RUMINANT MEDICINE for Finals Flashcards

1
Q

an infectious disease that affects sheep, calves, goats, and pigs.

A

CHLAMYDIAL POLYARTHRITIS

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2
Q

In sheep and goats, stiffness, lameness, hyporexia or anorexia, and ___________________ may occur.

A

concurrent conjunctivitis

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3
Q

Causative agent of Chlamydial polyarthritis

A

Chlamydophila (Chlamydia) pecorum (reclassified from Chlamydophila [Chlamydia] psittaci)

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4
Q

Most frequently, one of the causal lesions is present and the transition from the initial lesion to the joint infection is readily apparent. However, when a swollen foot is treated before the cause
has been established, a joint infection may have been ongoing for weeks before the true nature of the condition is diagnosed.

A

SEPTIC ARTHRITIS OF THE DISTAL INTRAPHALANGEAL JOINT

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5
Q

Infection enters the distal interphalangeal joint via three possible main sites:

A

1) the dorsal commissure of the interdigital space, via penetrating trauma or complicated footrot (interdigital phlegmon
2) sandcracks;
3) white line disease or retroarticular abscess.

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6
Q

Clinical signs

A

Increased pain, together with swelling of the anterior region of the coronary band in cases of sandcrack and white line disease, is suggestive of joint infection.

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7
Q

Treatment

A

Digital amputation is indicated in animals that have a limited life expectancy, eg, old or poor-producing animals. The procedure is
simple, quick, can be perfom1ed in standing animals under regional analgesia, and in most cases, produces rapid relief.

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8
Q

characterized by three soft, fluctuating
swellings between the ligaments of the femorotarsal joint. In some instances, this condition is heritable. It does not cause pain
or lameness. In later life, there may be a predisposition to arthritis.

• diagnosed by depressing the swelling of the
joint capsule at one location and palpating the fluctuation that is seen at another. There is no successful treatment.

A

SEROUS TARSITIS (BOG SPAVIN)

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9
Q

a worldwide disease of farm animals that results from ingestion of sclerotia of the parasitic fungus Claviceps purpurea, which replaces the grain or seed of rye and other small grains or forage plants, such as the bromes, bluegrasses, fescues, and ryegrasses.

A

ERGOTISM

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10
Q

___________ the first sign, may appear 2–6 weeks or more after initial ingestion, depending on the concentration of alkaloids in the ergot and the quantity of ergot in the feed. Body temperature and pulse and respiration
rates are increased.

A

Lameness

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11
Q

Treatment

A

• Cessation of exposure
• Temperate environment (shade and cooling in hot weather or warmth in cold weather); good bedding for animals with lameness and distal limb lesions
• Supportive treatment, including the use of antimicrobials if the distal limb lesions are infected; adequate and easily accessible food and water

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12
Q

_________________, which resembles ergot toxicosis, is believed to be caused by ergot alkaloids, especially ergovaline, produced by the endophyte fungus Neotyphodium coenophialum in tall
fescue grass (Lolium arundinaceum, formerly Festuca arundinacea).

A

FESCUE FOOT (FESCUE LAMENESS)

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13
Q

Clinical signs

A

It begins with lameness in one or both hindfeet and may progress to necrosis of the distal part of the affected limbs. The tail and ears also may be affected independently of the lameness. In addition to gangrene of these extremities, animals may show loss of body mass, an arched back, and a rough coat. Outbreaks have been confirmed in cattle, and similar lesions have been reported in sheep.

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14
Q

a disease complex of ruminants and horses caused by plant poisoning or mineral imbalances and characterized by extensive calcification of soft
tissues.

A

Enzootic calcinosis

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15
Q

Clinical signs of Enzootic calcinosis

A
  • Stiffness and shifting limb lameness.
  • Abnormal straightness of distal joints.
  • Stiff, slow gait with short steps.
  • Forelimbs primarily affected; some animals graze or walk on their knees.
  • Tachycardia (rapid heart rate).
  • Audible heart murmurs (if endocardial calcification is present).
  • Prominent jugular venous pulse in some cases.
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16
Q

DISORDER OF BONES AND JOINTS

A

Ankylosing spondylosis
Degenerative Arthropathy

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17
Q

exostoses develop on the ligament of the ventral aspect of the lumbar vertebrae, primarily in older
bulls. Fracture of the exostosis and associated vertebrae causes pressure on the spinal cord, which results in severe ataxia or paralysis. There is no treatment.

A

Ankylosing spondylosis

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18
Q

This nonspecific condition affecting mainly the hip and stifle is characterized by degeneration of articular cartilage and eburnation of subchondral bone, joint effusion, and fibrosis with calcification of the joint capsule.

A

Degenerative Arthropathy

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19
Q

the partial or complete break in a bone, caused by
trauma, stress, or pathological conditions such as:

  • Falls or slips, particularly on slippery or uneven surfaces.
  • Vehicle accidents or being struck by heavy machinery.
  • Kicks from other animals or collisions during handling.
A

FRACTURES

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20
Q

Clinical signs of Fractures

A
  • Swelling, deformity, or abnormal angulation of the limb.
  • Open wounds with exposed bone in compound fractures.
  • Lameness or inability to bear weight on the affected limb.
  • Reluctance to move.
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21
Q

Treatment

A
  • Casting or Splinting: For simple, closed fractures in small ruminants or young animals.
  • External Fixation: Using external pins or frames for stable immobilization.
  • Internal Fixation: Surgical placement of plates, screws, or intramedullary pins in severe or displaced fractures.
  • Amputation: As a last resort in irreparable fractures, especially in small ruminants.
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22
Q

seen in most breeds of cattle. The forms range from the so-called Dexter “bulldog” lethal in which the calf is invariably stillborn, to mildly affected
animals .

  • improper development of the growth plate, causing dwarfism (brachycephalic or dolichocephalic).
A

DYSCHONDROPLASIA (BULLDOG CALF)

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23
Q
  • Short faces, bulging foreheads, prognathism, cleft palate, large abdomens, and short legs are characteristic. They are approximately half normal size.
  • common in hereford cattle
A

brachycephalic

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24
Q
  • same general body conformation as the brachycephalic dwarf, except that it has a long head and does not have either a bulging forehead or prognathism.
  • common in angus cattle
A

dolichocephalic

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25
Q

a hereditary condition of Jersey cattle, apparently
controlled by a simple lethal autosomal recessive gene. Some affected calves are born dead. Living calves appear normal at birth but are unable to stand because of incompletely formed muscles, ligaments, tendons, and joints. The shoulder and hip joints can be rotated in any direction without apparent discomfort.

A

Limber leg

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26
Q

a generalized, inherited bone defect in cattle, dogs, and cats, characterized by extreme fragility of
bones and joint laxity attributable to any of a large number of possible mutations of type I collagen.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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27
Q

Clinical signs

A

The mechanical properties of the “soft” part of the
collagen/mineral composite in the bone appear to be altered. The long bones are slender and have thin cortices. Calluses and recent fractures may be present. The sclera of the eyes may be bluish. The inheritance is most likely polygenic

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28
Q

a metabolic bone disease characterized by a
systemic increase in skeletal mass. It is a rare disease that appears to be inherited as a simple autosomal recessive trait in Angus, Sinmmental, Dutch Holstein-Freisian and Hereford cattle.

A

Osteopetrosis

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29
Q

Signs

A

It is characterized by premature stillbirth 10 days to 1 mo before term, brachygnathia inferior, impacted molar teeth, and easily fractured long bones. Bone marrow cavities are absent and replaced by primary spongiosa. The fetal-like abnormal
intramedullary bone consists of chondroosseous tissue. Foramina of the skull and long bones are hypoplastic or aplastic.

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30
Q

Diagnosis

A

Diagnosis is confirmed by a longitudinal bisection of long bones revealing the diaphysis filled with a plug of bone instead of marrow.

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31
Q

also known as Hereditary chondrodysplasia, is an inherited, semi-lethal, musculoskeletal disease affecting lambs primarily of Suffolk or Hampshire breeds.

A

SPIDER LAMB SYNDROME OF SHEEP

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32
Q

The location of the locus causing spider lamb syndrome is ________________. This mutation causes an inactivation of normal fibroblast growth factor receptor 3, which produces skeletal. overgrowth in animals homozygous for the gene.

A

along the distal end of ovine chromosome 6.

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33
Q

Clinical Signs

A

Signs
• Limb Deformities:
○ Medial deviation of carpus and hock; bowed radius, ulna, and tibiae; thickened growth plates.
• Spinal & Skull Changes:
○ Kyphosis causing rounded backline; “Roman nose” skull with narrowed occipital condyles.
• Chest Abnormalities:
○ Flattened sternum due to dorsal deviation of sternebrae.
• Muscle Atrophy:
○ Predominant across affected lambs.

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34
Q

Also known as mule foot, is the partial or complete fusion of the digits of one or more feet. Reported in numerous cattle breeds, it
is most prevalent in Holsteins and is inherited as a simple autosomal recessive condition.

A

Syndactyly

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35
Q

a genetic defect of cattle, sheep, pigs, and
occasionally horses. In its most common form, the second digit is developed but the medial dewclaw is missing. The toes may be fused to give rise to polysyndactyly.

A

Polydactyly

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36
Q

twisted throughout its length in a configuration that displaces the abaxial wall by up to 360°. One or both lateral hind claws may be affected in cows >4 yr old.

A

CORKSCREW CLAW

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37
Q

Pathogenesis/Cause of corkscrew

A

Bone molding is seen in the distal phalanx, but it is not known whether this is a matter of cause or effect. Periarticular exostoses develop around the distal interphalangeal joint,
possibly resulting from strain of the distal abaxial collateral ligament. Pressure from the exostosis on the dermis of the wall probably accounts for the excessive growth of the abaxial wall

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38
Q

Treatment

A

• correctly trimming the hoof.
• however, it does not cure the animal but it helps animal get around for a while
• culling is recommended

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39
Q

named for its alleged likeness to a Persian
slipper. The claw is flat and curled upward to forn a square end. The horn is heavily ridged and has lost its shine, and the coronary band is rougher and darker than normal. Although there is no objective evidence to support the theory, the slipper foot is probably synonymous with chronic laminitis and may be a sequela of either acute or subclinical laminitis. Treatment is always disappointing. The claw can be shaped to approximate normal, but invariably it collapses and serious sequelae follow. Animals with slipper foot should be culled as soon as economically appropriate.

A

SLIPPER FOOT

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40
Q

occurs outside North America and consists of subcutaneous and intramuscular parasites
causing bleeding.

A

PARAFILARIA BOVICOLA/PARAFILARIA INFECTION

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41
Q
  • ________________ nematode causing
    parafilariosis in cattle
  • Transmitted by ________ (Musca autumnalis)
  • Flies ingest _________ from infected animals
  • Infective larvae passed to cattle via feeding
    on _________
A

Parafilaria bovicola;
face flies;
larvae;
wounds or mucus

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42
Q

Clinical signs

A

• Intermittent skin bleeding, especially around
the collar, scapular region, and thorax
• Lesions resemble bruises and may ooze
blood for hours
• Inflammation, myiasis, and secondary
infections
• Severe cases can cause extensive tissue
damage, leading to carcass condemnation
at slaughter

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43
Q

___________________identification of clinical signs and blood microfilariae
___________________can show parasite eggs and microfilariae.
___________________ detect P. bovicola DNA in skin biopsies and exudates for more accurate diagnosis

A

Traditional methods; Examination of blood; Newer techniques (PCR assays)

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44
Q
  • _____________________ - administered as a single injection.
  • _____________________ - given in two doses at three-day intervals.
A
  • Ivermectin (Virbamec LA);
  • Nitroxynil (Wirecide F)
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45
Q

a small, filarial parasite that causes a circumscribed dermatitis along the ventral
midline of cattle.

A

STEPHANOFILARIASIS

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46
Q
  • Stephanofilariasis caused by _______________
  • Transmitted by __________________
  • ___________ in dermis; __________ in skin
    lesions
  • Flies ingest ____________ and transmit infective
    larvae to cattle during feeding
A

Stephanofilaria stilesi;
horn fly bites
Adult worms, Microfilariae
microfilariae

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47
Q

manifested by pruritus and dermal irritation,
resulting in scratching, rubbing, and biting of infested areas.

A

Pediculosis

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48
Q

Different types of mange in cattle

A
  • Chorioptic
  • Sarcoptic
  • Psoroptic
  • Demodectic
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49
Q

transmitted by direct contact, survives off-host for 3 week

A

Chorioptes bovis

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50
Q

affects young, weak cattle

A

Demodex species

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51
Q

Mild lesions, hair loss, and moderate itching, is a clinical sign of?

A

Chorioptic

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52
Q

Severe itching, hair loss, and crusting, are a clinical sign of?

A

Sarcoptic

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53
Q

Intense itching, crusting, and rapid spread, are a clinical sign of?

A

Psoroptic

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54
Q

Chronic inflammation and no itching is the clinical sign of?

A

Demodectic

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55
Q

MANGE IN SHEEP AND GOATS

A

Sarcoptes scabiei
Chorioptes bovis
Psoroptes ovis
Demodex ovis
Psorobia ovis

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56
Q

Causes intense itching (sarcoptic mange)

A

Sarcoptes scabiei

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57
Q

Affects legs (chorioptic mange)

A

Chorioptes bovis

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58
Q

Causes severe lesions in sheep (psoroptic mange)

A

Psoroptes ovis

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59
Q

Caused by UV light, common in breeds with non-pigmented skin, like Herefords and Holstein

A

Squamous Cell Carcinoma

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60
Q

Caused by bovine leukosis virus (BLV), more common in dairy herds like Holsteins

A

Lymphosarcoma

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61
Q

Rare, more common in Angus

A

Melanocytic Neoplasms

62
Q

It is a rare, hereditary disease of cattle, pigs, cats, and people that results from a significant yet variable decrease in uroporphyrinogen III synthase (URO-synthase) activity

A

PORPHYRINURIA
(Congenital Erythropoietic Porphyria, Pink Tooth, Osteohemochromatosis)

63
Q

Etiology of PORPHYRINURIA

A
  • Porphyrinuria in cattle is caused by heme biosynthesis disorders, including:
    ⚬ Acute idiopathic porphyria (sporadic)
    ⚬ Hereditary congenital erythropoietic porphyria
    (CEP)
  • Environmental factors like diet or toxins may also play a role
64
Q

occurs in dairy cattle due to excess fat in the liver, often linked to negative energy balance during late pregnancy and early lactation.

A

Fatty liver disease, or Fat Cow Syndrome

65
Q

Etiology

A
  • Negative Energy Balance: High milk production exceeds intake after calving
  • Excessive Fat Mobilization: Over-conditioned cows mobilize fat too quickly, causing liver fat buildup
  • Dietary Factors: Poor feeding practices contribute to over-conditioning and fatty liver
66
Q

Clinical sign

A

Anorexia, weight loss, decreased milk production, increased diseases, and neurological symptoms

67
Q

An acute neurological condition due to low dietary
intake of magnesium typically affecting lactating
cattle grazing green pastures or cereal crops.

A

HYPOMAGNESEMIC TETANY/Grass Stagger

68
Q
  • Hypomagnesemic tetany occurs due to ____________________, especially on magnesium-deficient pastures like ryegrass
  • Condition is ___________________ in lactating cows
A

low magnesium intake; worsened by milk loss

69
Q

Clinical signs

A
  • Restlessness, high head carriage, teeth grinding,
    muscle twitching, staggering, isolation, and excitable behavior.
  • In severe cases, cows may collapse or die suddenly.
70
Q

the clinical expression of severe hyperketonemia and is a common disease of adult cattle. In dairy cattle, it occurs when energy demands exceed intake, leading to excessive fat mobilization and ketone production.

A

KETOSIS/KETONEMIA

71
Q

It is a disease, primarily in dairy cattle but also seen in beef cattle and non-bovine domesticated animals, characterized by reduced blood calcium levels (hypocalcemia)

A

MILK FEVER/PARTURIENT PARESIS/MILK STEW

72
Q

Standing, hypersensitive, muscle tremors, teeth grinding, ataxia

A

Stage 1

73
Q

Sternal recumbency, head over flank, low temperature, dilated pupils, increased heart rate, ruminal stasis.

A

Stage 2

74
Q

Lateral recumbency, unconsciousness, faint heart sounds, rare recovery without treatment

A

Stage 3

75
Q

a sporadic condition seen worldwide that most commonly affects individual high-yielding dairy cows at the onset of lactation. It is is caused by
phosphorus deficiency, leading to red blood cell
damage.

A

Postparturient hemoglobinuria

76
Q

It is a metabolic disease occurring in late gestation,
typically occurring when nutrition is inadequate.
It occurs when maternal glucose homeostasis is disrupted and energy demands cannot meet those of the developing fetus.

A

PREGNANCY TOXEMIA IN COWS, EWES

77
Q

caused by the bacteria Fusobacterium necrophorum, affects a variety of ruminants and is
associated with necrotic lesions in the oral cavity, throat, hooves, liver, and other tissues.

A

necrobacillosis (CALF DIPHTHERIA)

78
Q

the most common form is an _________________, usually seen in calves less than 3 months old.

A

acute oral (mouth) infection

79
Q

The second form is usually seen in ___________ and affects the ____________ (or voice-box).

A

older calves; larynx

80
Q

includes multiple forms of pneumonia such as enzootic pneumonia in calves and shipping fever in adult cattle.

A

BOVINE RESPIRATORY DISEASE COMPLEX

81
Q

early recognition of BRD in cattle.

A

Behavioral indicators of sickness

82
Q

an RNA virus classified in the Paramyxovirus
family. Infections are common in cattle. Considered a minor pathogen and usually
associated with mild to subclinical infections. Transmitted via direct contact or via aerosols from an infected animal to a healthy animal. Most important role is serving as an initiator that can lead to development of secondary bacterial pneumonia.

A

PARAINFLUENZA-3 VIRUS

83
Q
  • an RNA virus classified as a pneumovirus in the Paramyxovirus.
  • occurs predominantly in young cattle or calves less than 6 months old; however, adult cattle can be affected.
  • named for its characteristic cytopathic
    effect: the formation of syncytial cells.
  • Sheep and goats can also be infected by
    respiratory syncytial viruses.
  • distributed worldwide and is ubiquitous in
    the cattle population.
A

BOVINE RESPIRATORY SYNCYTIAL VIRUS

84
Q
  • widespread in the cattle population.
  • In feedlot cattle, the respiratory form of
    of this virus is most common.
  • In breeding cattle, abortion or genital
    infections are more common.
A

BOVINE HERPESVIRUS I (INFECTIOUS RHINOTRACHEITIS)

85
Q

BHV-1 is associated with these clinical signs in cattle:

A
  • infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR)
  • infectious pustular vulvovaginitis
  • balanoposthitis
  • conjunctivitis
  • abortion
  • encephalomyelitis
  • mastitis
86
Q

3 subtypes of BHV-1

A

BHV-1.1 (respiratory subtype)
BHV-1.2 (genital subtype)
BHV-1.3 (encephalitic subtype)

87
Q

The incubation period for the respiratory and genital forms of BHV-1

A

2–6 days

88
Q
  • an RNA virus classified as a pestivirus in the family Flaviviridae.
  • capable of inducing immunosuppression, allowing the development of secondary bacterial or viral pneumonia.
  • It affects cattle of all ages and production systems, causing a variety of clinical syndromes ranging from subclinical infections to severe systemic disease.
A

BOVINE VIRAL DIARRHEA VIRUS

89
Q

What strain of BVDV is more common globally, with several subtypes.

A

BVDV-1

90
Q

What strain of BVDV is often associated with severe acute disease.

A

BVDV-2

91
Q

Induces visible damage in cultured cells.

A

Cytopathic (CP)

92
Q

Does not cause visible cell damage and is the
predominant form in natural infections.

A

Noncytopathic (NCP)

93
Q

most common presentation of BVDV with
no overt signs but can cause reduced growth or milk yield.

A

Subclinical Infection

94
Q
  • also known as shipping fever
  • significant respiratory disease in ruminants, particularly cattle, sheep, and goats
  • It is caused by bacteria such as Mannheimia haemolytica, Pasteurella multocida, and Bibersteinia trehalosi
  • Transmission: often spread through inhalation of infectious aerosols, especially in crowded or stressful conditions like transportation or poor
    ventilation
A

PNEUMONIC PASTEURELLOSIS

95
Q
  • respiratory disease caused by various Mycoplasma species, primarily affecting cattle, sheep, and goats.
  • Spread primarily via respiratory secretions, close contact, and contaminated equipment.
  • Stress factors such as transport, overcrowding, and weather changes increase susceptibility.
A

MYCOPLASMAL PNEUMONIA

96
Q
  • Affects cattle, sheep, and goats, causing
    not only pneumonia but also conjunctivitis, polyarthritis, enteritis, and reproductive disorders.
  • Transmission:
    Direct contact with infected animals.
    Aerosolized particles from respiratory secretions.
    Ingestion of contaminated feed or water.
A

CHLAMYDIAL PNEUMONIA

97
Q

the primary pathogen of Chlamydial Pneumonia associated with respiratory disease in ruminants.

A

Chlamydia pecorum

98
Q

also known as “fog fever”, is a respiratory
condition affecting ruminants, particularly
adult cattle, characterized by sudden onset dyspnea and severe pulmonary damage.

A

ACUTE BOVINE PULMONARY EMPHYSEMA

99
Q

Etiology of ACUTE BOVINE PULMONARY EMPHYSEMA

A

ingestion of lush, rapidly growing forage (e.g., alfalfa, clover, or fresh grasses)

100
Q

a condition that appears to be similar to “farmer’s lung disease” in people and occurs in both acute and chronic forms in adult cattle.

A

HYPERSENSITIVITY PNEUMONITIS (FARMER’S LUNG DISEASE)

101
Q

ETIOLOGY

A

exposure to moldy hay dust and spores of Micropolyspora faeni

102
Q

In cattle, _________________ is the primary serovar
of concern in North America, with Pomona, Grippotyphosa, Bratislava, Icterohaemorrhagiae,
and Canicola also implicated.

A

Leptospira Hardjo

103
Q

_________________: Common in
nonpregnant, nonlactating cattle.
_________________: fever, anemia, jaundice,
pulmonary issues, and death, particularly in
young stock.
_________________: Leads to reproductive losses
such as abortion, stillbirth, or weak calves. Abortions due to Hardjo are sporadic and
mid- to late-term, whereas Pomona causes
abortion storms in late pregnancy.

A

Subclinical Infections; Acute Disease; Chronic Disease

104
Q

Identified by high antibody titers (≥1:800) or
pathogen detection via immunofluorescence, PCR, or histochemistry.

A

Incidental Host Infections

105
Q

Challenging to diagnose due to seronegative shedders; requires combined urine PCR and
serologic testing.

A

Hardjo Infections

106
Q

acute traumatic events that can result in serious injury or death in ruminants. These incidents are typically caused by direct strikes from lightning during thunderstorms or by contact with electrical sources.

A

Lightning stroke and electrocution

107
Q

Occurs when a ruminant is struck directly by lightning or is nearby when a strike occurs. The high voltage and current can cause immediate
physiological damage.

A

Lightning Stroke

108
Q

Results from contact with live electrical wires or equipment, often due to faulty wiring, improper grounding, or animals coming into contact with electrified fences.

A

Electrocution

109
Q

an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Listeria monocytogenes. It primarily affects ruminants, particularly sheep and cattle, and can lead to severe neurological and reproductive disorders.

A

Listeriosis

110
Q

Outbreaks typically occur ___________ after feeding poor-quality silage.

A

2-10 days

111
Q

Neurological Form (Encephalitis)

A

· Circling behavior
· Ataxia (lack of coordination)
· Head tilt
· Facial paralysis
· Depression and lethargy
· Fever

112
Q

Septicemic Form

A

· Sudden death
· Fever
· Anorexia
· Abortion in pregnant animals

113
Q

Ocular Form

A

· Conjunctivitis
· Keratitis

114
Q

an infectious disease caused by the bacterium Burkholderia pseudomallei, primarily affecting animals and humans in tropical and subtropical regions.

A

Melioidosis

115
Q

a Gram-negative bacillus that can survive in a variety of environments, including soil and water

A

Burkholderia pseudomallei

116
Q

a Gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium that can survive in various environments, including soil, water, and decaying plant material. It is often associated with contaminated feed, especially silage.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

117
Q

CLINICAL SIGNS of Melioidosis in Ruminants

A
  • Fever and lethargy.
  • Anorexia and weight loss.
  • Respiratory distress, which may manifest as
    coughing or difficulty breathing.
  • Localized infections, leading to abscess
    formation in various organs.
  • Neurological signs if the central nervous
    system is involved.
  • In severe cases, melioidosis can lead to
    septicemia and sudden death.
118
Q

caused by bacteria from the genus Nocardia, which are aerobic, filamentous, Gram-positive actinomycetes. The most common species associated with infections in ruminants include Nocardia asteroides and Nocardia brasiliensis.

A

Nocardiosis

119
Q

Mastitis in Ruminants: Nocardiosis can cause
chronic mastitis, characterized by:

A
  • Swelling of the udder.
  • Hardening of the affected quarter.
  • Production of purulent or serosanguineous
    milk.
  • Systemic signs such as fever and depression may
    occur in severe cases.
120
Q

This is a form of nocardiosis that
presents as:
- Cutaneous lesions resembling farcy or
lymphangitis.
- Nodular lesions that may discharge pus and
have a necrotic center.
- Regional lymphadenopathy may also be
observed.

A

Bovine Farcy

121
Q

an inflammatory condition of the peritoneum, the membrane lining the abdominal cavity. In ruminants, it can arise from various causes and can lead to severe systemic illness.

A

Peritonitis

122
Q

caused by Coxiella burnetii, a zoonotic gram-negative bacterium that affects ruminants, especially cattle and dairy animals

A

Coxiellosis (Q FEVER) in Ruminants

123
Q

an acute, febrile tick-borne toxicosis primarily affecting young calves but also adult cattle, with sheep, pigs, goats, and dogs susceptible experimentally. It is characterized by profuse moist eczema and hyperemia of the skin and
mucous membranes.

A

Sweating Sickness

124
Q

After a __________ incubation, symptoms appear suddenly, including hyperthermia, anorexia,
listlessness, ocular and nasal discharge, mucous membrane hyperemia, salivation, oral mucosa necrosis, and hyperesthesia.

A

4-11 day

125
Q

an infection caused by the protozoan parasite Toxoplasma gondii, which can affect various warmblooded animals, including ruminants.
The definitive hosts are felids (cats), which shed oocysts in their feces.

A

Toxoplasmosis

126
Q

a chronic infectious disease primarily caused by Mycobacterium bovis, leading to granulomatous lesions in various organs.

A

Tuberculosis

127
Q

primarily refer to diseases caused by mycobacteria, including Mycobacterium bovis (bovine tuberculosis) and Mycobacterium avium complex.

A

Mycobacterial Infections in Ruminants

128
Q

The primary causative agent of tuberculosis in cattle and other ruminants.

A

Mycobacterium bovis

129
Q

This complex includes several serovars that can infect various species, including cattle and sheep.

A

Mycobacterium avium

130
Q

a zoonotic disease caused by the bacterium Francisella tularensis, affecting various mammals including ruminants.

A

Tularemia

131
Q

The incubation period is __________. The most severely and conmonly affected livestock species are sheep; Type A tularemia is particularly pathogenic for lagomorphs.

A

1-10 days

132
Q

a viral disease affecting livestock, characterized by the formation of vesicles (blisters) in the oral cavity and on the skin, particularly around
the mouth and hooves. It primarily affects
horses but can also impact ruminants such
as cattle, sheep, and goats.

A

Vesicular stomatitis

133
Q

The incubation period is 2-8 days and is typically followed by a fever. __________ is often the first sign of disease.

A

Ptyalism

134
Q

Three commonly used serologic tests are:
_____________, _______________, and ___________. PCR tests may also be used to identify the virus.

A

competitive ELISA
virus neutralization
complement fixation

135
Q

The vesicular stomatitis viruses are zoonotic and may cause self-limiting influenza-like disease (headache, fever, myalgia, and weakness) lasting 3–5 days in people working in close contact with the virus ( eg, laboratory exposure, direct contact with lesions in infected animals ). Rarely, people can develop vesicles on the buccal and pharyngeal mucosa, lips, and nose. More severe signs, including encephalitis, are rare.

A

True

136
Q

primarily a viral disease affecting equines, but it can have significant implications for ruminants due to shared environments and vector interactions.

A

African Horse Sickness (AHS)

137
Q

AHS is transmitted mainly by ___________ that feed on infected equines. Ruminants may become infected indirectly through these vectors or by being in close proximity to infected horses.

A

Culicoides midges (biting flies)

138
Q

a minor injury affecting only the outer layers of the skin and underlying tissue of these structures without deep penetration or significant damage to muscles, blood vessels,
or internal tissues.

A

Superficial Wound to Ruminant’s Udder and Teats

139
Q

an injury that penetrates beyond the skin (epidermis and dermis) into the underlying tissues such as the teat canal, milk cistern, muscle layers, blood vessels, or connective
tissues.

A

Deeper Wound to Ruminant’s Udder and Teats

140
Q

(not involving the milk-producing tissue) can develop between the skin and the supporting connective tissue of the udder.

A

Subcutaneous Abscesses of the Udder

141
Q

common pathogenic bacterium in animal
husbandry that can cause diseases such as mastitis, skin infections, arthritis, and other ailments.

A

Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus)

142
Q

The occurrence of pink or red-tinged milk is
common after calving during the dry period.

A

Bloody Milk (Hemolactia)

143
Q

characterized by a marked narrowing of the teat orifice or streak canal, which makes milking difficult.

A

Teat Stenosis (Hard milker)

144
Q

may result when adhesions fill the teat cistern after severe trauma.

A

Complete Teat Obstruction

145
Q

Trauma (often related to inadequate housing) can result in contusions and hematomas of the udder.

A

Hematoma of the Udder

146
Q

High levels of intramammary pressure in high-producing dairy cows may result in milk dripping from teats.

A

Teat Sphincter Inadequacy (“Leakers“ or lncontinentia Lactis)

147
Q

refers to a section of the udder that no longer produces milk due to damage, disease, or developmental issues.

A

“Blind“ or Nonfunctional Quarters

148
Q

a common name for a necrotic area at the teat orifice that has a secondary infection, usually of Staphylococcus aureus.

A

Blackspot of Cows

149
Q

Teats may be swollen immediately after machine milking.

A

Teat Edema of Cows

150
Q

refers to functional or mechanical disturbances of the ruminant stomach that impair gastrointestinal transit.

A

Vagal Indigestion Syndrome (Chronic indigestion)