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Set 1 > Set 1.4 (General and Oral Anatomy and Physiology ) > Flashcards

Set 1.4 (General and Oral Anatomy and Physiology ) Flashcards

1
Q

Calcium that enters the cell during smooth
muscle excitation binds with which of the
following?
A. Calmodulin
B. Inactive myosin kinase
C. Myosin
D. Troponin

A

A. Calmodulin

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2
Q

Which heart valve is best heard over the apex
of the heart?
A. Tricuspid valve
B. Mitral valve
C. Pulmonary valve
D. Aortic valve

A

B. Mitral valve

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3
Q

The pancreas is enveloped at its head by the__.
A. First part of the duodenum
B. Second part of the duodenum
C. Third part of the duodenum
D. Fourth part of the duodenum
E. First part of the jejunum

A

A. First part of the duodenum

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4
Q

A hydrostatic pressure is a major force that
influence fluid movement between capillaries
and interstitial fluid. an increase in this pushed
fluid into the system. The first statement is __.
A. incorrect and the second statement is
incorrect
B. incorrect and the second statement is
correct
C. correct and the second statement is
incorrect
D. correct and the second statement is
correct

A

D. correct and the second statement is
correct

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5
Q

The enzyme required to replicate DNA is called:
A. aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase
B. RNA polymerase
C. DNA polymerase
D. glucose -6-phosphatase
E. none of them

A

C. DNA polymerase

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6
Q

Which of the following types of cartilage has
the ability to calcify?
A. Fibrocartilage
B. Hyaline
C. Elastic
D. Elastic and hyaline
E. Hyaline and fibrocartilage

A

B. Hyaline

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7
Q

Which structures are called adenoids when
enlarged?
A. Lingual tonsils
B. Palatine tonsils
C. Pharyngeal tonsils
D. Waldeyers ring

A

C. Pharyngeal tonsils

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8
Q

Which of the following areas of the
mediastinum contains the vagus nerve?
A. Superior
B. Posterior
C. Anterior
D. Middle
E. None of the above

A

B. Posterior

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9
Q

All of the following structures form the
boundary known as the femoral triangle EXCEPT
A. sartorius muscle.
B. inguinal ligament.
C. adductor longus muscle.
D. cremaster muscle.

A

D. cremaster muscle.

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10
Q

During respiration, carbon dioxide and oxygen
exchanged at the junction of the blood and
alveolar spaces and the junction of blood and
tissue. The actual diffusion of the gases is
primarily controlled by the _____.
A. elasticity of blood capillaries
B. atmospheric pressure
C. differentials in partial pressure of
the gasses
D. bicarbonate content of the blood

A

C. differentials in partial pressure of
the gasses

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11
Q

Which of the following portions of the lung
contain the lingula?
A. Middle lobe of right lung
B. Superior lobe of right lung
C. Superior lobe of left lung
D. Inferior lobe of left lung
E. Inferior lobe of right lung

A

C. Superior lobe of left lung

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12
Q

All of the following vessels contribute to
Kisselbach plexus EXCEPT
A. lesser palatine artery.
B. sphenopalatine artery.
C. lateral nasal branches of facial artery.
D. superior labial artery.
E. anterior ethmoid arteries of internal
carotid artery.

A

A. lesser palatine artery.

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13
Q

The macula densa is located in which portion
of the kidney?
A. Distal convoluted tubule
B. Bowman capsule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Proximal convoluted tubule
E. Collecting duct

A

A. Distal convoluted tubule

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14
Q

Rivian ducts allow drainage from which of the
following glands?
A. Parotid
B. Sebaceous
C. Lacrimal
D. Sublingual
E. Mammary

A

D. Sublingual

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15
Q

Each of the following is TRUE with regard to
the carotid sheath EXCEPT
A. the sternocleidomastoid muscle lies
medial to it in the cervical region.
B. it lies anterior to the scalene
musculature in the cervical region.
C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.
D. it contains the vagus nerve, jugular
vein, and common carotid artery.
E. it is associated with the carotid sinus
nerve, sympathetic nerves, and lymph
nodes.

A

C. it lies anterior to the thyroid gland.

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16
Q

Sublingual gland is situated between
A. Genioglossus and mandible
B. Geniohyoid and genioglossus
C. Hyoglossus and genioglossus
D. Hyoglossus and styloglossus

A

C. Hyoglossus and genioglossus

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17
Q

Which of the following structures are involved
in steroid synthesis and lipid/glycogen metabolism?
A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
B. Lysosomes
C. Peroxisomes
D. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
E. Mitochondria

A

A. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

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18
Q

Which of the following characteristics are true
concerning veins?
A. Thin tunics media with few muscle
fibers
B. Thick tunics adventitia with little elastic
tissue
C. Larger lumen and thinner walls than
the arteries they accompany
D. Some contain valves and vase vasorum
E. All of the above are true

A

E. All of the above are true

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19
Q

A-gamma fibers function in
A. touch sensation.
B. muscle spindle apparatus.
C. pressure sensation.
D. temperature sensation.
E. sharp pain sensation.

A

B. muscle spindle apparatus.

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20
Q

Hilar lymph nodes are located
A. in the lateral thoracic cavity.
B. superior to the clavicle and surrounding
the carotid sheath.
C. along the sternocleidomastoid muscle.
D. at the root of the lungs.
E. at the posterior base of the skull.

A

D. at the root of the lungs.

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21
Q

The hypoglossal nerve is the motor nerve to all
of the muscles of the tongue, EXCEPT _____
A. Superior longitudinal muscles
B. Palatoglossus
C. inferior longitudinal muscle
D. Genioglossus

A

B. Palatoglossus

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22
Q

Long bones grow in length primarily by:
A. adding bone onto the ends of the
articular cartilage
B. mitosis of bone cells (osteocytes)
C. laying down of bone in the periosteum
D. replacement of epiphyseal plate
cartilage with bone
E. replacement of primitive connective
tissue.

A

D. replacement of epiphyseal plate
cartilage with bone

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23
Q

Theoretically, in most human cells, one glucose
molecule produces enough usable chemical energy
to synthesize:
A. 30-32 ATP molecules
B. 32-34 ATP molecules
C. 36-38 ATP molecules
D. 44-48 ATP molecules

A

C. 36-38 ATP molecules

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24
Q

In the neck, the esophagus is ____to the
trachea.
A. anterior
B. posterior
C. lateral
D. medial
E. superior

A

B. posterior

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25
Q

The trigeminal nerve provides sensory
innervation for all of the following EXCEPT
_____.
A. Oral cavity
B. Nasal cavity
C. Paranasal sinuses
D. Posterior third of the tongue

A

D. Posterior third of the tongue

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26
Q

The most prominent bony landmark on the
posterior aspect of the neck is the:
A. spinous process of the axis
B. transverse process of the atlas
C. transverse process of the 6th cervical
vertera
D. spinous process of the 7th cervical
vertebra
E. hyoid bone

A

D. spinous process of the 7th cervical
vertebra

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27
Q

For the following statements concerning the
lymphatic system are true, except:
A. The main function is to collect and
transport tissue fluids from the
intercellular spaces in all the tissues of
the body, back to the veins in the blood
system
B. Lymph is a transparent, usually slightly
yellow, often opalescent liquid found in
the lymphatic vessels
C. It consists of the bone marrow, spleen,
thymus gland, lymph nodes, tonsils,
appendix, Peyer’s patches, lymph, and
lymphatic vessels
D. Just like the circulatory system, the
lymphatic system has a central “heart
like” organ to pump lymph throughout
the lymph vessels
E. The chief characteristic common to all
lymphatic organs is the presence of
lymphocytes

A

D. Just like the circulatory system, the
lymphatic system has a central “heart
like” organ to pump lymph throughout
the lymph vessels

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28
Q

The ascending palatine artery is a branch of
_____.
A. Ascending pharyngeal artery
B. Sphenopalatine theory
C. Pterygopalatine part of the maxillary
artery
D. First part of the facial artery

A

D. First part of the facial artery

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29
Q

an individual is suffering from hyperthyroidism
and the decision is made to remove a lobe of the
thyroid gland. which of the ff structures could be
disrupted in this procedure?
i. vagus nerve
ii. parathyroid gland
iii. muscles of the larynx
iv. recurrent laryngeal nerve
v. thyroid duct
A. i, iii
B. ii, iv
C. i, v
D. iii, v
E. c. ii, v

A

B. ii, iv

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30
Q

The jaw-jerk reflex involves efferent signals
from which of the following cranial nerves?
A. V-1
B. V-3
C. VII
D. V-2
E. IX

A

B. V-3

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31
Q

the auditory tube
A. passes medially from the pinna to the
tympanic membrane
B. connects the middle ear cavity to the
upper part of the pharynx
C. is necessary to maintain air in the
middle ear
D. is the same thing as the cochlea
E. both b and c

A

E. both b and c

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32
Q

All of the following are rotator cuff muscles
except:
A. Supraspinatous muscle
B. Infraspinatous muscle
C. Teres minor muscle
D. Teres major muscle
E. Subscapularis muscle

A

D. Teres major muscle

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33
Q

Which of the following bones is part of the
superior wall (roof) of the orbit?
A. Zygomatic.
B. Lacrimal.
C. Sphenoid.
D. Maxilla.
E. Ethmoid.

A

C. Sphenoid.

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34
Q

The latissimus dorsi muscle is supplied by the
_____ nerve.
A. Medial pectoral
B. Cranial nerve XI
C. Dorsal scapular
D. Thoracodorsal

A

D. Thoracodorsal

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35
Q

The apex of a medullary pyramid in the kidney is
called the _____.
A. Cortex
B. Medulla
C. Renal papilla
D. Major calyx
E. Minor calyx

A

C. Renal papilla

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36
Q

The cricopharyngeus muscle of the esophagus
__.
A. Is a parasympathetic stimulator of
peristalsis
B. Is a sympathetic inhibitor of peristalsis
C. Prevents
swallowing
pharyngeal end
D. Prevents regurgitation of stomach
contents at the abdominal end
E. Controls the gag reflex

A

C. Prevents swallowing pharyngeal end

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37
Q

All of the following are true of maxillary artery,
EXCEPT _____.
A. It is one of the terminal ranches of ECA
B. The branches of maxillary artery
accompany the branches of maxillary
nerve
C. It passes deep between the two heads
of lateral pterygoid
D. It is the arterial supply for mandible

A

C. It passes deep between the two heads of lateral pterygoid

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38
Q

Which of the following cells in the body
metabolize glucose only through anaerobic
pathways?
a. Muscle cells
b. Red blood cells
c. Hepatocytes
d. Neural cells

A

b. Red blood cells

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39
Q

The hormone that is responsible for “let down
reflex”.
A. Epinephrine
B. Acethylcoline
C. Dopamine
D. Oxytoxin

A

D. Oxytoxin

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40
Q

Which nerve would require local anaesthesia in
order to carry out a pain-free biopsy of a lesion
on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
A. Lingual, hypoglossal
B. Lingual, chorda tympani
C. Pharyngeal, lingual
D. Glossopharyngeal, hypoglossal

A

B. Lingual, chorda tympani

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41
Q

Afferent sensation from the lower molar teeth is
carried by _____.
A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve
B. Maxillary division of trigeminal nerve
C. Long buccal nerve
D. motor branch of the facial nerve

A

A. Mandibular division of trigeminal nerve

42
Q

All of the following vitamins have little to no risk
of overdose EXCEPT one. Which one is the
exception?
A. niacin
B. biotin
C. vitamin C
D. vitamin K

A

D. vitamin K

43
Q

All of the following muscles are responsible for
elevating the mandible, EXCEPT
A. Masseter
B. Mylohyoid
C. Temporalis
D. Medial pterygoid

A

B. Mylohyoid

44
Q

Reabsorption of glomerular filtrate would be
most affected if modifications were made to the
permeability of which section of the nephron?
A. descending loop of henle
B. distal convoluted tubule
C. proximal convoluted tubule
D. ascending loop of Henle

A

C. proximal convoluted tubule

45
Q

What nerve supply has motor action?
A. Auriculotemporal
B. Mandibular
C. Maxillary
D. Facial

A

B. Mandibular

46
Q

Cardiac function is the volume of blood pumped
each minute, and is expressed by which
equation?
A. CO = SV – HR
B. CO = SV + HR
C. CO = SV x HR
D. CO = SV / HR

A

C. CO = SV x HR

47
Q

The ductus venosus present in the fetus
becomes what in the newborn?
A. Ligamentum arteriosum
B. Ligamentum teres
C. Fossa ovalis
D. Ligamentum venosum

A

D. Ligamentum venosum

48
Q

Most skull joints found between the flat bones
of the skull are:
A. Fibrous joints
B. Cartilaginous joints
C. Synovial joints

A

A. Fibrous joints

49
Q

Which of the following is the primary source of
plasma proteins?
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Plasma cells
D. T cells

A

B. Liver

50
Q

The entry of which of the following into the
presynaptic terminal triggers the release of
neurotransmitter?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
E. Acetylcholine

A

D. Calcium

51
Q

Which is the only premolar with a longer mesial
buccal cusp ridge than distal buccal cusp ridge?
A. Maxillary 1st premolar
B. Maxillary 2nd premolar
C. Mandibular 1st premolar
D. Mandibular 2nd premolar

A

A. Maxillary 1st premolar

52
Q

On average, how much root structure must be
formed before a tooth erupts?
A. 0%-25%
B. 25%-33%
C. 33%-50%
D. 50%-66%
E. 66%-75%

A

D. 50%-66%

53
Q

All of the following teeth typically have one root
canal EXCEPT
A. maxillary central incisor.
B. maxillary lateral incisor.
C. maxillary canine.
D. mandibular canine.
E. all of the above.

A

E. all of the above.

54
Q

Which portion of the maxillary 1st molar root
typically has the greatest surface area?
A. Root trunk
B. MB root
C. DB root
D. Palatal root

A

A. Root trunk

55
Q

All of the following are features of the
permanent mandibular canine EXCEPT
A. the mesial cusp ridge is shorter than
distal cusp ridge.
B. the mesial cusp ridge is almost
horizontal.
C. the mesial crown outline is in line with
the root.
D. the cusp tip is located labial to the mid
root-axis line.

A

D. the cusp tip is located labial to the mid root-axis line.

56
Q

Using the Universal Numbering System, which
of the following represents the four permanent
adult canines?
A. 13, 23, 33, 43
B. 6, 11, 22, 27
C. C, H, R, M
D. 6, 12, 22, 27
E. 53, 63, 73, 83

A

B. 6, 11, 22, 27

57
Q

The profile of the buccal surface of the
posterior tooth is ____.
A. Biplanar
B. Quadplanar
C. Flat
D. Triplanar

A

A. Biplanar

58
Q

Maxillary incisor protrusion, anterior open bite,
crowded laterals, and a high palatal vault are most
likely caused by which of the following?
A. Mouth breathing
B. Thumb sucking
C. Tongue thrusting
D. Nocturnal bruxism

A

B. Thumb sucking

59
Q

Which of the following is the 1st succedaneous
tooth to erupt?
A. Maxillary 1st molar
B. Mandibular 1st molar
C. Maxillary central incisor
D. Mandibular central incisor
E. None of the above

A

D. Mandibular central incisor

60
Q

Which premolar has the most square occlusal
table shape?
A. Maxillary 1st premolar
B. Maxillary 2nd premolar
C. Mandibular 1st premolar
D. Mandibular 2nd premolar

A

D. Mandibular 2nd premolar

61
Q

Which of the following is a microdont?
A. Geminated incisor
B. Cusp of Carabelli
C. Peg-shaped lateral
D. Dens evaginatus
E. Mulberry molar

A

C. Peg-shaped lateral

62
Q

The roots of the primary molars are flaring in
order to provide _____.
A. trimming action during closure of the jaws
B. the required room to build up the permanent
successor
C. anchorage for the duration of mastication
D. Esthetic and to relieve during speech
construction

A

B. the required room to build up the permanent successor

63
Q

In which Angle classification would you typically
find a deep overbite with proclined maxillary lateral
incisors?
A. Class I
B. Class II, division I
C. Class II, division II
D. Class III, division I
E. Class III, division II

A

C. Class II, division II

64
Q

Calcification of the permanent dentition
typically starts at what time?
A. 4-6 months in utero
B. 6-8 months in utero
C. Birth
D. 1-2 months postpartum
E. 2-4 months postpartum

A

C. Birth

65
Q

Which incisor exhibits the most variability?
A. Maxillary central
B. Maxillary lateral
C. Mandibular central
D. Mandibular lateral

A

B. Maxillary lateral

66
Q

All of the following are true of primary canines
EXCEPT
A. when viewed from the facial, the crown
shapes are pentagonal.
B. they have cingula.
C. the mesial cusp ridge of the maxillary
canine is longer than the distal cusp ridge.
D. the distal cusp ridge of the mandibular
canine is longer than the mesial cusp ridge.
E. all of the above.

A

E. all of the above.

67
Q

In an ideal occlusion, protrusive contacts can
occur on which of the following surfaces?
A. Maxillary distal inclines and mandibular
mesial inclines
B. Maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular
distal inclines
C. Maxillary distal inclines and mandibular
distal inclines
D. Maxillary mesial inclines and mandibular
mesial inclines

A

A. Maxillary distal inclines and mandibular mesial inclines

68
Q

What is the only cusped teeth which feature a
functional lingual surface rather than a functional occlusal surface?
A. Canines
B. premolars
C. Molars
D. Centrls

A

A. Canines

69
Q

How many point angles are found on tooth No.12?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5

A

D. 4

70
Q

All of the following cusp tips occlude in the
central fossa of an opposing tooth during ideal
intercuspation EXCEPT
A. mesiobuccal of mandibular 1st molar.
B. distobuccal of mandibular 1st molar.
C. mesiolingual of maxillary 2nd molar.
D. distobuccal of mandibular 2nd molar.

A

A. mesiobuccal of mandibular 1st molar.

71
Q

Which of the following is CORRECT with respect
to the roots of the maxillary permanent first
molar?
A. Palatal root is located closed to the mesial
B. Palatal root may have a concave lingual
surface
C. Distobuccal root is flattened and concave
D. Palatal root is flattened and concave on
mesial and distal surfaces

A

C. Distobuccal root is flattened and concave

72
Q

Which of the permanent incisors is MOST
frequently markedly concave on the lingual
surface?
A. Maxillary lateral incisor
B. Mandibular central incisors
C. Mandibular lateral incisors
D. Maxillary central incisors

A

A. Maxillary lateral incisor

73
Q

Which posterior tooth is most symmetrical from
an occlusal view?
A. Maxillary 1st premolar
B. Maxillary 2nd premolar
C. Maxillary 1st molar
D. Mandibular 1st premolar
E. Mandibular 1st molar

A

B. Maxillary 2nd premolar

74
Q

In an ideal occlusion, the _____ cusp of the
mandibular _____ contacts the central fossa of the
maxillary 1st molar.
A. Buccal; 2nd premolar
B. Mesiobuccal; 1st molar
C. Distobuccal; 1st molar
D. Distal; 1st molar
E. Distobuccal; 2nd molar

A

C. Distobuccal; 1st molar

75
Q

Which of the following teeth have a functional
lingual surface?
I. Maxillary incisors
II. Maxillary canines
III. Mandibular incisors
IV. Mandibular canines
A. I only
B. I and IV
C. III and IV
D. I and II
E. None of the above

A

D. I and II

76
Q

A labial ridge can be found on which tooth
type?
A. Incisor
B. Canine
C. Premolar
D. Molar

A

B. Canine

77
Q

The mandible functions as what type of lever?
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Class IV

A

C. Class III

78
Q

At what age is a child expected to have 12
primary teeth and 12 permanent teeth?
A. 61/2 years
B. 71/2 years
C. 81/2 years
D. 101/2 years
E. 121/2 years

A

C. 81/2 years

79
Q

In its mature state, enamel is:
A. 47% mineralized
B. 68% mineralized
C. 87% mineralized
D. 96% mineralized

A

D. 96% mineralized

80
Q

Which one of the following normally single
rooted teeth is most likely to have a bifurcated
root?
A. Maxillary central incisor
B. Maxillary lateral incisor
C. Maxillary canine
D. Mandibular canine
E. Maxillary 1st premolar

A

C. Maxillary canine

81
Q

Which tooth is likely to have root depressions on
both the mesial and distal root surfaces?
a. Maxillary central incisor
b. Maxillary lateral incisor
c. Maxillary 2nd premolar
d. Mandibular 2nd premolar

A

c. Maxillary 2nd premolar

82
Q

In an ideal occlusion, the mesiobuccal cusp of
the permanent maxillary 2nd molar opposes
which of the following?
a. The buccal groove of the mandibular 2nd
molar
b. The distobuccal groove of the mandibu
lar 1st molar
c. The mesiobuccal groove of the mandibu
lar 2nd molar
d. The buccal embrasure between the
mandibular 1st and 2nd molars

A

a. The buccal groove of the mandibular 2nd
molar

83
Q

Which of the following is not TRUE of primary
teeth compared to permanent teeth?
a. They are generally whiter.
b. Their crowns are more bulbous.
c. Their CEJs are more constricted.
d. Their root trunks are longer.
e. Their pulp chambers are larger.

A

d. Their root trunks are longer.

84
Q

All primary maxillary molars have three roots. All
primary mandibular molars have two roots.
a. Both statements are true.
b. Both statements are false.
c. The first statement is true; the second
statement is false.
d. The first statement is false; the second
statement is true.

A

a. Both statements are true.

85
Q

The primary mandibular 2nd molar most closely
resembles which permanent tooth?
a. Mandibular 1st molar
b. Mandibular 2nd molar
c. Maxillary 1st molar
d. Maxillary 2nd molar

A

a. Mandibular 1st molar

86
Q

Which of the following are supporting cusps?
A. Distobuccal cusp of maxillary 1st molars
B. Lingual cusp of mandibular 2ndpremolars
C. Mesiolingual cusp of maxillary 1st molars
D. Distolingual cusp of mandibular 1st molars

A

C. Mesiolingual cusp of maxillary 1st molars

87
Q

Which of these surfaces is a proximal surface?
A. Facial
B. Lingual
C. Incisal
D. Buccal
E. Mesial

A

E. Mesial

88
Q

A mandibular canine viewed from the mesial
aspect may be differentiated from a maxillary
canine in that
A. its cusp tip will be lingual to a line
bisecting the root.
B. its cervical level labially and lingually is
on a plane.
C. its cingulum is more pronounced.
D. there is greater taper of the root.

A

A. its cusp tip will be lingual to a line
bisecting the root.

89
Q

How many planes of movement can the
mandible move in?
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four

A

C. three

90
Q

The premolar with the occlusal groove pattern
that may simulate the letter “Y” is the
A. maxillary first.
B. mandibular first.
C. maxillary second.
D. mandibular second.

A

D. mandibular second.

91
Q

If the pulp of a single-rooted tooth canal were
triangular in cross section with the base of the
triangle located facially and the apex lingually,
with a longer mesial than distal side, the tooth
most likely is a
a. maxillary second premolar.
b. maxillary central incisor.
c. maxillary lateral incisor
d. mandibular central incisor

A

b. maxillary central incisor.

92
Q

Which of the following mesial root surfaces are
unlikely to be thoroughly cleaned with the use of
floss?
a. Maxillary central incisor
b. Mandibular first premolar
c. Maxillary first premolar
d. Mandibular first molar

A

c. Maxillary first premolar

93
Q

The lingual fossa is normally deepest on which
incisor?
A. Maxillary central
B. Maxillary lateral
C. Mandibular central
D. Mandibular lateral

A

B. Maxillary lateral

94
Q

The permanent mandibular second molar differs
from the permanent mandibular first molar in
number of
A. cusps.
B. roots.
C. lingual grooves.
D. marginal ridges.

A

A. cusps.

95
Q

In development of the human permanent
dentition, the first teeth to begin calcification
are the
A. mandibular first molars.
B. maxillary first premolars.
C. maxillary central incisors.
D. mandibular central incisors.

A

A. mandibular first molars.

96
Q

The lingual lobe of an anterior teeth is referred
to as the:
a. lingual ridge
b. mamelons
c. cingulum
d. tubercles
e. lingual pit

A

c. cingulum

97
Q

Which cusp of permanent maxillary molars
becomes progressively smaller from first to
second to third molars?
A. Mesiofacial
B. Distofacial
C. Cusp of Carabelli
D. Mesiolingual
E. Distolingual

A

E. Distolingual

98
Q

Anterior teeth whose cingulum are located off center to the distal.
i. Maxillary centrals
ii. Maxillary laterals
iii. Maxillary canines
iv. Mandibular centrals
v. Mandibular laterals
vi. Mandibular canines
a. 1,2,4,5
b. 1,2,4,5,6
c. 1,3,4,5,6
d. 2,3,4
e. 1, 5, 6

A

e. 1, 5, 6

99
Q

The surfaces of teeth that have a trapezoidal
outline:
i. Lingual of posterior teeth
ii. Buccal of posterior teeth
iii. Labial of anterior teeth
iv. Proximal of posterior teeth
a. 1,2,3
b. 2,3,4
c. 3 only
d. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

A

a. 1,2,3

100
Q

This is a position assumed by the jaw when
it is not engaged in any activity:
A. initial contact
B. centric occlusion
C. physiologic rest position
D. habitual occlusal position
E. most protruded position

A

C. physiologic rest position

Set 1 (9 decks)

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