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SCI Section 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What is global climate change?

A

the large–scale physical and biogeochemical changes that have been taking place on Earth at an accelerating rate

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2
Q

How many people on Earth do not have access to safe drinking water?

A

1–2 billion people, mostly in developing countries

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3
Q

What are the 2 main categories of water pollution?

A

point–source pollution and non–point–source pollution

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4
Q

What is point–source water pollution?

A

pollution released from distinct, confined locations, such as a factory

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5
Q

What is non–point–source water pollution?

A

pollution that collects from large areas, such as runoff from parking lots

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6
Q

Why is it important to differentiate the type of source of pollution?

A

because it can help in controlling pollutant inputs to waterways

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7
Q

What might the city council do if they notice that the bulk of waterway pollution is coming from one or two sources?

A

they can target those sources and control them

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8
Q

Is it more difficult to control point–source pollution or non–point–source pollution?

A

non–point–source pollution

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9
Q

What are pathogens?

A

any organism that causes disease, for example, parasites, bacteria, and viruses

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10
Q

Do disease outbreaks from water systems occur often in the US?

A

no, they are relatively rare

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11
Q

Where are disease outbreaks from public water systems more common?

A

in developing parts of the world

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12
Q

What 2 main ways can pathogens enter water systems?

A

through point and non–point sources

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13
Q

What type of water pollution is when pathogens enter rivers and lakes when a sewage treatment plant malfunctions?

A

point source water pollution

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14
Q

What are the 2 main waterborne diseases?

A

cholera and heptatitis

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15
Q

What is oxygen–demanding waste?

A

material that contains organic matter that gets washed into a body of water and depletes the oxygen there

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16
Q

When does oxygen–demanding waste usually get into water bodies?

A

when it rains

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17
Q

Leaves and twigs are examples of which type of waste?

A

oxygen–demanding waste

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18
Q

When bacteria grow on and decompose an organism, they use more of which element?

A

oxygen

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19
Q

What inorganic compounds?

A

chemical compounds that don’t come from plants or animals

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20
Q

What are the most important inorganic compounds?

A

nitrogen and phosphorous

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21
Q

What do nitrogen and phosphorous do in a lake or stream?

A

they limit growth

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22
Q

What happens if there is too much nitrogen and phosphorous in a body of water?

A

they can overfeed the body of water, leading to eutrophication

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23
Q

What is eutrophication?

A

the excessive growth of algae due to an oversupply of nutrients

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24
Q

After eutrophication, what happens to the algae?

A

they die and decompose, leading to large amounts of oxygen being depleted from the water, and the fish population declines as a result of this

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25
Q

What are the major terrestrial sources of nitrogen?

A

farm runoff, sewage treatment plants, and acid precipitation

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26
Q

What are the major terrestrial sources of phosphorous?

A

natural rocks and minerals, fertilizer runoff, and in the past, detergents

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27
Q

Where do other inorganic pollutants come from? (which sources)

A

non–point–sources and point–sources

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28
Q

What are the main sources of nitrate and sulfate pollution?

A

acid precipitation

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29
Q

What is the main source of chloride pollution?

A

by–products of sewage treatment

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30
Q

What is the main source of toxic metal pollution?

A

industrial plants

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31
Q

Acid precipitation is an example of point–source or non–point–source pollution?

A

non–point–source pollution

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32
Q

Sewage treatment by–products are examples of point–source or non–point–source pollution?

A

point–source pollution

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33
Q

Industrial plants by–products are examples of point–source or non–point–source pollution?

A

point–source pollution

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34
Q

What are the most toxic water pollutants?

A

metals, specifically lead, copper, arsenic, and mercury

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35
Q

When did mercury receive a large amount of attention as an inorganic water contaminant around the globe?

A

the early 2000s

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36
Q

What are POPs? (Persistent Organic Pollutants)

A

toxic chemical created by humans for industrial purposes

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37
Q

Are PCBs inorganic or organic compounds?

A

they are organic compounds

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38
Q

What are PCBs?

A

polychlorinated biphenyls, are highly toxic and carcinogenic chemicals

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39
Q

What were PCBs used in before they were banned?

A

they were used in manufacturing plastics and insulating electrical transformers

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40
Q

When did PCBs stop being used?

A

in 1979

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41
Q

Although PCBs are no longer used in the US, are they present in the environment?

A

Yes, they are due to their persistence

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42
Q

What are sediments?

A

nonchemical pollutants that become mobilized when the soil is disturbed

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43
Q

Sand, silt, and clay are examples of _____________.

A

sediments

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44
Q

What are housing and shopping center development and road construction main sources of?

A

they are main sources of sediment

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45
Q

How does sediment affect the organisms in rivers and lakes?

A

they can clog fish gills, hinder fish from obtaining oxygen, particularly bottom dwellers like oysters and clams, and reduce productivity

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46
Q

How does sediment affect the sunlight going into the body of water?

A

increased sediment in a body of water can reduce the infiltration of sunlight, which can also reduce productivity

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47
Q

Any time humans alter water flow so that water moves more slowly, receives more sunlight, or enters shallower water, what happens to the temperature of the water?

A

it increases

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48
Q

What is the result of humans heating up the water in the water cycle?

A

thermal pollution

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49
Q

Does increasing water temperature increase or decrease the amount of oxygen that can be dissolved in the water?

A

it decreases the amount of oxygen that can be dissolved in the water

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50
Q

Organisms in warmer waters use _______ oxygen.

A

more

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51
Q

Increased respiration rate in organisms in warmer waters can cause what?

A

them being more susceptible to disease and the increased temperatures may also affect their reproduction

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52
Q

What are the greatest culprits for ocean pollution?

A

crude oil and other petroleum products

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53
Q

Is oil easy to remove when spilled in oceans?

A

No, it is very difficult to remove oil from oceans once it is spilled

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54
Q

What and when was the most notorious recent spill?

A

the Deepwater Horizon oil spill of 2010

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55
Q

Where was the Deepwater Horizon oil spill?

A

the Gulf of Mexico

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56
Q

How many gallons of oil was spilled in the Deepwater Horizon oil spill?

A

210 million gallons

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57
Q

People use chemical dispersants to break oil down into what?

A

particles small enough to be broken down by sunlight and bacteria

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58
Q

Since which decade has the dumping of solid waste in open waters been reduced?

A

the 1980s

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59
Q

What effects can plastic bags and plastic ring holders for beverages have on animals?

A

they can strangle many animals

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60
Q

What threat does medical waste pose to humans and animals?

A

it can be very toxic, especially to children

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61
Q

Plastic debris in landfills or waterbodies can degrade over time into __________________ or _________________.

A

microplastics, nanoplastics

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62
Q

How large are microplastics?

A

smaller than 5mm

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63
Q

How large are nanoplastics?

A

smaller than .0001mm

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64
Q

What type of food contains the most microplastics?

A

seafood

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65
Q

What is wastewater?

A

water from houses and buildings that is going to a sewage treatment plant or septic system

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66
Q

What wastewater is less harmful to the environment?

A

wastewater from places that aren’t the toilet, for example, water from sinks and showers

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67
Q

Wastewater from sources other than toilets is called what?

A

gray water

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68
Q

What can gray water be repurposed for?

A

activities such as watering lawns

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69
Q

What element does human sewage demand?

A

oxygen

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70
Q

Where are traditional sewage plants mostly used?

A

in developed countries

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71
Q

Traditional wastewater treatment is accomplished in which 2 phases?

A

primary and secondary treatment

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72
Q

What percent of solid waste material does primary treatment remove?

A

40%–50%

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73
Q

The solid material that settles out during the primary treatment is eventually dried and classified as ________.

A

sludge

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74
Q

What does sludge contain significant amounts of?

A

metals

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75
Q

Sludge will have a higher metal content if it comes from which place?

A

a municipality, such as an industrial business

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76
Q

What is the secondary treatment of wastewater?

A

it accelerates the breakdown of organic matter that would occur naturally

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77
Q

What percent of pollutants are removed after the secondary treatment of wastewater?

A

85%–90%

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78
Q

What is done to the wastewater after it goes through secondary treatment and is disinfected?

A

it is returned to a river or lake and is again part of the water cycle

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79
Q

About how many years ago were most harbors and waterways badly polluted?

A

40–50 years ago

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80
Q

When was the Clean Water Act passed?

A

1972

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81
Q

When was the Drinking Water Act passed?

A

1986

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82
Q

When were the Water Resources Development Acts passed?

A

1986–1992

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83
Q

What did the Drinking Water Act and the Water Resources Development Acts do?

A

they worked together to protect surface water by managing water supply, flood control, navigation on waterways, and hydroelectric power

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84
Q

What do the Water Quality Standards do?

A

they place an upper limit on the concentration of specific pollutants in major water bodies

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85
Q

What is required to achieve the standards of the Water Quality Standards?

A

an establishment of the Total Maximum Daily Load for each pollutant

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86
Q

What is the Total Maximum Daily Load?

A

it is the maximum amount of a pollutant that is allowed to enter a waterbody

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87
Q

What is air pollution?

A

the emission of compounds into the atmosphere at levels high enough to harm plants, animals, humans, and other nonliving materials

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88
Q

Air pollution refers to pollution in the _________________.

A

troposphere

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89
Q

What is the troposphere?

A

the first 10 kilometers (6 miles) of the atmosphere above Earth’s surface

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90
Q

What is tropospheric pollution also referred to as?

A

ground–level pollution

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91
Q

Environmental science was used in the development of which regulations?

A

the regulations of pollutants, specifically air pollutants

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92
Q

The US Clean Air Act (CAA) is an example of what?

A

legislation that regulated air pollutants

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93
Q

When was the CAA passed?

A

in 1970

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94
Q

What did scientists do as a part of the development of the CAA?

A

they identified the 6 most common and harmful pollutants and used these as their primary focus

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95
Q

What were the 6 most common and harmful pollutants the scientists identified for the CAA?

A

sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide, lead, particulate matter, and ground–level ozone

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96
Q

What is sulfur dioxide? (SO2)

A

a gas released in nature through volcanic eruptions and by humans through the burning of fossil fuels

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97
Q

How is SO2 produced when burning fossil fuels?

A

all living things contain sulfur and fossils were once living

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98
Q

Which people does SO2 particularly affect?

A

people with asthma or other respiratory illnesses

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99
Q

What does SO2 do to people?

A

it can irritate someone’s lungs

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100
Q

SO2 can undergo a chemical reaction to form which harmful acid?

A

sulfuric acid

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101
Q

Sulfuric acid is one of the main components in _______ ________.

A

acid rain

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102
Q

What percent of the atmosphere is nitrogen gas?

A

0.78

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103
Q

Combustion in the atmosphere leads to what?

A

the formation of a wide variety of nitrogen oxides or NOx

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104
Q

NOx can undergo chemical reactions to form which harmful acid?

A

nitric acid

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105
Q

What is Carbon monoxide? (CO)

A

a colorless, odorless gas that forms when an incomplete combustion of organic matter occurs

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106
Q

CO combines with what to interfere with the transportation of oxygen in the mammalian body?

A

it combines with hemoglobin

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107
Q

What is hemoglobin?

A

an oxygen–transporting protein in the mammalian body

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108
Q

What impacts can CO have on the human body?

A

it can lead to dizziness, headaches, confusion, loss of consciousness, and possibly death

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109
Q

When was the use of leaded gasoline ended globally?

A

2021

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110
Q

Which country was the last to use leaded gas?

A

Algeria

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111
Q

What effects does lead have on people and animals?

A

it can adversely impact an animal’s blood production, producing anemia, and it can have a wide range of adverse neurological impacts

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112
Q

What is particulate matter

A

solid or liquid particles suspended in air

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113
Q

Where do particulates come from?

A

most combustion products, such as wood, coal, oil, and gasoline

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114
Q

Particulates come from which class of pollutants resulting from what?

A

dirty–burning fuels, such as low–efficiency wood stoves

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115
Q

What are natural sources of particulates?

A

Forest fires and volcanoes

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116
Q

What size do particulates range in?

A

0.01 microns to 100 microns in diameter

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117
Q

Particulates have the average thickness of what?

A

a human hair

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118
Q

What problems in the human body are caused by particulates?

A

lung cancer and other ailments in the lungs

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119
Q

Particulates block __________.

A

sunlight

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120
Q

Photochemical air pollutants are a class of air pollutants formed by what?

A

action by the Sun on compounds that are oxides, such as NO2 and SO2

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121
Q

What is photochemical smog?

A

a type of photochemical air pollutant refers to the haze that appears over cities, especially in ones surrounded by mountains, which trap the smog

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122
Q

What is the most important type of photochemical air pollutant?

A

ozone or O3

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123
Q

Ozone is 3 _____________ molecules bound together.

A

oxygen

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124
Q

Why is ozone the most important photochemical air pollutant?

A

because of its positive and negative effects

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125
Q

Where does ozone form?

A

in the stratosphere

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126
Q

What type of light does ozone absorb?

A

it absorbs UV light, keeping harmful UV radiation from reaching Earth

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127
Q

What is ozone in the troposphere?

A

an oxidant harmful to humans and plants

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128
Q

What are primary pollutants?

A

most of the criteria pollutants

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129
Q

What are secondary pollutants?

A

pollutants resulting from chemical reactions in the atmosphere which result in things like acid rain or smog

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130
Q

What powers the formation of smog?

A

solar energy

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131
Q

What type of pollutant is smog?

A

it is a secondary pollutant

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132
Q

A significant percent of air pollution comes from where?

A

natural sources

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133
Q

Volcanoes, forest and grassland fires, living plants, and dead plants all release compounds that can be classified as _____________.

A

pollutants

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134
Q

What pollutants do volcanoes release?

A

SO2, CO, and NOX

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135
Q

What pollutants do forest and grassland fires release?

A

CO and NOX

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136
Q

What occurs when a warm layer of air at mid–altitude covers a cooler layer below it?

A

atmospheric inversion

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137
Q

Where are atmospheric inversions most common?

A

in cities with high concentrations of vehicle exhaust and industrial emissions are easily trapped by an inversion layer

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138
Q

What are primary energy sources?

A

non–renewable and renewable energy sources

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139
Q

Electricity is an example of what type of energy source?

A

it is a secondary energy source

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140
Q

How do non–renewable energy sources produce electricity?

A

the source is used to produce steam, which turns a turbine, which turns a generator

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141
Q

How many years ago were the plants and animals buried to become fossils?

A

160–400 million years ago

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142
Q

What are the different types of coal?

A

peat, lignite, bituminous, and anthracite, this is arranged in lesser to greater energy content

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143
Q

Why is coal so commonly used for the generation of electricity?

A

because it is very energy–dense and plentiful

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144
Q

What are the 2 general ways coal is mined?

A

Deep shaft mining and surface mining

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145
Q

What is deep–shaft mining?

A

When tunnels as deep as 2,000 feet are dug into the Earth and people descend into shafts, mine the coal, and bring it to the surface

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146
Q

Mining creates what adverse environmental impacts?

A

it emits harmful air pollutants, degrades the water quality of nearby water bodies, and creates a problem called acid mine drainage

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147
Q

What is petroleum?

A

the mixture of hydrocarbons, water, and sulfur that occurs in underground deposits

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148
Q

Petroleum is made up of what types of organisms?

A

ocean–dwelling plankton

149
Q

About how long ago were the organisms that make petroleum preserved in sediment?

A

65–250 million years ago

150
Q

What is crude oil?

A

liquid gasoline that is separated from natural gas

151
Q

What is the greatest energy source in the US?

A

petroleum

152
Q

Why is petroleum so useful?

A

because it is very convenient, relatively energy dense, and burns cleaner than coal

153
Q

What percent of carbon is produced in petroleum compared to coal?

A

0.85

154
Q

What percent of natural gas is methane?

A

80%–95%

155
Q

Why does natural gas not produce SO2 or other particulates during combustion?

A

because it has very few impurities

156
Q

How much more efficient is methane at trapping heat compared to CO2?

A

it is 25x more efficient

157
Q

The leaking of natural gas during extraction is a major cause of ____________ pollution.

A

methane

158
Q

How much CO2 does natural gas produce compared to coal?

A

only 60%

159
Q

What is another word for hydraulic fracturing?

A

fracking

160
Q

What is fracking?

A

injecting high–pressure streams of water, sand, and chemicals into bedrock to create fractures in the rock

161
Q

What does fracking allow?

A

It allows for oil and natural gas reserves that were previously unreachable to be reached and tapped into

162
Q

What is the major reason that natural gas has overtaken coal as the second most used energy source in the US?

A

fracking

163
Q

What is the second most used energy source in the US today?

A

natural gas

164
Q

What chemicals does the fluid used in fracking have?

A

methanol, ethylene glycol, and propargyl alcohol

165
Q

The chemicals used in fracking are ______________ to the human body.

A

hazardous

166
Q

About how much water does a fracking well use?

A

a single well can use 40 million gallons of water more

167
Q

In total, how much water has fracking used since 2011?

A

1.5 trillion gallons

168
Q

Where is much of the large–scale fracking taking place?

A

Texas, where droughts are very common

169
Q

Is nuclear power clean?

A

Yes, relatively speaking

170
Q

What type of waste does nuclear power generation create?

A

radioactive waste

171
Q

What is the main fuel for nuclear energy?

A

uranium, specifically uranium oxide

172
Q

How many pounds of uranium is needed to produce 7 pounds of uranium oxide?

A

2,000 pounds of uranium

173
Q

What is the remaining rock when uranium is extracted called?

A

slag piles

174
Q

What occurs after uranium is extracted?

A

the uranium ore is enriched, which is a process that removes all impurities so it contains 2–3 percent uranium oxide

175
Q

The enriched uranium is processed into what?

A

pellets

176
Q

The pellets of enriched uranium are then put into hollow fuel rods which are about how tall?

A

roughly 6 feet high

177
Q

How many bundles of fuel rods will a typical nuclear reactor contain?

A

75–100 bundles

178
Q

A pellet of uranium undergoes which process?

A

radioactive decay

179
Q

What is radioactive decay?

A

the splitting of uranium atoms into more atoms

180
Q

What is it called when an atom splits?

A

it is called a fission reaction

181
Q

What energy is given off when an atom splits?

A

a small amount of heat energy

182
Q

The heat given off from radioactive decay is used to warm what?

A

water, which then becomes steam and turns a turbine

183
Q

What is the most concentrated of all the energy sources listed in the study guide?

A

uranium

184
Q

How large is a pound of enriched uranium?

A

smaller than baseball

185
Q

A pound of enriched uranium contains the energy content of what?

A

a million gallons of gasoline

186
Q

10 tons of enriched uranium oxide contains the energy content of what?

A

260,000 tons of coal

187
Q

How much more energy is in uranium compared to coal?

A

26,000 times the amount of coal

188
Q

How much air pollution do nuclear plants produce?

A

nuclear power plants produce no air pollution

189
Q

When in the nuclear power generation is air pollution produced?

A

when fossil fuels are used to construct the plant, when the ore is processed and mined, when the fuel rods are transported, and when the plant is decommissioned

190
Q

What is the average lifespan of a nuclear power plant?

A

around 50 years

191
Q

Why is the average lifespan of a nuclear power plant so short?

A

because after a certain amount of time, the level of radioactivity in the plant becomes too high

192
Q

At most, CO2 emissions per kilowatt–hour of electricity generated are how many grams?

A

60 grams

193
Q

About how many grams of CO2 emissions are produced per kilowatt–hour for a coal–burning plant?

A

800–1,100 grams

194
Q

How many accidents contributed to the protests against nuclear power in the US?

A

3

195
Q

Where were the 3 major nuclear plant accidents?

A

Three Mile Island in Pennsylvania, Chernobyl in Ukraine, and Fukushima in Japan

196
Q

When did the nuclear accident at Three Mile Island occur?

A

March 28, 1979

197
Q

What caused the nuclear accident at Three Mile Island to occur?

A

a cooling water valve wasn’t closed, which led to a loss of coolant in the nuclear core, and the core overheated and released radiation

198
Q

The nuclear accident at Three Mile Island was a result of what?

A

human error

199
Q

What movie came out around the time the nuclear accident at Three Mile Island occurred?

A

The China Syndrome

200
Q

The movie The China Syndrome paired with the nuclear accident at Three Mile Island caused what?

A

widespread fear and anger about the safety of nuclear power plants

201
Q

What was the film The China Syndrome about?

A

a nuclear plant which suffered a major meltdown

202
Q

When did the Chernobyl incident occur?

A

on April 26, 1986

203
Q

What caused the Chernobyl incident?

A

an explosion and fire exposed the core of one of the reactors

204
Q

How many people died immediately of acute radiation exposure during the Chernobyl incident?

A

31

205
Q

The Chernobyl incident has been studied and characterized as what type of incident?

A

a runaway reactor incident

206
Q

What made the fire during the Chernobyl incident worse?

A

the control rods were made of flammable graphite, making it worse than it would have been if they were water control rods

207
Q

During the Chernobyl incident, what happened when the control rods and coolant were disconnected and removed?

A

the nuclear reactions went out of control and the plant overheated, the plant exploded shortly after

208
Q

When did the nuclear incident at Fukushima occur?

A

March, 2011

209
Q

What caused the nuclear incident at Fukushima?

A

an earthquake occurred off the coast of Japan, resulting in a tsunami on the island of Honshu, flooding the plant

210
Q

How many people died from the tsunami alone that happened before the nuclear incident at Fukushima?

A

18000

211
Q

How many people were forced to evacuated at the nuclear incident at Fukushima?

A

150000

212
Q

Can you enter the area around the nuclear plant in Fukushima?

A

No, it still needs decontamination work

213
Q

How much time will the area around the nuclear plant in Fukushima need to finish decontamination work?

A

up to 40 years

214
Q

What does nuclear power produce that is harmful to humans and the environment?

A

radioactive waste, which is extremely dangerous

215
Q

What does it mean when nuclear fuel rods are spent”?”

A

it means that they don’t have enough fuel left to produce enough heat to make electricity

216
Q

When did the USDE (US Department of Energy) begin examining a site at Yucca Mountain, Nevada?

A

1978

217
Q

How far is Yucca Mountain from Las Vegas?

A

it is about 100 miles northwest of LV

218
Q

What did the USDE want to use Yucca Mountain for?

A

a repository for nuclear waste

219
Q

What prevented the construction of the repository in Yucca Mountain?

A

protests from the Western Shoshone people

220
Q

When did the USDE officially put an end to their Yucca Mountain plans?

A

2023

221
Q

Is the use of fossil fuels sustainable?

A

No, it is being used more than it can be replenished

222
Q

What is sustainable energy based on?

A

the use of renewable energy

223
Q

Are biofuels renewable?

A

They are only if they can be replenished fast enough

224
Q

Almost all energy on Earth is derived from where?

A

the Sun

225
Q

Are water and wind–based energy sources forms of solar energy?

A

Yes, they are considered forms of indirect solar energy

226
Q

What are the other significant sources of renewable energy that are not solar–based?

A

nuclear, geothermal, and tidal

227
Q

What is the solar constant?

A

the amount of solar energy we receive, which is roughly 1,370 watts per square meter each day

228
Q

How many watts of energy from the Sun arrive at the equator?

A

around 200 watts, but can vary from 50–300

229
Q

What is the solar potential?

A

the energy that is potentially available for use by people

230
Q

What is the solar input at night?

A
231
Q

What area of the US has the greatest solar potential?

A

the Southwest

232
Q

Solar energy in the Southwest is available at least ______ of the time.

A

0.9

233
Q

What is passive solar energy?

A

the collection of solar energy directly from the Sun’s rays, without an immediate technology

234
Q

How long has passive solar energy been in use?

A

for thousands of years, for things like heating homes and cooking

235
Q

What is thermal inertia?

A

material that once heated, stays hot, and material that once cooled, stays cold

236
Q

Do stone and concrete have thermal inertia?

A

Yes, they have thermal inertia

237
Q

Do glass and wood have thermal inertia?

A

No, they don’t have thermal inertia

238
Q

What are systems that use energy from the Sun with the assistance of fans, blowers, and pumps?

A

active solar systems

239
Q

What is active solar energy?

A

a system that uses solar energy through a device, like fans, blowers, pumps, and more

240
Q

What are the primary applications of active solar energy?

A

heating water and generating electricity

241
Q

What is used to convert solar energy directly to electrical energy?

A

solar panels, more specifically a photovoltaic solar cell

242
Q

What makes photovoltaic solar cells useful?

A

the fact that they are very thin, use silicon dioxide and generate an electrical current when exposed to sunlight

243
Q

What do contemporary photovoltaic solar cells use?

A

silicon dioxide and a very small amount of metal, such as arsenic or antimony

244
Q

Why do contemporary photovoltaic solar cells use a small amount of metal?

A

to increase the voltage output

245
Q

How many photovoltaic solar cells are usually used in a solar panel?

A

24 or more, and they are joined together

246
Q

How many watts will a single photovoltaic solar cell produce?

A

1 or 2 watts

247
Q

What is a wind turbine?

A

a device that converts the kinetic energy of wind to potential energy in electricity

248
Q

How tall is a contemporary wind turbine?

A

usually about 100 meters

249
Q

How long are the blades of a contemporary wind turbine?

A

usually about 40–75 meters

250
Q

How many kWh will the average wind turbine produce per month?

A

843,000 kWh, enough energy for over 940 average US homes

251
Q

How many offshore wind farms are in operation in Northern Europe?

A

at least 40

252
Q

How many offshore wind farms are in the US?

A

only 2

253
Q

About how many birds die each year from wind turbines in the US?

A

10,000–40,000

254
Q

What is hydropower?

A

when the moving of water is used to generate electricity

255
Q

Hydropower accounts for how much of total renewable electricity in the US?

A

0.287

256
Q

Hydropower accounts for how much of total electricity in the US?

A

0.062

257
Q

As water falls, what energy transformation occurs?

A

potential energy is converted to kinetic energy

258
Q

What does a hydroelectric power plant use kinetic energy produced by water moving for?

A

to spin a turbine

259
Q

What does the amount of electricity produced by a hydroelectric power plant depend on?

A

the vertical distance the water falls and the flow rate

260
Q

What is the flow rate of falling water?

A

the amount of water that flows past a certain point per unit of time

261
Q

What are the 2 main types of hydroelectric power generation?

A

run–of–the–river and water impoundment

262
Q

What happens in run–of–the–river hydro generation?

A

water is diverted from a river passed through a narrow channel, where it runs through a turbine and is returned to the river

263
Q

Are run–of–the–river hydro plants large–scale or small–scale?

A

they are typically small–scale

264
Q

How many megawatts does a usual un–of–the–river hydro plant generate at peak capacity?

A

about 1, which is enough to supply electricity to 1,000 homes

265
Q

What is un–of–the–river hydro generation dependent on?

A

the natural flow of the river

266
Q

How do run–of–the–river hydro plants differ from water impoundment methods on environmental impacts?

A

un–of–the–river hydro plants have a much lower impact on aquatic plants and animals

267
Q

How do run–of–the–river hydro plants differ from water impoundment methods in reliability?

A

water impoundment is much more reliable

268
Q

What is water impoundment as a method of producing hydroelectricity?

A

storing water in a reservoir behind a dam

269
Q

Is the flow of water in run–of–the–river plants controlled?

A

No, it depends on the natural flow of the river

270
Q

Is the flow of water in water impoundment methods controlled?

A

Yes, humans control them

271
Q

Why is water impoundment more common than run–of–the–river?

A

because it allows for electricity generation on demand

272
Q

Water impoundment usually involves what to hold the water back?

A

a dam

273
Q

What is the largest series of dams?

A

the Hydro Quebec dams near James Bay, Canada

274
Q

How much MW (megawatts) can the Hydro Quebec dams produce at its peak?

A

7,300 MW

275
Q

What is biomass energy?

A

the potential energy in organic matter, a type of renewable energy

276
Q

Wood, animal dung, charcoal, plant, remains, and ethanol are all examples of what type of renewable energy?

A

biomass energy

277
Q

What is MSW, or municipal solid waste incineration?

A

It is when waste produced in a city is burned in waste–to–energy facilities to produce renewable energy

278
Q

Biomass energy accounts for what percent of all renewable energy in the US?

A

0.37

279
Q

How much biomass energy used in the US comes from wood or wood products?

A

66.67% (two–thirds)

280
Q

What is ethanol mostly made of?

A

corn

281
Q

How much of biomass energy is sourced from MSW?

A

0.25

282
Q

How much of biomass energy is sourced from agricultural wastes and methane?

A

0.05

283
Q

In most developing countries, what is the most common source of biomass energy?

A

animal dung (poop)

284
Q

What is modern carbon?

A

carbon from living things that have not been fossilized yet

285
Q

What is fossil carbon?

A

carbon from living things that have been fossilized yet

286
Q

What type of carbon is the carbon in biomass?

A

modern carbon

287
Q

Why does biomass energy not contribute to global warming?

A

because the carbon in the biomass was in the atmosphere until relatively recently, meaning there is no net effect on the carbon cycle as long as there is new growth replacing it

288
Q

Why is the use of fossil carbon more detrimental to the environment?

A

because it adds to the amount of carbon in the atmosphere

289
Q

What is the most common biofuel? (biomass fuel)

A

ethanol

290
Q

How is ethanol created?

A

it is created by the fermentation, or decomposition, of sugar and starches in grains that results in the production of alcohol

291
Q

How many gallons of ethanol are made and used in the US each year?

A

1.8 million

292
Q

What percent of ethanol made is ethanol that is derived from corn and corn by–products?

A

0.92

293
Q

Ethanol is mixed with gasoline at which ratio?

A

0.04861111111111116

294
Q

Why is ethanol mixed with gasoline?

A

it boosts the octane of the gasoline, helps oxygenate it, absorbs moisture to prevent freezing, and reduces the amount of gasoline used

295
Q

What is the efficiency difference in 90% gas/10% ethanol vs 100% gas?

A

the mix is 2%–3% less efficient than pure gas

296
Q

What is geothermal energy?

A

the heat produced from the radioactive decay of elements deep in the Earth

297
Q

Is geothermal energy expensive?

A

No

298
Q

Will geothermal energy ever deplete while Earth is still here?

A

No, as long as there is an Earth, geothermal energy will never deplete

299
Q

What are the downsides of using geothermal energy?

A

it can emit localized dangerous gases and it is limited to areas that are geographically active

300
Q

What percent of Iceland’s electricity is from renewable sources?

A

1

301
Q

What percent of Iceland’s energy is from geothermal sources?

A

0.27

302
Q

What percent of Iceland’s energy is from hydroelectric sources?

A

0.73

303
Q

Iceland is a country known for their __________ ________________.

A

active volcanoes

304
Q

Is tidal energy a major energy source?

A

No, it is not commonly used

305
Q

What does tidal energy use to generate electricity?

A

the movement of the tides

306
Q

What are the main reasons tidal energy is not commonly used?

A

in many places the difference in water level is not great enough to provide high and low tides and to harness the energy, a plant would have to be built on the coastline, causing harm to the environment

307
Q

What is energy efficiency?

A

a measure of how effective we are at getting usable work from a given input of energy

308
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from renewable energy in the US?

A

0.215

309
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from nuclear energy in the US?

A

0.182

310
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from coal in the US?

A

0.195

311
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from petroleum in the US?

A

0.009000000000000001

312
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from natural gas in the US?

A

0.39799999999999996

313
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from solar energy in the US?

A

0.034

314
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from wind energy in the US?

A

0.102

315
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from hydro energy in the US?

A

0.063

316
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from biomass energy in the US?

A

0.013000000000000001

317
Q

In 2022, what percent of electricity was sourced from geothermal energy in the US?

A

0.004

318
Q

Which energy source is 100% efficient?

A

None, there is no energy source that is 100% efficient

319
Q

What energy is usually lost during energy conversion?

A

heat energy

320
Q

The more opportunities there are for a loss of energy the more ______________ it is.

A

inefficient

321
Q

How much efficiency do older electricity–generating plants have?

A

0.36

322
Q

How much efficiency do newer electricity–generating plants have?

A

0.42

323
Q

Is it possible for coal–fired systems to reach an efficiency of over 50%?

A

Yes, it is possible but not currently feasible

324
Q

How much efficiency can natural gas have?

A

it can achieve efficiencies of 60%

325
Q

Conservation and increased efficiency are necessary aspects of what?

A

energy sustainability

326
Q

What is conservation?

A

a consumer–based approach that focuses on reducing energy use by changing people’s actions and habits

327
Q

What is the only drawback to conservation?

A

needing to change habits

328
Q

What is increasing energy efficiency?

A

using less energy to do the same work

329
Q

If traveling the same distance, will a lighter or heavier car use less gasoline?

A

a lighter car because it doesn’t need as much energy to move compared to a heavy car

330
Q

What is peak demand in electricity?

A

the greatest quantity of electricity that will be needed at one time

331
Q

When are usually the peak demand periods?

A

from 8 am – 8 pm

332
Q

How is electricity usage monitored?

A

by having 2 meters at each location, one that tracks the amount of usage during peak periods and another that tracks usage during non–peak periods

333
Q

Is electricity less or more expensive at peak demand?

A

more expensive because more people want it

334
Q

Why might someone wait to conduct activities that use a lot of electricity after peak demand periods?

A

to reduce the cost of the electricity

335
Q

The EPA’s Energy Star program gives Energy Stars to appliances that do their work with what?

A

a specific level of efficiency that is less than the normal

336
Q

Will an air conditioner that removes 10,000 Btus per hour while using 1,200 watts to do it receive an Energy Star?

A

No, it is not efficient enough

337
Q

Will an air conditioner that removes 10,000 Btus per hour while using less than 1,000 watts to do it receive an Energy Star?

A

Yes, it is energy efficient

338
Q

What does the IPCC stand for?

A

the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

339
Q

When was the IPCC established?

A

1988

340
Q

Who established the IPCC?

A

the UN Environmental Programme and the World Meteorological Organization

341
Q

Why was the IPCC established?

A

to prepare reviews on the state of climate change and its impacts

342
Q

What is change that occurs in the chemistry, biology, and physical properties of worldwide systems known as?

A

global change

343
Q

What is change in the average weather?

A

climate change

344
Q

What is the greenhouse effect?

A

a natural process that leads to the warming of an area underneath something that traps heat

345
Q

If it is 10C (50F) outside, how hot might be the inside of the car?

A

30C (86F)

346
Q

If it is 30C (86F) outside, how hot might be the inside of the car?

A

38C (100F)

347
Q

Do the windows of cars allow for much heat to escape?

A

No

348
Q

Do the windows of cars allow for much solar radiation to enter?

A

Yes

349
Q

The inflow of energy into a car is greater than the outflow of energy, which means what?

A

there is a positive net flux of energy, thus the car is warming up

350
Q

The hospitable temperatures on Earth are a large function of what?

A

greenhouse gases or GHGs

351
Q

What is the most common GHG?

A

water, more specifically water vapor

352
Q

Are GHGs good?

A

Yes, they are the reason we are living on Earth

353
Q

When does a problem with GHGs arise?

A

when the natural greenhouse effect is increased by the human addition of even more GHGs

354
Q

What is global warming?

A

the increased warming of Earth’s atmosphere and surface temperature due to an increase in GHGs caused by human activity

355
Q

What is one of the greatest difficulties in determining if global warming is occurring?

A

establishing what temperature change has occurred over the recent decades

356
Q

Since when have surface and ocean temperatures been measured?

A

they started being measured in 1880

357
Q

There’s a high degree of confidence in what NASA global temperature data set? (which location and who maintained it)

A

James Hansen at the NASA Institute for Space Studies in NYC

358
Q

How often is Hansen’s graph of global temperature change updated?

A

every month

359
Q

July, August, and September of which year were the hottest months on record?

A

2023

360
Q

How can trees be an indicator of climate change?

A

they add layers of wood around themselves, represented as rings when you look inside, they grow rings when it gets hotter and shrink them when it gets cooler

361
Q

How are corals an environmental indicator?

A

they record temperatures for tens and hundreds of years

362
Q

By what percent have atmospheric CO2 levels increased since 1750?

A

by 50%

363
Q

How much has the global average temperature increased since 1880?

A

2F

364
Q

By what percent has snow cover decreased since the 1960s?

A

by 10%

365
Q

As glaciers retreat, how much is the mean sea level expected to rise by 2100?

A

by 0.1 meters to 0.9 meters

366
Q

How does the damage to the corals affect eco–tourism?

A

it negatively affects it because the corals are dying, there isn’t much to see

367
Q

Climate change is already having what types of impacts on our world?

A

economic consequences and environmental justice consequences

368
Q

What did the 2015 Paris Agreement do?

A

it created a framework for every country on how it can reduce GHG emissions

369
Q

Who will bear the greatest cost of climate change?

A

the poor because they have the fewest resources to deal with this

fjfjfj (29 decks)

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