đź“ť Safe Administration of Medication Flashcards

1
Q

What is Schedule 2 medication in the Australian medication scheduling system?

A

Answer: Medications purchased off the shelf from a pharmacy, such as antihistamines.

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2
Q

Who can initiate Schedule 3 medication administration in hospitals?

A

Answer: Depending on hospital policy, registered nurses or midwives may initiate administration after advice from a pharmacist.

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3
Q

Give an example of a Schedule 4 medication.

A

Answer: Medications that require a prescription from a doctor or nurse practitioner, such as antihypertensives or antibiotics.

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4
Q

What strict guidelines govern Schedule 8 medication?

A

Answer: Supply, storage, prescription, and disposal are controlled by law.

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5
Q

How is Schedule 9 medication usage restricted?

A

Answer: Usage is limited to analytical laboratories and trials.

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6
Q

What types of medications are included in Schedule 11?

A

Answer: Schedule 11 includes some Schedule 4 and Schedule 8 medications with potential for abuse and dependence.

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7
Q

Where must Schedule 4 medications be stored?

A

Answer: Schedule 4 medications must be stored in a locked facility, such as a medication room, cupboard, trolley, or patient bedside drawer.

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8
Q

How should partially used Schedule 8 medications be disposed of?

A

Answer: Partially used Schedule 8 medications can be destroyed by two nurses or midwives, or a nurse/midwife and a doctor or pharmacist.

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9
Q

Who is responsible for disposing of whole, unused, or out-of-date Schedule 8 medications?

A

Answer: Hospital pharmacists are responsible for disposing of whole, unused, or out-of-date Schedule 8 medications.

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10
Q

Where are medication booklets typically kept, and what information do they contain?

A

Answer: Medication booklets are kept in drug rooms and contain information such as medication listings, patient names, U1 numbers, dates and times of administration, and signatures of administering nurses or midwives.

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11
Q

Which schedule of medication in the Australian system does not require a prescription from a doctor or nurse practitioner?

A) Schedule 2
B) Schedule 4
C) Schedule 8
D) Schedule 11

A

A) Schedule 2

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12
Q

What is the primary difference between Schedule 3 and Schedule 4 medications?

A) Schedule 3 medications require pharmacist advice before administration.
B) Schedule 4 medications are available over the counter.
C) Schedule 3 medications are controlled by law.
D) Schedule 4 medications require a prescription for administration.

A

Answer: D) Schedule 4 medications require a prescription for administration.

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13
Q

Which schedule of medication is strictly controlled by law in terms of supply, storage, prescription, and disposal?

A) Schedule 2
B) Schedule 4
C) Schedule 8
D) Schedule 11

A

Answer: C) Schedule 8

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14
Q

True or False: Schedule 9 medications can be administered by registered nurses without a prescription.

A

False

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15
Q

True or False: Partially used Schedule 8 medications can be disposed of by a single nurse or midwife.

A

False

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16
Q

What is the generic name of a medication?

A

Answer: The abbreviated scientific name.

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17
Q

Define trade name in the context of medication.

A

Answer: The brand or marketing name of a medication.

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18
Q

What does “g” stand for in medication measurements?

A

Answer: Gram.

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19
Q

Explain the meaning of “PRN” in medication administration.

A

Answer: As required.

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20
Q

Define the abbreviation “AC” concerning medication administration.

A

Answer: Before meals.

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21
Q

What does “PO” stand for in common routes of medication administration?

A

Answer: By mouth.

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22
Q

What is the significance of “BD” in medication administration frequency?

A

Answer: Twice a day.

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23
Q

Explain the term “Subcut” in the context of medication routes.

A

Answer: Subcutaneous administration.

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24
Q

What does “tab” represent in medication abbreviations?

A

Answer: Tablet.

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25
Q

Define “mane” in medication administration terminology.

A

Answer: Morning.

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26
Q

What is the generic name of the medication known as Panadol?
A) Paracetamol
B) Ibuprofen
C) Aspirin
D) Acetaminophen

A

Answer: A) Paracetamol

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27
Q

Which abbreviation stands for “twice a day” in medication administration?
A) BD
B) TDS
C) PRN
D) QID

A

Answer: A) BD

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28
Q

What does “PO” stand for in common routes of medication administration?
A) Subcutaneous
B) Intravenous
C) By mouth
D) Per rectum

A

Answer: C) By mouth

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29
Q

Which abbreviation represents “before meals” in medication administration?
A) AC
B) PC
C) PR
D) PO

A

Answer: A) AC

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30
Q

What is the significance of medication administration in nursing practice?

A

Answer: Medication administration is crucial for patient care, requiring attention to detail and adherence to protocols to ensure safety and effectiveness.

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31
Q

Describe the distinct roles and responsibilities of healthcare professionals involved in the medication administration process.

A

Answer: Doctors, nurse practitioners, or certified midwives prescribe medications, pharmacists dispense and review them, and nurses and midwives administer medications following legal documentation and standards.

32
Q

Why is understanding the legal framework, professional standards, and ethical considerations essential for medication administration?

A

Answer: It ensures safe and effective medication practices while maintaining accountability and adhering to ethical principles.

33
Q

What are the eight rights of medication administration?

A

Answer: They include the right patient, drug, dosage, route, frequency/time, reason/indication, documentation, and the right to refuse.

34
Q

Explain why nurses and midwives must critically assess and monitor patients before and after medication administration.

A

Answer: It ensures the medication’s appropriateness, effectiveness, and safety for the patient.

35
Q

What action should healthcare professionals take in case of suspected errors or discrepancies in medication orders?

A

Answer: They should promptly escalate the issue for clarification and resolution to prevent potential harm to the patient.

36
Q

Differentiate between single and double checking of medications in healthcare settings.

A

Answer: Single checking is common for Schedule 4 medications, while Schedule 8 and 11 medications usually require double checking to ensure accuracy and safety.

37
Q

Why is compliance with institutional policies and guidelines crucial in medication administration?

A

Answer: It helps maintain patient safety and consistency in medication practices across healthcare settings.

38
Q

Name two therapeutic medication resources that healthcare professionals can utilize for medication information.

A

Answer: MIMS Online and the Australian Medications Handbook (AMH).

39
Q

How do healthcare professionals benefit from utilizing therapeutic medication resources in clinical practice?

A

Answer: These resources provide comprehensive information about medications, including indications, dosages, and potential side effects, enhancing knowledge and ensuring safe medication administration.

40
Q

What is the primary responsibility of nurses and midwives in the medication administration process?

A) Prescribing medications
B) Dispensing medications
C) Administering medications
D) Reviewing medication orders

A

Answer: C) Administering medications

41
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the eight rights of medication administration?

A) Right Patient
B) Right Dosage
C) Right Temperature
D) Right Documentation

A

Answer: C) Right Temperature

42
Q

When should healthcare professionals escalate suspected errors or discrepancies in medication orders?

A) Within 24 hours
B) At the end of the shift
C) Immediately
D) After consulting with a colleague

A

Answer: C) Immediately

43
Q

Which medications typically require double checking before administration?

A) Schedule 4
B) Schedule 8
C) Schedule 2
D) Schedule 3

A

Answer: B) Schedule 8

44
Q

Why is it important for nurses and midwives to utilize therapeutic medication resources?

A) To prescribe medications accurately
B) To monitor patients’ vital signs
C) To enhance knowledge and ensure safe administration
D) To document medication administration

A

Answer: C) To enhance knowledge and ensure safe administration

45
Q

True or False Question:
Nurses and midwives have the right to refuse medication administration if safety concerns arise.

A

True

46
Q

True or False Question:
Single checking of medications is common for Schedule 8 and 11 medications.

A

False

47
Q

What is the primary purpose of documenting medication orders?

A

Answer: To ensure accuracy and facilitate safe administration.

48
Q

What is the significance of confirming verbal medication orders in writing within a specified time frame?

A

Answer: To provide a permanent record and reduce the risk of miscommunication or errors.

49
Q

What is the role of student nurses regarding verbal medication orders?

A

Answer: They are not authorized to accept verbal medication orders.

50
Q

How did the adoption of the National Inpatient Medication Chart (NIMC) in 2019 aim to improve medication administration?

A

Answer: By reducing errors and standardizing documentation.

51
Q

Define a “PRN” medication order.

A

Answer: Administered as needed within specified limits.

52
Q

What is the purpose of a STAT medication order?

A

Answer: Immediate administration, often in emergencies.

53
Q

List three components that must be included in a valid medication order.

A

Answer: Patient’s full name, date and time of the order, and dosage with route of administration.

54
Q

Describe the utilization of the National Inpatient Medication Chart (NIMC).

A

Answer: It provides standardized documentation for medication administration in acute care settings.

55
Q

What should nurses do after administering medication?

A

Answer: Promptly record administration, confirm full dosage administration, and document relevant assessments.

56
Q

Mention one activity that helps nursing students recognize potential errors in medication orders.

A

Answer: Identifying contraindicated medications.

57
Q

Which of the following is NOT a type of medication order?
a) Standing order
b) One-time order
c) PRN order
d) STAT order

A

Answer: b) One-time order

58
Q

What information must be documented on a valid medication order?
a) Patient’s height and weight
b) Prescriber’s favorite color
c) Date and time of the order
d) Nurse’s favorite food

A

Answer: c) Date and time of the order

59
Q

What is the primary purpose of the National Inpatient Medication Chart (NIMC)?
a) To standardize patient diagnoses
b) To provide standardized documentation for medication administration
c) To manage hospital finances
d) To schedule patient appointments

A

Answer: b) To provide standardized documentation for medication administration

60
Q

Who is authorized to accept verbal medication orders?
a) Registered nurses only
b) Student nurses
c) Physicians only
d) Pharmacists

A

Answer: a) Registered nurses only

61
Q

Which activity helps nursing students recognize contraindicated medications?
a) Documenting medication administration
b) Identifying incomplete prescriptions
c) Recognizing medication side effects
d) Identifying allergies in patient records

A

Answer: d) Identifying allergies in patient records

62
Q

True or False: Student nurses are authorized to accept verbal medication orders.

A

False

63
Q

True or False: The National Inpatient Medication Chart (NIMC) is utilized only for pediatric patients.

A

False

64
Q

Which of the following is considered an example of an administration error?
A) Incorrect preparation of medication
B) Failure to administer medication within the prescribed timeframe
C) Administering medication to the wrong patient
D) Unclear orders for medication administration

A

Answer: C) Administering medication to the wrong patient

65
Q

Which of the following medications is considered high-risk and requires additional precautions and vigilance to prevent errors?
A) Ibuprofen
B) Antimicrobials
C) Multivitamins
D) Antacids

A

Answer: B) Antimicrobials

66
Q

What is the first step nurses should take in response to a medication error?
A) Documentation
B) Notification
C) Assessment
D) Incident Reporting

A

Answer: C) Assessment

67
Q

Which of the following is a high-risk medication that requires additional precautions and vigilance to prevent errors?
A) Antihistamines
B) Vitamin C
C) Corticosteroids
D) Chemotherapy agents

A

Answer: D) Chemotherapy agents

68
Q

What is the three-step approach to dosage calculations mentioned in the lecture?

A

Answer: The three-step approach involves ensuring all measurements are in the same system (e.g., milligrams or milliliters), estimating a reasonable amount of the drug, and then performing the calculation.

69
Q

How is the dose calculated using the medication calculation formula?

A

Answer: The dose is calculated as the strength required divided by the stock strength multiplied by the volume. It’s represented as: Dose = (Strength required / Stock strength) × Volume.

70
Q

How is rounding applied to injectable medications and mixtures according to the lecture?

A

Answer: Injectable medications and mixtures are rounded to one decimal place.

71
Q

In medication calculations, when is rounding up applied?

A

Answer: Rounding up is applied when the number is 5 or over. For example, 2.75 would be rounded up to 2.8.

72
Q

What is the recommended dose for a 13kg child prescribed an antibiotic at 25mg/kg?

A

Answer: The recommended dose for the child would be 325mg.

73
Q

How many milliliters of Paracetamol suspension 500mg/5mL are needed for administration if the doctor prescribes 500mg?

A

Answer: 5 milliliters are needed for administration.

74
Q

If a patient is prescribed 15mg of a medication and the available tablets are 5mg each, how many tablets will be administered?

A) 1 tablet
B) 2 tablets
C) 3 tablets
D) 4 tablets

A

Answer: C) 3 tablets

75
Q

What is the recommended dose for a 20kg child prescribed an antibiotic at a dosage of 30mg/kg/day, divided into four doses?

A) 600mg per dose
B) 150mg per dose
C) 1200mg per dose
D) 750mg per dose

A

Answer: D) 750mg per dose