Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

CAE - Gulfstream IV Systems Review > Section 16 - Avionics > Flashcards

Section 16 - Avionics Flashcards

(89 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is indicated by the amber “STBY” light on either DBDI?

A

The unit is operating in the standby (flux detector) mode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is indicated by the red “STBY” light on either DBDI?

A

There is a failure in the standby circuits (flux valve or wiring failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The #3 symbol generator normally provides graphics for which displays?

A

DU 3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Where can you find information in the QRH regarding RNAV approaches?

A

Section NG, Alternate Normals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the priority order of the FMS sensors, from highest to lowest?

A

GPS, DME/DME, VOR/DME, IRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the illumination of an APPROACH light and annunciations permit?

A

Continuation of the approach inside the Final Approach Fix to the MAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which mode of the EGPWS cannot be inhibited?

A

Mode 7, Windshear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What conditions would inhibit autothrottle engagement?

A

Isolation valve OPEN, LP RPM split by more than 20% or HP RPM is less than 41 %, aircraft on the ground and TOGA mode not selected, or power setting less than 1.17 EPR during takeoff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

You have selected the cowl and wing anti-ice switches ON for takeoff. You notice that the V-speeds are not boxed on the display controller. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A

You have not selected cowl and wing anti-ice ON in the TAKEOFF INIT pages of the FMS CDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If the FMS initial cruise altitude is set for FL410 and a lower level off is made, what airspeed will the FMS command the aircraft to fly?

A

What ever value is selected in the PERF INIT climb schedule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What would cause the takeoff speeds to be posted on the display controller with asterisks, but not boxed when the line up checklist is complete?

A

The information entered in TAKEOFF INIT does not match the aircraft configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If the surface wind is not entered in TAKEOFF INIT, what will be the effect?

A

Takeoff data will not be calculated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Some departures specify obstacle clearance in terms of a minimum rate of climb or climb gradient. What is a factor relative to these types of obstacles being entered in the FMS?

A

The FMS will not accept these entries, charts should be consulted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The FMS computers perform numerous computations. These include but are not limited to course, distance, fuel, altitude and speed predictions, etc. Are these computations done independently in each FMS?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What flap setting landing distances are available from the FMS?

A

39° flaps only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How is the fuel quantity displayed in the FMS computed in flight?

A

Sensed fuel flow is subtracted from departure fuel flow to arrive at a new fuel quantity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A waypoint can be defined by the intersection of two VOR radials. How would you enter this waypoint format (P=place, B=bearing, D=distance)?

A

P/B/P/B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If while established in an FMS holding pattern the exit prompt is pressed, what will the FMS direct the aircraft to do?

A

Proceed directly to the holding fix, fly over the holding fix, then proceed on course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If during an instrument approach the missed approach prompt is displayed, and then the TOGA button is pressed, will the missed approach procedure be displayed?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

If on the ground the FMS states a temperature different than the ATIS, should the crew use the FMS or the ATIS reported temperature?

A

FMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is indicated if the speeds and altitudes listed on the right hand side of the flight plan page are in large font?

A

If in large font, they were entered by the navigation database or the pilot. If in small font, they are estimates generated by the performance computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Will the FMS{s) be functional during HMG operations?

A

The captain’s side will function, the copilot’s side will not

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

If the FMS sees the need to alert the crew about something, how does it do this?

A

By placing a message in the scratch pad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What color is VOR and ILS course data displayed on the PFD?

A

Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What color is FMS course data displayed on the PFD?
Blue
26
While being vectored for an ILS approach, the glide slope is intercepted before the localizer, and approach is selected. What will be the effect?
The glide slope will not be intercepted
27
When FLCH is selected, what does the flight director use to control airspeed?
Pitch
28
What does the BC button on the flight guidance panel select?
Back course localizer mode
29
If you attempt to select the autopilot button on the flight guidance panel with the electric pitch trim not engaged, what will happen?
Electric pitch trim will be simultaneously engaged
30
If weather is selected on the pilot's navigation display and an EGPWS terrain threat is detected, what will happen?
The threat will be displayed
31
Why, if using an EFIS bearing pointer on which to navigate, must we identify the station but we do not need to continuously monitor the navaid?
Because if the station stops transmitting, the bearing pointer will disappear
32
In the event of failure, which of the sensors listed on the sensor page in the display controller will switch automatically?
The flight guidance computer (FGC)
33
When are the display switching and symbol generator controls normally checked?
On the first flight of each month·
34
If display unit #6 fails, what, if anything, can be done to restore the co-pilot's PFD display?
Select the co-pilot's display switching to PFD XFER (SPZ-8000), or it will automatically switch to DU #5 (SPZ-8400)
35
Why do we check the flight reference page of the display controller to verify that the speeds are boxed prior to takeoff?
To ensure that they will appear on the airspeed tape during takeoff
36
Which display units are available during HMG operations?
1 and 3 (with symbol generator controls selected to NORM-ALT-ALT)
37
The cockpit voice recorder provides continuous recording of what audio?
Cockpit conversations and radio transmissions
38
How does the radar enter the standby mode?
By selecting standby, or forced standby via the nutcracker system
39
What takes place if the mask position button on the audio control panel is selected?
The oxygen mask microphone is activated and the boom microphone is deactivated
40
When operating on the HMG, which VHF radio will be available?
#1 only
41
What is indicated when a display unit has a large red "X" from corner to corner?
Symbol generator failure
42
What is indicated if both pilots had DADC 1 displayed in amber on their PFD?
Both pilots are using DADC 1 for data
43
If amber dashes replace the digital readouts, and the analog needles of the left engine instruments are removed, what would this indicate?
A data acquisition unit (DAU) channel has failed
44
If a red "X" appears over the CAS messages portion of DU #3, what would this indicate?
A fault warning computer (FWC) has failed
45
What would cause a display unit to go blank and cause a CHECK DU (amber) message?
A display unit failure
46
What are the correct altimeter indications in order to conduct operations in RVSM airspace?
Pilot and copilot altimeters must agree within 75 feet of known field elevation, and must also agree within 75 feet of each other
47
Why does the weather radar go into forced standby on landing?
To eliminate microwave energy danger around personnel and fueling
48
How can the weather radar be operated on the ground?
Press the STAB button, 4 times within 3 seconds
49
Where does the performance computer obtain inputs to calculate the correct VREF speed?
SAT and pressure altitude (DADC), aircraft weight (CDU), and flap handle position
50
What are the heading sources for each DBDI?
Normal - on-side IRS, green STBY - #3 IRS, amber STBY - flux valve in the wing
51
When does the APPROACH light illuminate on an FMS-coupled approach?
2 NM prior to the FAF / FAWP
52
If VNAV is engaged, when does a VNAV track change alert occur?
Approximately 1 minute prior to the top of descent point
53
What is the relationship between RNP and CDI scaling?
None; CDI scaling does not change to match the current RNP value
54
What types of instrument approaches cannot be executed using FMS as the coupled and primary means of navigation?
Localizer-based approaches
55
What value should be set in the flight guidance panel altitude pre-selector when executing an LNAV /VNAV approach to a decision altitude {DA)?
Touchdown zone elevation (TDZE)
56
What is the minimum altitude to engage the autopilot after takeoff?
200 feet AGL
57
What is the minimum autopilot disengage altitude on approaches?
50 feet AGL
58
When will the altitude display tape on the PFDs display dashes on the last two digits?
When the rate of climb or descent exceeds 1000 feet per minute
59
How many display unit (DU) cooling fans are there, and which DUS do they cool?
2 cooling fans, each fan cools 3 display units
60
How long should you press to test the cockpit voice recorder test button?
5s
61
What will happen if the pilot's primary flight display goes' blank?
The information will automatically switch to DU# 2 (SPZ-8400)
62
How can the CAS display be restored after a FWC failure?
1. Select the sensor menu key on the display controller 2. Select # 2 FWC (to restore CAS messages)
63
When STANDBY is selected on the radar control head, why does an amber WAIT flash in the lower corner of the NAV display?
The radar is warming up
64
What is indicated by an amber "SLV" on the radar control panel?
The radar is slaved to the other radar control panel because the control is OFF
65
What type of approaches can be performed in BLUE DATA?
Any approach in the FMS database, except localizer-based approaches (i.e. ILS, back course, LOA, SDF) and approaches that require special FAA authorization
66
How should a back course approach be set?
The course is set to the inbound course of the ILS (front course), MDA set in the display controller and guidance panel; when cleared for the approach, select BC on the guidance panel
67
What is VORAP mode?
The VOR approach mode is set up identically to the VOR mode. The key difference is the APR button is pushed. Pushing the APR button selects logic that sets bank and rate limits to ensure proper gain control and performance through the approach profile from VOR capture to MDA. When conditions are met, the mode annunciation becomes VORAP
68
When flying a RNAV {GPS) approach, what is the difference between DA and MDA?
DA is the decision altitude and is the minimum altitude to which a decision must be made to either continue the approach or execute a missed approach. MDA is the minimum descent altitude and is the minimum altitude to which the approach can be flown when only LNAV guidance is available or permitted
69
How do you deselect a GPS sensor?
Go to NAV menu on the FMS, select Position Sensors, select a GPS, then select DEL (delete) key and place DEL on the left side of the GPS. The GPS will indicate DESEL (deselected)
70
What is the required navigation performance {RNP) for terminal, enroute, and approach?
1. Terminal = 1.0nm 2. Enroute = 2.0nm 3. Approach = 0.3nm
71
Is an approach annunciation required to fly the final segment of an RNAV {GPS) approach flown in BLUE DATA?
Yes, except for NDB or VOR based approaches flown in blue data if the NAVAID is being displayed as well
72
When does the TRACK CHANGE annunciation illuminate?
30 seconds prior to the track change
73
When does the VERT ALRT annunciation illuminate?
1 minute prior to the top of descent
74
Why won't the FMS accept a HOLD directly over a waypoint?
The HOLD must be selected 1 minute prior to holding to perform the math required for proper entry and speed. If a HOLD is selected less than 1 minute prior, the FMS can not perform the calculation
75
What does the DEGRADE annunciation mean?
The FMS is not using a required sensor for the current phase of flight
76
What should you do if you see a DEGRADE annunciation during the final segment of the RNAV {GPS) approach?
Abandon the approach and commence the missed approach procedure
77
When are the command bars displayed on both PFDs?
During takeoff, go-around, and on an !LS-coupled approach below 1200 feet AGL
78
What is the primary digital data bus in the airplane?
The Avionics Standard Communications Bus (ASCB)
79
What communications equipment is available with emergency power only?
The #1 VHF com radio
80
What is the function of the AUTO selection on the map page of each display controller?
It allows the bearing pointer to point to the active nav source that is presented on the respective HSI
81
Describe how the FGC operates when FLCH is selected.
The FGC will use pitch to control the airspeed displayed in the flight guidance panel. EPR command is idle in a descent or climb thrust in a climb, unless a climb of 6,000 feet or less is commanded in which case the performance computer will command an intermediate power setting
82
If established in a holding pattern and the exit prompt is pressed,- what will the FMS direct the aircraft to do?
Proceed directly to the holding fix, then on course
83
When entering a holding pattern, what will the auto-speed function command?
Maximum endurance speed
84
What are the limitations for use of the weather radar on the ground?
1. Do not operate during refueling or within 300 feet of fueling ops 2. Do not operate with 49 feet of ground personnel
85
How should the TCAS system be configured during single-­ engine operation?
Select "TA only" as the operating mode
86
Have fuel management & range requirements from the performance computers been evaluated by the FAA?
No, the AFM shall be cross-checked for reasonableness.
87
Describe the limitation about TCAS compliance requirements.
Compliance with TCAS resolution advisories is required unless the Pilot-In-Command determines that doing so would jeopardize the safe operation of the flight
88
During cruise, the captain's airspeed indicator displays an unreliable airspeed indication, accompanied by a blue "DADC MISCOMPARE" CAS message. Describe the abnormal procedure associated with this condition.
Identify faulty DADC by reference to PFD, ND, standby flight instruments, guidance panel, pressure control and transponder panel. Select the good DADC to those panels and isolate the faulty DADC by pulling the appropriate circuit breaker
89
When should the EGPWS terrain display be selected OFF?
1. When the airport has no published approach procedure (-104 software version only) 2. When the longest runway is less than 3,500 feet in length 3. When the airport is not in the EGPWS database

CAE - Gulfstream IV Systems Review (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions