutea
c. Ishiharas area
d. Optic disc

A

d. Optic disc

97
Q

Suspensory ligament of the breasts which prevents it from sagging
a. Broad ligament
b. Mammalian ligament
c. Mesovarium
d. Coopers ligament

A

d. Coopers ligament

98
Q

The narrowest portion of the oviduct is the
a. Ampulla of oviduct
b. Infundibulum
c. Isthmus
d. Ciliated

A

c. Isthmus

99
Q

These are lymph nodes that receive Iymph from a strip of scalp above the parotid salivary gland, from the anterior wall of the external auditory meatus, and from the lateral parts of the eyelids and middle ear.
a. Parotid lymph node
b. Submandibular lymph node
c. Submental lymph node
d. Supramental lymph node

A

a. Parotid lymph node

100
Q

_ are the last portion of the conducting pathway; they lead to respiratory bronchioles, which are the first segments of the respiratory zone
a. Respiratory bronchioles
b. Bronchi
c. Primary bronchioles
d. Terminal bronchioles

A

d. Terminal bronchioles

Set 1 (12 decks)

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