Day 1 compiled Flashcards
What is the diagnostic modality commonly used for evaluating hepatitis and blood related conditons?
a. Serology
b. Radiography
c. Histopathology
d. Biopsy
a. Serology
Which dental condition is characterized by the presence of palisading columnar cells?
a. Ameloblastoma
b. Odontoma
c. Den gerous cyst
d. Cementoblastoma
a. Ameloblastoma
What is the treatment of choice for candidiasis, excluding nystatin as an option?
a. Amphotericin B
b. Ketoconazole
c. Clotrimazole
d. Fluconazole
c. Clotrimazole
What is the recommended treatment for central giant cell granuloma (ceot)?
a. Extraction
b. Resection
c. Root canal therapy
d. Antibiotics
b. Resection
Which type of papillae on the tongue has the largest and least number of taste buds?
a. Circumvallate
b. Fungiform
c. Filiform
d. Foliate
a. Circumvallate
Taste buds primarily represent bitter taste?
a. Foliate
b. Fungiform
c. Filliform
d. Circumvallate
d. Circumvallate
The derivatives of the gastrointestinal tract originate from which embryonic germ layer?
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Exoderm
c. Endoderm
The derivatives of the brain are derived from which embryonic germ layer?
a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Exoderm
a. Ectoderm
Which tooth exhibits a pronounced concavity on the mesial surface?
a. Maxillary lateral incisor
b. Mandibular first molar
c. Maxillary first premolar
d. Mandibular central incisor
c. Maxillary first premolar
What is the start codon in a DNA strand?
a. TAC
b. ATG
c. CGA
d. TAG
b. ATG
Which muscle is responsible for depression and side-to-side movement of the mandible?
a. External pterygoid
b. Masseter
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Temporalis
a. External pterygoid
The posterior fibers of which muscle are responsible for retrusion of the mandible?
a. Temporalis
b. Masseter
c. Medial pterygoid
d. External pterygoid
a. Temporalis
Which salivary gland is purely serous in nature?
a. Von Ebners Gland
b. Parotid gland
c. Submandibular gland
d. Sublingual gland
a. Von Ebners Gland
Topographically, where is the carina located?
a. Between T3 and T4 level
b. T4-T5 level
c. T2-T3 level
d. Between T4 and T5 level
d. Between T4 and T5 level
What term is used for a cloudy solution of colloid?
a. Transparent gel
b. Solid mass
c. Clear solution
d. Cloudy solution
d. Cloudy solution
What is the smallest unit of hereditary information?
a. Allele
b. Genome
c. Chromosome
d. Gene
d. Gene
Where are the Valves of Kerckring found in the gastrointestinal tract?
a. Jejunum
b. Ileum
c. Duodenum
d. Colon
a. Jejunum
In which quadrant is the spleen located?
a. Right upper
b. Left upper
c. Right lower
d. Left lower
b. Left upper
What is the innermost layer of blood vessels called?
a. Tunica media
b. Tunica intima
c. Tunica adventitia
d. Tunica externa
b. Tunica intima
What is the functional unit of bone?
a. Osteocyte
b. Osteoblast
c. Haversian system
d. Osteon
d. Osteon
Where does the origin of the periodontal ligament (PDL) occur?
a. Dental sac
b. Dental follicle
c. Alveolar bone
d. Cementum
a. Dental sac
What is the most common type of white blood cell in acute inflammation?
a. PMN or neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Monocytes
d. Eosinophils
a. PMN or neutrophils
Neurofibromatosis is characterized by the presence of:
a. Café au lait spots
b. Petechiae
c. Vesicles
d. Purpura
a. Café au lait spots
What structural feature appears as lines of retizius?
a. Enamel rods
b. Den nal tubules
c. Cementum
d. Perikymata
d. Perikymata
Site of protein synthesis?
a. Dictyosomes
b. Ribosomes
c. Rough ER
d. Nucleolus
b. Ribosomes
Where are enamel tufts primarily located in relation to dental structure?
a. Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)
b. Pulp chamber
c. Cementoenamel junction (CEJ)
d. Dentin tubules
a. Dentinoenamel junction (DEJ)
Digeorge syndrome is associated with a decrease in which elements?
a. Calcium (Ca2+) and iron (Fe)
b. Calcium (Ca2+) and T cells
c. Potassium (K+) and B cells
d. Sodium (Na+) and platelets
b. Calcium (Ca2+) and T cells
Hematoma is commonly associated with which type of shock?
a. Neurogenic shock
b. Septic shock
c. Cardiogenic shock
d. Hypovolemic shock
d. Hypovolemic shock
What structure is involved in determining the number of roots in tooth development?
a. Dental pulp
b. Epithelial diaphragm
c. Periodontal ligament (PDL)
d. Cementoenamel junction (CEJ)
b. Epithelial diaphragm
Nikolsky sign is a clinical indication seen in which dermatological condition?
a. Psoriasis
b. Eczema
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
d. Rosacea
c. Pemphigus vulgaris
Which facial structure is derived from the 1st brachial arch?
a. Maxillary process
b. Frontonasal process
c. Mandibular process
d. Nasal placode
c. Mandibular process
What is the embryonic precursor to the oral cavity?
a. Buccopharyngeal membrane
b. Stomodeum
c. Oropharyngeal membrane
d. Nasal pit
b. Stomodeum
Passive eruption is associated with the exposure of the crown due to which condition?
a. Gingival hyperplasia
b. Recession of gingiva
c. Supernumerary teeth
d. Ankylosis
b. Recession of gingiva
What determines the number of roots to be formed during tooth development?
a. Dental sac
b. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS)
c. Epithelial diaphragm
d. Enamel organ
c. Epithelial diaphragm
*HERS if there is no epithelial diaphragm in the choices
What is the primary role of the Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS) in tooth development?
a. Formation of dentinal tubules
b. Shaping the roots
c. Inducing enamel formation
d. Development of the pulp chamber
d. Development of the pulp chamber
What are lysosomes primarily composed of in a cell?
a. Nucleic acids
b. Lipids
c. Biologically active enzymes
d. Proteins
c. Biologically active enzymes
Which dental technique involves the etching of both enamel and dentin?
a. Selective etch technique
b. Total etch technique
c. Self-etch technique
d. Acid-etching technique
b. Total etch technique
What type of pin is known for being the most retenive in restorative dentistry?
a. Smooth
b. Serrated
c. Threaded
d. Helical
c. Threaded
What does RA 481 aim to achieve in the dental care system?
a. Increased dental insurance coverage
b. More efficient dental care for armed forces
c. Promotion of oral hygiene products
d. Regulation of dental education
b. More efficient dental care for armed forces
In deciduous dentition, how are enamel rods oriented?
a. Horizontally
b. Vertical
c. Spiral
d. Angled occlusally
d. Angled occlusally
In blade angle notation, what does “12-9-14” represent?
a. 14 degrees
b. 12 degrees
c. 9 degrees
d. 12 to 14 degrees
a. 14 degrees
Which instruments are commonly used for cavity preparation in dentistry?
a. Scissors and forceps
b. Hatchet and excavator
c. Excavator and probe
d. Mirror and explorer
b. Hatchet and excavator
How many hours are typically required before polishing amalgam restorations?
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 48 hours
c. 24 hours
What type of pin is generally considered the most retentive in restorative dentistry?
a. Smooth
b. Serrated
c. Threaded
d. Helical
c. Threaded
What should be done if a tooth becomes contaminated with saliva after etching?
a. Rinse and dry
b. Apply bonding agent
c. Proceed with restoration
d. Re-etch the tooth
d. Re-etch the tooth
Which material inhibits polymerization in composite restorations?
a. Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE)
b. Glass ionomer cement (GIC)
c. Calcium hydroxide
d. Amalgam
a. Zinc oxide eugenol (ZOE)
What does the sandwich technique involve in dental restorations?
a. Using multiple layers of composite
b. Placing a layer of GIC between two composite layers
c. Applying a layer of calcium hydroxide under composite
d. Using a combination of amalgam and composite
b. Placing a layer of GIC between two composite layers
What is an incorrect statement regarding the toxicity of mercury?
a. Mercury is only poisonous if mercury-containing food is eaten.
b. Inhalation of mercury vapors can be toxic.
c. Ingesting mercury can lead to toxicity.
d. Mercury exposure can harm the nervous system.
a. Mercury is only poisonous if mercury-containing food is eaten.
In epidemiology, what does the term “incidence rate” refer to?
a. Total number of cases
b. New cases in a population
c. Cumulative cases over time
d. Prevalence of a disease
b. New cases in a population
What term is used to describe a disease that is limited to a certain geographic region?
a. Epidemic
b. Pandemic
c. Outbreak
d. Endemic
d. Endemic
What is the most commonly used fluoride in dental applications?
a. Sodium fluoride
b. Calcium fluoride
c. Potassium fluoride
d. Hydrofluoric acid
a. Sodium fluoride
Which nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle?
a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b. Inferior laryngeal nerve
c. Superior laryngeal nerve
d. Hypoglossal nerve
c. Superior laryngeal nerve
Nerves in the pulp are?
a. Sympathe c-efferent
b. Sympathe c-afferent
c. Parasympathe c-efferent
d. Parasympathe c-afferent
b. Sympathe c-afferent
What is the primary function is to control blood pressure in the cardiovascular system?
a. Arteries
b. Veins
c. Arterioles
d. Venules
c. Arterioles
Which major artery supplies blood to the mandibular teeth?
a. Maxillary artery
b. Facial artery
c. Lingual artery
d. Inferior alveolar artery
a. Maxillary artery
Where does the sarcomere start and end in a muscle fiber?
a. A band
b. H zone
c. I band
d. Z line
d. Z line
All these elevate the mandible, except?
a. Mylohyoid
b. Temporalis
c. Medial pterygoid
d. Lateral pterygoid
a. Mylohyoid
Collagen in dentin and bone is primarily composed of which type?
a. Type 2
b. Type 3
c. Type 1
d. Type 4
c. Type 1
Collagen found in cartilage is primarily composed of which type?
a. Type 1
b. Type 2
c. Type 3
d. Type 4
b. Type 2
In which anatomical structures are osteocytes found?
a. Canaliculi
b. Lacunae
c. Haversian canals
d. Volkmann’s canals
b. Lacunae
What does the ductus arteriosus connect in fetal circulation?
a. Right atrium to left atrium
b. Pulmonary artery to aorta
c. Right ventricle to left ventricle
d. Superior vena cava to inferior vena cava
b. Pulmonary artery to aorta
What is another term for dental plaque?
a. Microflora
b. Microorganisms
c. Microcosm
d. Microstructure
c. Microcosm
What is the female counterpart of the bulbourethral gland in males?
a. Bartholin’s gland
b. Skene’s gland
c. Paraurethral gland
d. Mammary gland
a. Bartholin’s gland
In the lamina propria of marginal gingiva, which fiber subgroup is arranged in a circular pattern?
a. Transseptal group
b. Dentogingival group
c. Alveologingival group
d. Circular group
d. Circular group
Periapical and radicular cysts are derived from which dental structure?
a. Dental pulp
b. Dental follicle
c. Rests of Malassez
d. Dental sac
c. Rests of Malassez
Which fiber group in the periodontal ligament (PDL) primarily resists tooth movement in occlusion?
a. Horizontal group
b. Oblique group
c. Apical group
d. Interradicular group
c. Apical group
What structures merge to form the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?
a. Median lingual swelling and lateral lingual swelling
b. Lateral lingual swelling
c. Copula and tuberculum impar
d. Median lingual swelling and copula
b. Lateral lingual swelling
What is the structure responsible for root development and is the most cervical portion of the enamel organ?
a. Cervical loop
b. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS)
c. OEE (outer enamel epithelium)
d. IEE (inner enamel epithelium)
a. Cervical loop
What is the primary purpose of Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS) in tooth development?
a. Initiating enamel formation
b. Inducing radicular formation
c. Shaping the root and inducing dentin formation
d. Forming the pulp chamber
c. Shaping the root and inducing dentin formation
What is a distinguishing feature of root dentin that is not present in crown dentin?
a. Tomes granular layer
b. Interglobular dentin
c. Peritubular dentin
d. Mantle dentin
a. Tomes granular layer
What term describes areas of unmineralized dentin where globular zones of mineralization have failed to fuse into a homogeneous mass within matured dentin?
a. Globular dentin
b. Interglobular dentin
c. Peritubular dentin
d. Mantle dentin
b. Interglobular dentin
Junctional epithelium attaches gingival tissue using which cellular structures?
a. Desmosomes
b. Gap junctions
c. Tight junctions
d. Hemidesmosomes
d. Hemidesmosomes
Why are dentinal tubules S-shaped in the crown of the tooth?
a. Overcrowding of odontoblasts
b. Helical arrangement of collagen fibers
c. Presence of enamel rods
d. Formation of interglobular dentin
a. Overcrowding of odontoblasts
Among permanent teeth, which type of teeth have labial ridges?
a. Max Incisors
b. Man and Max Canines
c. Max and Man Premolars
d. Man Molars
b. Man and Max Canines
In the classification of pediatric patients, which factor is NOT used?
a. Weight
b. Age
c. Dental development
d. Emotional maturity
a. Weight
When the oral cavity exhibits a reduction in saliva, which of the following potential findings is NOT expected?
a. Altered taste perception
b. Dry oral mucosa
c. Increased risk of perio disease
d. Reduced gingival bleeding
c. Increased risk of perio disease
In a dental examination, which of the following is NOT typically assessed regarding breath odors?
a. Halitosis
b. Ketosis
c. Ammonia
d. Carcinoma
d. Carcinoma
Which area of the tongue has the greatest predisposition to carcinoma?
a. Dorsal surface
b. Ventral surface
c. Lateral borders
d. Lingual papillae
c. Lateral borders
Which statement is NOT true regarding parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
a. Secreted when there is an increase in calcium level
b. Regulates calcium and phosphate balance
c. Stimulates osteoclast activity
d. Enhances renal reabsorption of calcium
a. Secreted when there is an increase in calcium level
Which statement is NOT true regarding calcitonin?
a. Secreted by the thyroid gland
b. Inhibits osteoclast activity
c. Lowers blood calcium levels
d. Acts similar to parathyroid hormone (PTH)
d. Acts similar to parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Which proteoglycan is present in the extracellular space and has anticoagulant properties?
a. Heparin
b. Chondroitin sulfate
c. Hyaluronic acid
d. Dermatan sulfate
a. Heparin
What is true about hydroxyapatite?
a. It becomes less soluble if it contains carbonate ions.
b. It is unaffected by carbonate ions.
c. It becomes more soluble if it contains carbonate ions.
d. It is insoluble in water.
c. It becomes more soluble if it contains carbonate ions.
Which process is NOT a true component of swallowing?
a. Contraction of pharyngeal muscles
b. Movement of the tongue against the palate
c. Closure of the epiglottis
d. Relaxation of the lower esophageal sphincter
b. Movement of the tongue against the palate
What is the primary function of partial pressure in gas exchange?
a. Oxygen transport in the blood
b. Exhalation of carbon dioxide
c. Exchange of gases in the alveoli
d. Regulation of blood pressure
d. Regulation of blood pressure
When a person lies down, what immediate physiological change occurs?
a. Increased venous return
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Lowered blood pressure
d. Reduced respiratory rate
a. Increased venous return
What gastric secretion is essential for human life?
a. Pepsinogen
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Intrinsic factor
d. Gastrin
c. Intrinsic factor
What is the pacemaker of the heart?
a. Atrioventricular node (AV node)
b. Bundle of His
c. Sinoatrial node (SA node)
d. Purkinje fibers
c. Sinoatrial node (SA node)
Which cellular organelle is known as the powerhouse of the cell?
a. Golgi apparatus
b. Endoplasmic reticulum
c. Lysosome
d. Mitochondria
d. Mitochondria
What condition results in the inability of oxygen exchange through lung tissue?
a. Hypoxemic hypoxia
b. Histotoxic hypoxia
c. Ischemic hypoxia
d. Anemic hypoxia
b. Histotoxic hypoxia
What is the consequence of a lack of adrenocorcotropic hormone (ACTH) cholinesterase?
a. Excessive continuous muscle stimulation
b. Muscle weakness
c. Increased pain sensitivity
d. Delayed muscle contraction
a. Excessive continuous muscle stimulation
Night blindness is associated with a deficiency in which vitamin?
a. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin A
d. Vitamin E
c. Vitamin A
What is true about the autonomic nervous system (ANS)?
a. Cranial nerve 7 (CN7) and cranial nerve 9 (CN9) carry sympathetic signals to salivary glands.
b. Cranial nerve 10 (CN10) carries parasympathetic signals to salivary glands.
c. Sympathetic signals are transmitted through the vagus nerve.
d. Parasympathetic signals are transmitted through the glossopharyngeal nerve.
a. Cranial nerve 7 (CN7) and cranial nerve 9 (CN9) carry sympathetic signals to salivary glands.
In a 20-year-old patient with hyperacidity, where would you expect the discomfort?
a. Hypogastric region
b. Epigastric region
c. Right hypochondriac region
d. Left iliac region
b. Epigastric region
Regarding motor innervation of the tongue and sensation, which statement is correct?
a. Cranial nerve 12 (CN12) supplies all motor functions of the tongue, including palatoglossus.
b. Sensation of the anterior two-thirds of the tongue is carried by the chorda tympani.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Neither statement is true.
c. Both statements are true.
Among the functions of cranial nerve 7 (CN7), which gland does it NOT supply?
a. Submandibular gland
b. Sublingual gland
c. Lacrimal gland
d. Parotid gland
b. Sublingual gland
Which cell type maintains the bone matrix?
a. Osteocyte
b. Osteoblast
c. Osteoclast
d. Osteon
a. Osteocyte
Which hormone is NOT secreted by the kidney?
a. Vasopressin
b. Erythropoietin
c. Renin
d. Calcitriol
a. Vasopressin
Which lymph node shows enlargement due to mandibular incisors?
a. Submandibular
b. Jugulodigastric
c. Submental
d. Superficial cervical
c. Submental
Among the following, which component is NOT found in RNA?
a. Adenine
b. Uracil
c. Guanine
d. Thymine
d. Thymine
When does the embryology of the face begin?
a. 2nd week
b. 4th week
c. 6th week
d. 8th week
b. 4th week
Which statement is NOT true regarding tooth development?
a. The dental lamina contains densely packed fibroblasts and blood vessels.
b. Tooth development involves reciprocal interactions between oral epithelium and mesenchyme.
c. The dental papilla gives rise to dentin and pulp.
d. Enamel is formed by ameloblasts derived from the inner enamel epithelium.
a. The dental lamina contains densely packed fibroblasts and blood vessels.
Which statement is NOT true regarding osteogenesis?
a. Endochondral ossification is the process by which long bones develop.
b. The flat bones of the skull develop through intramembranous ossification.
c. Osteoblasts play a crucial role in bone formation.
d. The clavicle is formed through endochondral ossification.
b. The flat bones of the skull develop through intramembranous ossification.
Occlusion of which artery can result in heart block?
a. Circumflex artery
b. Posterior interventricular artery
c. Le marginal artery
d. Anterior interventricular artery
d. Anterior interventricular artery
Which muscle attaches to the anterior end of the articular disk of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
a. Masseter
b. Temporalis
c. Medial pterygoid (inferior head)
d. Lateral pterygoid (superior head)
d. Lateral pterygoid (superior head)
What type of joint is a costochondral joint?
a. Synarthrosis
b. Amphiarthrosis
c. Diarthrosis
d. Symphysis
a. Synarthrosis
The nerve of cranial nerve 5 (CN5) that innervates the mandibular teeth exits through which anatomical structure?
a. Foramen spinosum
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Foramen magnum
c. Foramen ovale
Pyloromyotomy is a surgical procedure performed in which region of the body?
a. Abdomen
b. Cardiovascular
c. Head and neck
d. Respiratory
b. Cardiovascular
Which structure is NOT found in the greater wing of the sphenoid bone?
a. Optic canal
b. Foramen rotundum
c. Foramen ovale
d. Foramen spinosum
a. Optic canal
Which sensory receptors are NOT considered accessory organs of the skin?
a. Merkel cells
b. Meissner’s corpuscles
c. Pacinian corpuscles
d. Pain receptors
d. Pain receptors
What is the motor and sensory supply of the diaphragm?
a. Phrenic nerve
b. Vagus
c. Intercostal
d. Parasympathetic nerves:
a. Phrenic nerve
Among the following, which cusps are NOT considered supporting cusps?
a. Mandibular buccal cusps
b. Maxillary palatal cusps
c. Mandibular lingual cusps
d. Maxillary buccal cusps
c. Mandibular lingual cusps
Among the following, which cusps are NOT considered guiding cusps?
a. Maxillary buccal cusps
b. Mandibular buccal cusps
c. Maxillary lingual cusps
d. Mandibular lingual cusps
a. Maxillary buccal cusps
Among the primary maxillary molars, which cusp is absent or reduced?
a. Mesiolingual cusp
b. Distobuccal cusp
c. Distolingual cusp
d. Mesiobuccal cusp
c. Distolingual cusp
In which teeth are lingual developmental grooves commonly found?
a. Maxillary incisors
b. Mandibular incisors
c. Mandibular molars
d. Maxillary molars
d. Maxillary molars
How do mandibular molars differ from maxillary molars in terms of root morphology?
a. Both have transverse roots.
b. Both have oblique roots.
c. Mandibular molars have transverse roots, while maxillary molars have oblique roots.
d. Mandibular molars have oblique roots, while maxillary molars have transverse roots.
c. Mandibular molars have transverse roots, while maxillary molars have oblique roots.
Muscle that do mandibular protrusion, retraction and rotation of articulating surfaces of the mandible against the disk?
a. Muscles of Mastication
b. Buccinator and Lateral Pterygoid
c. Medial Pterygoid and Masseter
d. External and Medial Pterygoid
a. Muscles of Mastication
What is the most cervical portion of the enamel organ?
a. Outer enamel epithelium (OEE)
b. Inner enamel epithelium (IEE)
c. Hertwig’s epithelial root sheath (HERS)
d. Cervical loop
d. Cervical loop
What type of epithelium is found in the oral mucosa?
a. Stratified squamous keratinized
b. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
c. Simple squamous
d. Stratified columnar
b. Stratified squamous non-keratinized
What is the nerve supply to the motor function of the buccinator muscle?
a. Cranial nerve 5 (CN5)
b. Cranial nerve 9 (CN9)
c. Cranial nerve 7 (CN7)
d. Cranial nerve 10 (CN10)
c. Cranial nerve 7 (CN7)
Which muscle prevents the tongue from sinking backward and obstructing respiration?
a. Genioglossus
b. Styloglossus
c. Hyoglossus
d. Palatoglossus
a. Genioglossus
What muscle forms the posterior tonsillar pillar?
a. Palatoglossus
b. Stylopharyngeus
c. Palatopharyngeus
d. Superior pharyngeal constrictor
c. Palatopharyngeus
Which two bones contribute to the formation of the hard palate?
a. Maxilla and palatine
b. Maxilla and zygomatic
c. Palatine and ethmoid
d. Vomer and sphenoid
a. Maxilla and palatine
What is a characteristic of the primary maxillary first molar?
a. It typically has three roots.
b. It has a prominent distolingual cusp.
c. The pulp chamber is larger than in permanent molars.
d. Bifurcation begins almost immediately at the site of the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).
d. Bifurcation begins almost immediately at the site of the cementoenamel junction (CEJ).
All these muscles are responsible for elevating the mandible, excluding what?
a. Masseter
b. Temporalis
c. Mylohyoid
d. Lateral pterygoid
c. Mylohyoid
In cases of mandibular fractures involving the temporal bone, where is the fracture likely to occur?
a. Postero-inferior portion of the articular eminence
b. Antero-superior portion of the articular eminence
c. Body of the mandible
d. Angle of the mandible
a. Postero-inferior portion of the articular eminence
Among the following, which cusps are NOT considered balancing cusps?
a. Mandibular buccal cusps
b. Maxillary lingual cusps
c. Maxillary buccal cusps
d. Mandibular lingual cusps
c. Maxillary buccal cusps
Which anatomical structure is considered specialized mucosa in the oral cavity?
a. Buccal mucosa
b. Attached gingiva
c. Hard palate
d. Tongue
d. Tongue
What type of periofiber content runs parallel to the tooth surface in a vertical direction and bends to attach to cementum, facilitating vascular flow?
a. Oxytalan
b. Sharpey’s fibers
c. Alveolar crest fibers
d. Horizontal fibers
a. Oxytalan
