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Set 1 > Set 1.0 (General anatomy and physiology) > Flashcards

Set 1.0 (General anatomy and physiology) Flashcards

1
Q

Smooth muscle contains each of the following muscle proteins EXCEPT?

a. Actin

b. Myosin

c. Troponin

d. Tropomyosin

A

c. Troponin

Troponin - skeletal muscle

Calmodulin - smooth muscle

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2
Q

The _________ is the most superficially located and strongest muscle of mastication?

a. Temporalis

b. Medial pterygoid

c. Lateral pterygoid

d. Masseter

A

d. Masseter

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3
Q

All of the following muscles are responsible for elevating the mandible, EXCEPT:

a. Masseter

b. Mylohyoid

c. Temporalis

d. Medial pterygoid

A

b. Mylohyoid

Mylohyoid - depresses mandible, elevates hyoid bone

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4
Q

The bone directly lining the socket (inner aspect of the alveolar bone) specifically is referred to as:

a. Cancellous bone

b. Bundle bone

c. Osteoid

d. Trabecular bone

A

b. Bundle bone

Outer - bundle bone

inner - cancellous bone

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5
Q

All the muscles of the tongue are innervated by the hypoglossal nerve EXCEPT:

a. Hyoglossus

b. Styloglossus

c. Palatoglossus

d. Genioglossus

A

c. Palatoglossus

Intrinsic muscle (Genio, Stylo and Hyo) except Palatoglossus are innervated by CN XII

Palatoglossus is innervated by Pharyngeal Plexus

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6
Q

Normally, the acid-base balance in the body is such that there is a minimal pH change in the blood. The organ chiefly responsible for this resistance to change is the:

a. Kidney

b. Liver

c. Heart

d. Spleen

A

a. Kidney

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7
Q

Fasting for five hours leads to ________.

a. Elevated blood sugar levels

b. Increased storage fat

c. Suppression of gluconeogenesis

d. Decreased liver glycogen

A

d. Decreased liver glycogen

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8
Q

The cell membrane is LEAST permeable to which of the following substances?

a. O2

b. CO2

c. H2O

d. Sodium

e. Ethanol

A

d. Sodium

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9
Q

Which of the following are the same in RNA and DNA molecules?

a. The purines

b. The pyrimidines

c. Both the purines and pyrimidines

d. Neither the purines and pyrimidines

A

a. The purines

Purines - Guanine and Adenine (Mnemonics: GAPu)

Pyrimidine - Cytosine and (Thiamine in DNA while Uracil in RNA)

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10
Q

The inferior aspect of the diaphragm is supplied by which of the following arteries?

a. Lumbar arteries

b. Inferior phrenic arteries

c. Superior mesenteric artery

d. Celiac trunk

A

b. Inferior phrenic arteries

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11
Q

Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous supply to the gastrointestinal tract generally causes ______

a. Secretion by pancreatic acini

b. Increase in the rate of colonic evacuation

c. Increase in HCl secretion

d. Inhibition of motility

A

d. Inhibition of motility

Sympathetic - Fight and Flight

Parasympathetic - Rest and Digest

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12
Q

Which of the following receives the opening of the nasolacrimal duct?

a. Superior meatus

b. Middle meatus

c. Sphenoehtmoidal recess

d. Inferior meatus

A

d. Inferior meatus

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13
Q

Which is the inability of the eye to focus sharply on nearby objects, resulting from the loss of elasticity of the lens with advancing age?

a. Presbyopia

b. Hyperopia

c. Astigmatism

d. Myopia

A

a. Presbyopia

Mnemonics: My Near Long Cave (Myopia-Nearsightedness-Long eyes-Concave lens)

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14
Q

Oral contraceptives work by:

a. Inhibiting follicle formation by eliminating the LH surge

b. Inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the LH surge

c. Inhibiting follicle formation by eliminating the FSH surge

d. Inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the FSH surge

A

b. Inhibiting ovulation by eliminating the LH surge

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15
Q

Which of the following structures are involved in steroid synthesis and lipid/glycogen metabolism?

a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

b. Lysosomes

c. Peroxisomes

d. Rough endoplasmic reticulum

e. Mitochondria

A

a. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Rough ER - proteins

Smooth ER - lipids

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16
Q

What is the normal pH of blood?

a. 5.8

b. 6.6

c. 7.0

d. 7.4

e. 8.2

A

d. 7.4

Blood pH - 7.35 to 7.45

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17
Q

A deficiency in which of the following amino acids cause albinism?

a. Tyrosine

b. Tryptophan

c. Arginine

d. Leucine

e. Alanine

A

a. Tyrosine

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18
Q

Translation usually begins with what codon?

a. AAC

b. AUG

c. UAC

d. UAG

e. UGA

A

b. AUG

Start Codon - AUG

Stop Codon - UAG mag UAA kapag UAG

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19
Q

The atrioventricular valves are closed during:

  1. Ventricular systole
  2. Ventricular diastole
  3. PR interval of ECG
  4. ST interval of ECG

a. 1 and 3

b. 1 and 4

c. 2 and 3

d. 2 and 4

A

b. 1 and 4

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20
Q

The platysma is supplied by a branch of which of the following cranial nerves?

a. V

b. VII

c. IX

d. X

A

b. VII

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21
Q

Total destruction of CN III would result in paralysis of:

a. All extrinsic muscles of the eye and sphincter pupillae

b. All rectus muscles of the eye, levator palpebrae and dilator pupillae

c. Superior, medial, and inferior rectus, levator palpebrae and dilator pupillae

d. Superior, medial and inferior rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae and sphincter pupillae

A

Superior, medial and inferior rectus, inferior oblique, levator palpebrae and sphincter pupillae

SO4LR6R3

CN IV - Superior oblique

CN VI - Lateral Rectus

CN III - Rectus muscles and Inferior Oblique

22
Q

If the chorda tympani is severed, there is:

a. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of tongue

b. Loss of touch sense and taste anterior two-thirds of tongue

c. Paralysis of muscles of expression on same side

d. Paralysis of muscles of expression on contralateral side

A

a. Loss of taste in anterior two-thirds of tongue

Ant 2/3 Taste - Chorda Tympani

Ant 2/3 Sensory - CN V

Post 1/3 - CN IX

Base of Tongue - CN X

23
Q

Bile traverses the cystic and common bile ducts and then is emptied into which part of the duodenum?

a. Ascending

b. Descending

c. Upper (Superior)

d. Horizontal (inferior)

A

b. Descending

24
Q

Which of the following muscles is supplied by the facial nerve?

a. Anterior belly of the digastric

b. Mylohyoid

c. Mentalis

d. Hyoglossus

A

c. Mentalis

Ant Digastric - CN V3

Post Digastric CN VII

Mylohyoid CNV3

Hyoglossus - CN XII

25
Q

The capacity of the tongue for forceful movement depends upon _ muscle supplied by the _ cranial nerve.

a. Smooth; fifth

b. Striated; seventh

c. Skeletal; fifth

d. Skeletal; twelfth

A

d. Skeletal; twelfth

Skeletal muscles - voluntary

CN XII - muscles of tongue

26
Q

In the fetus, the ductus venosus conveys blood from the:

a. Pulmonary vein to the aorta

b. Right atrium to the left atrium

c. Pulmonary artery to the pulmonary vein

d. Umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

e. Superior vena cava to the pulmonary artery

A

d. Umbilical vein to the inferior vena cava

27
Q

The right subclavian and right common carotid arteries arise from the:

a. Thoracic aorta

b. Ascending aorta

c. Pulmonary artery

d. Arch of the aorta

e. Brachiocephalic artery

A

e. Brachiocephalic artery

Branches of Aortic Arch

  • R Brachiocephalic
  • L Common Carotid
  • L Subclavian
28
Q

Which of the following structures pass through the parotid gland?

I. Facial nerve

II. Retromandibular vein

III. External carotid artery

IV. Superficial temporal artery

V. Branches of the great auricular nerve

a. I, II, III

b. I, II, IV

c. I, III, V

d. II, III, V

e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

29
Q

Which artery is most concerned with the blood supply to the upper lip?

a. Facial

b. Maxillary

c. External nasal

d. Greater palatine

A

a. Facial

30
Q

All of the following nerves are related to the mandible, EXCEPT:

a. Lingual nerve

b. Chorda tympani

c. Mental nerve

d. Auriculotemporal nerve

A

b. Chorda tympani

Lingual Nerve - CN V3 Divided Posterior Division

Chorda Tympani - CN VII

Mental Nerve - CN V3 Divided Posterior Division

Auricotemporal Nerve - CN V3 Divided Anterior Division

31
Q

Which of the following muscles serves as the prime extensor of the forearm?

a. Biceps brachii

b. Triceps brachii

c. Brachioradialis

d. Latissimus dorsi

e. Extensor digitorum communis

A

b. Triceps brachii

Biceps brachii - flexor

Triceps brachii - extensor

32
Q

During deep inspiration, the diaphragm behaves in which of the following ways?

a. Relaxes

b. Moves inferiorly

c. Moves superiorly

d. Does not change position

e. Compresses thoracic viscera

A

b. Moves inferiorly

Diaphragm

  • Inspiration - contracts and moves inferiorly
  • Expiration - relaxes and moves superiorly
33
Q

Oxygen removal from the alveoli of the lung may be facilitated by:

a. Low PO2 of pulmonary artery blood

b. Increased total alveolar surface area

c. Increased blood flow through alveolar capillaries

d. All of the above e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

34
Q

The kidney compensates for a metabolic alkalosis by increasing:

a. Ammonia excretion

b. Bicarbonate excretion

c. Hydrogen ion excretion

d. Bicarbonate reabsorption

e. More than one but not all of the above

A

b. Bicarbonate excretion

35
Q

The primary location of the translation of the genetic message in the cell is the:

a. Nucleus

b. Nucleolus

c. Ribosome

d. Lysosome

e. Mitochondrion

A

c. Ribosome

36
Q

Under physiologic conditions, the lowest partial pressure of oxygen is found in:

a. Normal atmospheric air

b. Humidified atmospheric air

c. Alveolar air

d. Expired air

e. Venous blood

A

e. Venous blood

37
Q

All of the following factors increase stroke volume EXCEPT increased _______:

a. Venous return

b. Arterial blood pressure

c. Activity of skeletal muscle pump

d. Concentration of plasma epinephrine

e. Sympathetic tonus of venous blood vessels

A

b. Arterial blood pressure

38
Q

Following the removal of the parathyroid glands, one may expect to find:

a. Increased urinary calcium excretion and elevated serum calcium

b. Decreased serum calcium and elevated serum phosphate

c. Demineralization of bones

d. Elevated serum calcium and decreased urinary excretion of calcium

e. Remineralization of bones

A

b. Decreased serum calcium and elevated serum phosphate

PTH

  • produced by chief cells of PT
  • Increases blood calcium level by osteoclast activity, calcium absorption in GI and calcium reabsorption in kidney

Calcitonin

  • lowers blood calcium level
  • secreted by parafollicular cells of thyroid gland
39
Q

A blood disease which involves an abnormal hemoglobin molecule (hemoglobin S) is:

a. Sickle cell anemia

b. Polycythemia vera

c. Pernicious anemia

d. Erythroblastosis fetalis

e. None of the above

A

a. Sickle cell anemia

Sickle cell anemia is cause of genetic change of valine instead of glutamic acid

40
Q

Which of the following respiratory volumes must be measured by an indirect method?

a. Inspiratory reserve volume

b. Tidal volume

c. Expiratory reserve volume

d. Residual volume

e. None of the above

A

d. Residual volume

41
Q

The dissociation of oxyhemoglobin is aided by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Decreased partial pressure of oxygen

b. Increased temperature

c. Increased hydrogen ion concentration

d. Carbonic anhydrase

e. None of the above

A

d. Carbonic anhydrase

Dissociation Curve

  • Increase temp > increase CO2 > Increase H+ > decrease pH and decrease O2
42
Q

The major force (pressure) causing glomerula filtration is:

a. Tubular hydrostatic pressure

b. Tubular colloidal osmotic pressure

c. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

d. Glomerular capillary colloidal osmotic pressure

e. None of the above

A

c. Glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure

43
Q

The antidiuretic action of vasopressin is best explained by its:

a. Decreasing the activity of the Na-K pump in the distal tubule

b. Increasing the permeability of the collecting ducts and the distal tubules

c. Decreasing the pore size of the distal tubules and collecting ducts

d. Decreasing the GFR

e. Inhibiting the action of gluraminase

A

b. Increasing the permeability of the collecting ducts and the distal tubules

44
Q

The QRS complex of the EKG represents the electrical activity associated with:

a. Atrial depolarization

b. Atrial repolarization

c. Ventricular depolarization

d. Ventricular repolarization

e. None of the above

A

c. Ventricular depolarization

P - atrial depolarization

QRS - ventricular depolarization

T - ventricular repolarization

45
Q

Which of the following is the major regulator of blood flow?

a. Veins

b. Arteries

c. Capillaries

d. Arterioles

e. Venules

A

d. Arterioles

46
Q

All of the following are factors and conditions that decrease insulin secretion EXCEPT:

a. Decreased blood glucose

b. Fasting

c. Somatostatin

d. Increased blood free fatty acids

e. Alpha-adrenergic activity

A

d. Increased blood free fatty acids

47
Q

All of the following statements concerning aldosterone are true, EXCEPT:

a. Causes Na+ retention

b. Causes K+ excretion

c. Renin controls it

d. Acts at the distal tubule

e. Is produced in the kidney

A

e. Is produced in the kidney

Aldosterone

  • produced by Adrenal gland on the zona glomerulosa
  • mineralocorticoid
48
Q

The primary action of local anesthetics in producing a conduction block is to decrease the permeability of the ion channels to:

a. Calcium ions

b. Chloride ions

c. Potassium ions

d. Sodium ions

A

d. Sodium ions

Na+ and Cl- are numerous outside of cell

K+ and PO4- are numerous inside of cell

49
Q

Which of the following processes is not involved in the formation of urine?

a. Filtration

b. Reabsorption

c. Excretion

d. Secretion

A

c. Excretion

Filtration and Reabsorption - action of kidney tubules

Secretion - actin of hormonal glands

50
Q

Which process is most affected by levels of vasopressin?

a. Filtration

b. Reabsorption

c. Excretion

d. Secretion

A

b. Reabsorption

Set 1 (7 decks)

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