Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology > S5 - Unit One > Flashcards

S5 - Unit One Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What is the basic subunit of any nucleic acid?

A

A nucleotide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the structure of DNA nucleotides

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is the structure of a sugar phosphate backbone composed?

A

A chemical bond forms between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the 3’ end of the sugar on another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the structure of a sugar phosphate backbone?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What holds bases together?

A

Weak hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are prokaryote cells?

A

Cells containing a single circular chromosome and smaller plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are eukaryote cells?

A

Cells containing linear chromosomes in their nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are examples of prokaryotes?

A

Bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are examples of eukaryotes?

A

Plants, animal, yeast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How are eukaryote chromosomes organised?

A

Tightly coiled and packaged around histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Eukaryotes contain linear chromosomes in their mitochondria and chloroplasts - T or F

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Eukaryotes contain circular chromosomes in their mitochondria and chloroplasts - T or F

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the exception to eukaryote cells and why?

A

Yeast cells, they also contain circular plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is gel electrophoresis?

A

A technique which separates DNA molecules by subjecting them to an electrical current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Why is DNA replicated and when does this take place?

A
  • To ensure all the daughter cells have the same genetic info as the parent cells amd to maintain the chromosome diploid compliment
  • Before mitosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a primer and its role in DNA replication?

A

A short strand of nucleotides which bind to the 3’ end of the template DNA strand allowing DNA polymerase to add free DNA nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the first stage of DNA replication?

A

DNA is unwound and H bonds between bases are broken to form 2 template strands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the second stage of DNA replication?

A

DNA polymerase adds free DNA nucleotides using complimentary base pairing to the deoxyribose 3’ end of the new DNA strand which is forming

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do the leading strand and lagging strand differ?

A

Leading - replicated continuously
Lagging - replicated in fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Why is the lagging DNA strand replicated in fragments?

A

Because DNA polymerase can only replicate in the 3’ to 5’ end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What enzyme is used in the lagging strand that isn’t in the leading strand during DNA replication and what does it do?

A

Ligase, joins the DNA fragments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is a template DNA strand needed in DNA replication?

A

Provides a template for the genetic code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why is a supply of DNA nucleotides needed in DNA replication?

A

To produce the new strand of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why is a supply of energy needed in DNA replication?

A

To provide DNA polymerase with energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is a DNA polymerase needed in DNA replication?

A

To join the complementary free DNA nucleotides to the 3’ end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why is a primer needed in DNA replication?

A

To all the attachment of DNA polymerase to start replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is a polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

A

A reaction that creates many copies of DNA outside the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are some uses of PCR?

A
  • Help to solve crimes
  • Settle paternity suits
  • Diagnose genetic disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the temp. required for the first stage of PCR and what happens?

A

92-98 oC
Strands separate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the temp. required for the second stage of PCR and what happens?

A

50-65 oC
Primers bind to specific target sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the temp. required for the third stage of PCR and what happens?

A

70-80 oC
The heat tolerant DNA polymerase replicates the region of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the differences between DNA and RNA?

A

DNA: double stranded, A-T, deoxyribose
RNA: single stranded, A-U, ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What are the three types of RNA?

A

tRNA (transfer)
mRNA (messenger)
rRNA (ribosomal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do each of the RNA types do?

A

t - carries its specific amino acids to the ribosome

m - carries a complimentary copy of DNA from the nucleus to the ribosome

r - forms the organelle: ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are the two processes involved in protein synthesis?

A

Transcription & Translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a codon and what do they do?

A

A triplet of bases on a mRNA molecule
Code for a specific amino acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Where is mRNA transcribed?

A

From DNA in the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Where is mRNA translated and what does it produce?

A

Ribosomes in the cytoplasm
Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is transcription?

A

The synthesis of mRNA from a section of DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the fist transcript produced called in transcription?

A

The primary transcript

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the second transcript produced called in transcription?

A

The mature transcript

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What process makes the mature transcript in transcription?

A

RNA splicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Why does RNA splicing take place

A

To remove the regions of info. not required to make a protein

43
Q

What are coding and non-coding sections of an RNA transcript called?

A

Coding - Exons
Non-coding - Introns

44
Q

What happens after introns are removed in RNA transcription?

A

Exons join together, forming the mature transcript of mRNA

45
Q

What can happen as a result of alternative RNA splicing?

A

Different proteins are expressed from the same gene

46
Q

What is the genome?

A

The entire hereditary information encoded in the DNA of an organism

47
Q

What is the genome of an organism made up of?

A

Genes and other DNA sequences that don’t code for proteins

48
Q

What are non-coding base sequences in the genome involved in?

A

Regulating transcription & Transcribing some to RNA

49
Q

What is the translation of mRNA?

A

The synthesis of a polypeptide chain (protein) using the code on mature mRNA transcript

50
Q

Where does translation take place?

A

The ribosome

51
Q

What other type of RNA is involved in translation?

A

tRNA

52
Q

Describe the structure of tRNA.

A

Folded into a 3D structure due to complimentary base pairing

53
Q

What part of tRNA differs between each molecule?

A

The amino acid they carry to the ribosome

54
Q

What is an anticodon?

A

An exposed triplet of bases on tRNA

55
Q

Describe the process of translation.

A

Begins at start codons and ends at stop codons. Anticodons bind to codons by complimentary base pairing. This translates the genetic code into amino acids. Peptide bonds then join the amino acids together

56
Q

What determines the function of a protein?

A

Their shape

57
Q

What are examples of proteins learned about in class?

A

Hormones, structural, enzymes & antibodies

58
Q

What are the functions of each of the proteins learned in class?

A

Chemical messengers, part of the cell membrane structure, biological catalyst, defend the body against antigens

59
Q

What is a phenotype determined by?

A

The proteins produced as a result of gene expression

60
Q

What factor besides genes can influence a phenotype?

A

Environmental

61
Q

What are multicellular organisms made up of?

A

A large number of specialised cells

62
Q

What is cellular differentiation?

A

The process by which a cell expresses certain genes to produce protein characteristics for that type of cell

63
Q

Where does differentiation occur?

A

In embryonic and tissue stem cells in animals and meristems in plants

64
Q

What are stem cells?

A

Unspecialised cells that can differentiate and divide to self renew

65
Q

What are embryonic stem cells called and why?

A

Pluripotent, they can differentiate into all cells

66
Q

What are tissue stem cells called and why?

A

Multipotent, they can differentiate into all the types of cells found in a particular tissue type

67
Q

What are tissue stem cells used for?

A

Repair, growth and renewal of the cells found in that tissue

68
Q

What are therapeutic uses of stem cells used for?

A

The repair of damaged or diseased organs or tissues

69
Q

What are examples of uses of therapeutic stem cells?

A

Corneal repair and regeneration of damaged skin

70
Q

What are research uses of stem cells?

A

Used as model cells to study how disease develops or in drug testing

71
Q

Why is it unethical to use embryonic stem cells in research or therapeutic uses?

A

Because it destroys potential life

72
Q

What are meristems?

A

regions of unspecialised cells in plants that can divide and/or differentiate

73
Q

What are mutations?

A

A spontaneous change in DNA which results in no proteins or different proteins being synthesised

74
Q

What are mutagenic agents and what are examples of them?

A

Factors that speed up the rate of a mutation.
Chemicals and exposure to radiation

75
Q

What are the types of single gene mutations?

A
  • Substitution
  • Deletion
  • Insertion
    (S.I.D)
76
Q

What are the definitions for each of the single gene mutations?

A
  • When one nucleotide is swapped for another
  • The addition of a nucleotide
  • When a nucleotide is removed
77
Q

Out of the three single gene mutations, which one is different to the rest and why?

A
  • Substitution
  • It is a point mutation and so only affects one codon and amino acid
78
Q

What are the two types of single gene mutations that are frameshift mutations and what does this mean?

A
  • Insertion and deletion
  • It affects all the codons and amino acids after the mutation
79
Q

What is a missense mutation?

A

A mutation that results in one amino acid being swapped for another

80
Q

What is a nonsense mutation?

A

A mutation that results in a premature stop codon being produced resulting in a shorter protein

81
Q

What are splice site mutations?

A

When introns are retrieved and / or exons are lost in the mature transcript

82
Q

What is an example of a splice site mutation?

A

Thalassemia

83
Q

What does a chromosome structure mutation involve?

A

The breakage of one or more chromosomes

84
Q

What are the types of chromosome structure mutations?

A
  • Translocation
  • Inversion
  • Duplications
  • Deletion
    (T.I.D.D)
85
Q

What is the definition of a deletion chromosome structure mutation?

A

When a section of a chromosome is removed

86
Q

What is the definition of a duplication chromosome structure mutation?

A

When a section of a chromosome is added from its homologous partner

87
Q

What is the definition of a inversion chromosome structure mutation?

A

When a section of a chromosome is reversed

88
Q

What is the definition of a translocation chromosome structure mutation?

A

When a section of a chromosome is added to another chromosome that is not it’s homologous partner

89
Q

What is evolution?

A

The changes in organisms over generations as a result of genomic variations

90
Q

What is natural selection?

A

A non-random increase in frequency of DNA sequences that increase survival and the non-random reduction in the frequency of harmful sequences

91
Q

What are the types of selection (excluding natural)?

A
  • Disruptive
  • Stabilising
  • Directional
    (D.S.D)
92
Q

What is vertical transfer?

A

When DNA is inherited from parents to offspring as a result of sexual or asexual reproduction

93
Q

What is horizontal transfer?

A

When prokaryotes exchange genetic material between individuals of the same generation

94
Q

What is a species?

A

A group of organisms that do not normally interbreed with other groups and are capable of interbreeding to produce fertile offspring

95
Q

What is speciation?

A

The formation of a new biological species by evolution as a result of: isolation, mutation, selection

96
Q

What are the two types of speciation and what are the differences?

A
  • Allopatric: occurs when the gene flow between 2 or more subpopulations is prevented by geographical barriers
  • Sympatric: Occurs when 2 or more subpopulations live in close proximity in the same environment but still become genetically isolated
97
Q

What is genomic sequencing?

A

When the sequence of DNA nucleotide bases can be determined for individual genes and entire genomes

98
Q

Computer programs can be used for what in genomic sequencing?

A

Identifying base sequences by looking for sequences similar to known genes

99
Q

What is required to compare sequence data and what is it known as?

A
  • Computer and statistical analysis
  • Bioinformatics
100
Q

What is phylogenetics?

A

The study of evolutionary history and relationships by using gene sequences to study evolutionary relatedness among different groups of organisms

101
Q

What can phylogenetic trees help show?

A

That the further apart two species are, the more distantly they are related and vise versa

102
Q

What are the tree domains of life?

A
  • Bacteria
  • Archaea
  • Eukaryotes
103
Q

What has been used to determine the sequence of events in the evolution of life?

A

Sequence data and fossil evidence

104
Q

What is the order of events of the evolution of life?

A

Evolution of:
- cells
- last universal ancestors
- prokaryotes
- photosynthetic organisms
- eukaryotes
- multicellular organisms
- animals
- vertebrates
- land plants

105
Q

What is pharmacogenetics?

A

The use of genome info. in the choice of drugs

Biology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions