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RUMINANT MEDICINE Flashcards

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1
Q

Congenital condition causing absence of skin and/or mucous membrane at birth. Can be accompanied by deformed or absent hooves/claws. Common in cattle (especially Holstein-Friesian)

A

Epitheliogenesis Imperfecta/ (Aplasia Cutis)

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2
Q

a genetic condition characterized by the partial or complete absence of the hair coat in animals, along with potential developmental defects. This condition is most significant in cattle, where it manifests in six distinct syndromes.

A

Inherited congenital hypotrichosis

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3
Q

Poll Dorset Sheep: _________ on the face, ears, and lower legs.

A

Baldness

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4
Q
  • Found in Guernsey and Jersey cattle
  • Complete absence of body hair except eyelashes and tactile hair
  • Animals can survive with shelter but are sensitive to temperature extremes
  • Normal horn/hoof growth
  • Inherited as recessive trait
A

Viable Hypotrichosis

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5
Q
  • Complete hair loss with abnormal thyroid
  • Fatal shortly after birth
A

Nonviable Hypotrichosis

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6
Q
  • X-linked condition affecting bull calves
  • Missing teeth and hair follicles
  • Caused by mutation in EDA gene
  • Impairs growth and increases susceptibility to cold
A

Hypotrichosis with Anodontia

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7
Q
  • Sex-linked semidominant trait in Holsteins
  • Causes irregular narrow streaks of hair loss
A

Streaked Hairlessness

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8
Q
  • Found in Hereford cattle
  • Short, curly hair at birth with some coarse hair later
  • Poor growth but survivable
  • Recessive inheritance
A

Partial Hypotrichosis

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9
Q
  • Affects Simmental crosses with black/blackpied cattle
  • Characterized by diluted coat color and sparse, malformed hair
  • Particularly affects tail switch
  • Linked to PMel17 gene
  • Lower winter growth rates
A

“Rat-Tail Syndrome”

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10
Q
  • Disease characterized by alopecia and horny epidermal plates covering the skin
  • Also known as “fish-scale disease”
  • Affected Breeds in cattle:
    Holstein
    Norwegian Red Poll
    Possibly Brown Swiss calves
  • Also occurs in humans
A

Cutaneous Ichthyosis/ Inherited Congenital Ichthyosis

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11
Q

Clinical Characteristics of Cutaneous Ichthyosis/ Inherited Congenital Ichthyosis

A
  • Newborns appear partially or completely hairless
  • Skin covered with thick, horny scales
  • Scales separated by fissures along skin wrinkle lines
  • Fissures may:
    • Penetrate deeply
    • Become ulcerated
  • Normal hair follicles and hairs present initially but lost in scaled areas
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12
Q

characterized by a congenital deficiency of melanin pigmentation affecting multiple structures including the integumentary system and uveal tract. This condition manifests through distinct phenotypic presentations and follows specific inheritance patterns.

A

Albinism (Inherited Albinism)

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13
Q

Severity Categories of Albinism

A
  1. Complete: Total absence of melanin
  2. Partial: Residual melanin present
  3. Incomplete: Similar to partial, with significant melanin
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14
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Albinism

A
  • Depigmented hair coat
  • Non-pigmented skin
  • Pink irises
  • Photophobic behavior
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15
Q

represents a congenital connective tissue disorder characterized by defective collagen production.

A

Cutaneous Asthenia

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16
Q

Skin Abnormalities of Cutaneous Asthenia

A
  1. Marked fragility
  2. Hyperextensibility
  3. Present from birth
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17
Q

_______________ represents a group of congenital and hereditary mechanobullous diseases characterized by defective dermal-epidermal attachment structures.

A

Epidermolysis bullosa

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18
Q
  1. _________: Affecting epidermal basal cell layer
  2. _________: Located within basement membrane
  3. _________: Involving subepidermal anchoring fibrils
A
  1. Simplex
  2. Junctional
  3. Dystrophic
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19
Q

Pathological Features of Epidermolysis Bullosa Syndrome

A
  1. Dermal-epidermal separation
  2. Formation of flaccid bullae
  3. Development of glistening, flat erosions post-bullae rupture
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20
Q

Anatomical Predominant Lesion Distribution of Epidermolysis Bullosa Syndrome

A
  1. Gingivae
  2. Palate
  3. Lips
  4. Tongue
  5. Feet
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21
Q

Also known as inherited epidermal dysplasia, is an autosomal-recessive lethal condition primarily observed in Holstein–Friesian calves. This genetic disorder is characterized by a progressive loss of hair and overall condition in affected calves.

A

Baldy Calf Syndrome

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22
Q

Affected calves (Baldy Calf Syndrome) appear normal at birth; however, symptoms
typically ______________________________

A

manifest between 1 to 2 months of age.

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23
Q

Known as inherited dyserythropoiesis and dyskeratosis, is a genetic disorder observed in polled Hereford calves. It is believed to be inherited as a simple autosomal-recessive trait.

A

Congenital Anemia, Dyskeratosis, Progressive Alopecia

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24
Q

The clinical signs of congenital Anemia, Dyskeratosis, Progressive Alopecia typically commence ___________________

A

around 2 months of age

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25
Q

Encompass several conditions, including hereditary parakeratosis, lethal trait A46, edema disease, and hereditary thymic hypoplasia. These syndromes are observed in various breeds, notably Friesian, Shorthorn, Angus, and Black Pied cattle.

A

Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome

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26
Q

What is Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome?

A

Encompasses several conditions, including hereditary parakeratosis, edema disease, and hereditary thymic hypoplasia.

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27
Q

What are common breeds affected by Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome?

A

Friesian, Shorthorn, Angus, and Black Pied cattle.

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28
Q

What are the dermatological manifestations of Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome?

A

Symmetric, predominantly acral hyperkeratosis and crusting of the skin.

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29
Q

What general health issues are associated with Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome?

A

Unthriftiness, poor growth, and increased susceptibility to infections.

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30
Q

What specific clinical signs are observed in affected animals?

A
  • Conjunctivitis
  • Ptyalism (excessive salivation)
  • Rhinitis (inflammation of the nasal mucosa)
  • Diarrhea
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31
Q

What does Porphyria refer to?

A

A group of disorders caused by an abnormal accumulation of porphyrins.

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32
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of Congenital Porphyria in cattle?

A

Typically inherited as a recessive trait.

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33
Q

What is the economic impact of Congenital Porphyria?

A

Generally considered of low economic importance.

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34
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Porphyria in cattle?

A
  • Discolored urine (amber to port-wine)
  • Discoloration of teeth and bones
  • Severe photosensitivity
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35
Q

What dietary intervention may alleviate symptoms of zinc deficiency?

A

Dietary Zinc Supplementation.

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36
Q

What challenges exist in treating Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome?

A

Complete absorption failure necessitates injectable zinc, which is impractical for production animals.

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37
Q

What diagnostic methods are used for Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome?

A
  • Exclusion of other conditions
  • Skin biopsy
  • Serum zinc levels measurement
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38
Q

What necropsy findings may indicate immune compromise in affected cattle?

A

Hypoplasia of the thymus and lymph nodes.

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39
Q

What urine analysis result is significant in affected cattle?

A

Significantly elevated levels of porphyrins.

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40
Q

What blood findings may be observed in cattle with Porphyria?

A

Macrocytic, normochromic anemia and reduced erythrocyte survival.

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41
Q

How can Porphyria be confirmed in a diagnosis?

A

High levels of porphyrins in blood and urine.

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42
Q

What management strategies are recommended for affected animals?

A

Keeping affected animals indoors to avoid sunlight exposure.

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43
Q

Why is breeding control important in the management of Hereditary Zinc Deficiency Syndrome?

A

Elimination of carrier animals from breeding programs is essential to prevent the condition’s occurrence.

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44
Q

What is Leucocyte Adhesion Deficiency (BLAD)?

A

A genetic disorder primarily impacting Holstein-Friesian cattle characterized by severe immune deficiencies.

BLAD is an autosomal recessive trait.

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45
Q

What type of inheritance pattern is associated with BLAD?

A

Autosomal recessive trait

Homozygous individuals are non-viable, while heterozygotes are carriers without clinical signs.

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46
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of BLAD?

A

Signs typically appear between 2 weeks and 8 months of age and include:
* Persistent fever
* Diarrhea
* Cough
* Difficulty breathing
* Delayed healing
* Stunted growth
* Severe periodontal gingivitis
* Chronic pneumonia

Oral health problems include significant bone resorption and premature tooth loss.

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47
Q

What is neutrophilia and its significance in BLAD?

A

Persistent increase in neutrophils without a left shift, indicating an infection response.

It reflects the body’s attempt to fight infection despite immune deficiencies.

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48
Q

What is urticaria?

A

A skin condition characterized by the development of dermal edema, resulting in wheals.

It primarily affects horses but can occur in other species, including cattle.

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49
Q

What are the common causes of urticaria?

A

Common causes include:
* Allergic reactions (insect stings, drug reactions)
* Non-allergic triggers (physical stress, temperature extremes, infections)
* Chronic cases (idiopathic)

Acute urticaria resolves within 12 to 24 hours, while chronic urticaria can persist for days or months.

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50
Q

What is the pathogenesis of urticaria?

A

Primarily due to the degranulation of mast cells, leading to:
* Capillary dilation
* Wheal formation

This process releases inflammatory mediators.

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51
Q

What genetic mutation is linked to BLAD?

A

A single point mutation in the CD18 gene, crucial for leukocyte adhesion.

This mutation leads to impaired immune responses.

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52
Q

What are the management strategies for BLAD?

A

Management strategies include:
* PCR testing to detect heterozygotes
* Eradication programs
* Genotype publication
* Avoiding carrier mating

These strategies aim to reduce the prevalence of BLAD.

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53
Q

Fill in the blank: Affected individuals of BLAD are typically _____ due to severe immune deficiencies.

A

non-viable

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54
Q

True or False: Heterozygotes for the BLAD mutation show clinical signs.

A

False

Heterozygotes are carriers and show no clinical signs.

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55
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with urticaria?

A

Clinical findings include:
* Wheals (0.5 to 5 cm in diameter)
* Minimal itching
* Acute onset of lesions
* Possible respiratory distress in severe cases

Lesions often appear on the neck and body.

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56
Q

What is the consequence of impaired leukocyte adhesion in BLAD?

A

Increased susceptibility to pathogens and chronic intestinal ulcers.

This leads to poor body condition and delayed wound healing.

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57
Q

What is dermatophilosis?

A

A bacterial skin condition commonly seen in cattle, sheep, goats, and horses

Lay terms include ‘lumpy wool’ and ‘strawberry foot rot.’

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58
Q

What bacterium causes dermatophilosis?

A

Dermatophilus congolensis

It is a gram-positive, facultative anaerobic actinomycete.

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59
Q

What are the two forms of Dermatophilus congolensis?

A
  • Filamentous Hyphae: The vegetative form
  • Motile Zoospores: The infectious form that can spread
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60
Q

How is dermatophilosis transmitted?

A
  • Direct contact between infected and healthy animals
  • Contaminated environments (wet or soiled areas)
  • Biting insects and ectoparasites as vectors
  • Asymptomatic animals carrying and transmitting the infection
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61
Q

What environmental factors increase susceptibility to dermatophilosis?

A
  • Prolonged moisture
  • Humidity
  • High temperatures
  • Ectoparasites (like ticks and lice)
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62
Q

In which regions are sporadic outbreaks of dermatophilosis linked to rainfall?

A

Temperate regions

Often linked to artificial wetting such as shower cooling.

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63
Q

Which cattle breeds are resistant to dermatophilosis?

A
  • N’dama
  • Muturu
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64
Q

Which cattle breeds are susceptible to dermatophilosis?

A
  • Zebu
  • White Fulani
  • Renitleo
  • European breeds
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65
Q

Which sheep breeds show resistance to dermatophilosis?

A

Native African breeds

Merino breeds are more susceptible.

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66
Q

What is the economic impact of dermatophilosis on sheep?

A
  • Wool value reduction: Up to 30%
  • Skin value reduction: Up to 40%
  • Secondary losses: Shearing difficulties, increased risk of blow-fly strikes, potential lamb mortality
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67
Q

What are common clinical findings in affected populations?

A
  • Most common in young, moisture-exposed, or immunosuppressed animals
  • Lesion characteristics: Paintbrush lesions in cattle, pyramid-shaped scabs on wool in sheep
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68
Q

What must zoospores do to cause dermatophilosis?

A

Reach skin areas with compromised protective barriers (e.g., abrasions or wounds)

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69
Q

What is the role of phagocytosis in dermatophilosis infection?

A

The body attempts to resist infection through phagocytosis of zoospores; however, limited immunity develops once the infection is established.

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70
Q

What are the characteristics of chronic infections in sheep?

A

Intermittent invasions from affected hair follicles lead to scab formation and further spread of the infection.

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71
Q

What are the attack rates during outbreaks of dermatophilosis?

A

Can reach up to 50% during outbreaks.

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72
Q

What is the prevalence of dermatophilosis in tropical regions?

A

Can be as high as 15%, sometimes reaching 100% in certain herds.

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73
Q

Which factors worsen the severity of dermatophilosis in tropical regions?

A
  • Tick infestations
  • High/medium rainfall areas
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74
Q

What are the impacts of dermatophilosis on cattle?

A
  • Direct deaths
  • Reduced work capacity in draft animals
  • Reproductive failures
  • Decreased milk production (approximately 23% reduction)
  • Hide damage
  • Calf starvation
  • Culling rates of 2-17% during severe outbreaks
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75
Q

What is the most practical method for diagnosing dermatophilosis?

A

Cytologic examination

Stained smears or histological sections can confirm the presence of D. congolensis.

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76
Q

What conditions may mimic dermatophilosis in differential diagnoses?

A
  • Dermatomycoses
  • Warts
  • Other skin diseases
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77
Q

What is contagious ecthyma also known as?

A

Orf

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78
Q

What type of dermatitis does contagious ecthyma cause?

A

Viral, pustular dermatitis

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79
Q

Which animals are primarily affected by contagious ecthyma?

A

Young sheep and goats

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80
Q

Where do lesions typically develop in contagious ecthyma?

A

On the lips, but may also affect the coronet, face, and ears

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81
Q

What is the causative agent of contagious ecthyma?

A

Parapoxvirus, Family Poxviridae

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82
Q

How is the virus of contagious ecthyma transmitted?

A

By direct contact

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83
Q

How long can the virus remain viable in dried crusts?

A

Up to 12 years

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84
Q

What are the stages of lesion development in contagious ecthyma?

A
  • Papules
  • Vesicular Stage
  • Pustular Stage
  • Crusting
  • Proliferation
  • Healing
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85
Q

What occurs during the papule stage of lesion development?

A

Small, raised bumps form

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86
Q

What occurs during the vesicular stage of lesion development?

A

Papules turn into fluid-filled blisters

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87
Q

What impact does contagious ecthyma have on feeding?

A

Affected lambs may struggle to suckle or graze due to pain

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88
Q

What are potential consequences of feeding difficulties in lambs with ecthyma?

A
  • Refusal to Eat
  • Poor weight gain and development
  • Secondary Infections
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89
Q

What microscopic feature is indicative of contagious ecthyma infection?

A

Eosinophilic Cytoplasmic Inclusion Bodies

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90
Q

What are some differential diagnoses for contagious ecthyma?

A
  • Ulcerative Dermatosis
  • Foot-and-Mouth Disease
  • Bluetongue
  • Staphylococcal Folliculitis
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91
Q

What is the preferred method for diagnosing contagious ecthyma?

A

PCR Testing

92
Q

What types of lesions are associated with contagious ecthyma?

A
  • Papules
  • Pustules
  • Scabs
  • Granulation Tissue
93
Q

What is a malignant form of lesions in the context of contagious ecthyma?

A

Proliferation of tissue in response to injury

94
Q

What complications can arise from foot lesions in contagious ecthyma?

A

Lameness and affected mobility

95
Q

What treatment options are available for contagious ecthyma?

A
  • Antimicrobials
  • Vaccination
  • Myiasis Prevention
96
Q

At what age should lambs be vaccinated against contagious ecthyma?

A

Around one month old

97
Q

What is a key consideration when using live vaccines for contagious ecthyma?

A

Must be used cautiously to avoid contaminating uninfected areas

98
Q

primarily associated with skin lesions on the teats and udder of
dairy cattle.

A

Cowpox

99
Q

Primary vectors or cowpox

A

Farm cats and humans

100
Q

Five stages over 3-6 days

A

incubation, roseolar erythema, papule formation, vesiculation, and pustulation, ending with scab formation

101
Q

a member of the Parapoxvirus genus, closely related to the viruses
causing infectious papular stomatitis in cattle and contagious ecthyma in sheep and goats. It was
previously known as parapoxvirus bovis.

A

Pseudocowpox Virus (PCPV)

102
Q

primarily associated with the spirochete Borrelia suilla (formerly B. suis) and Treponema pedis. It has been observed to occur more frequently in pigs infected with Porcine circovirus type 2 (PCV2).

A

Ulcerative granuloma

103
Q

The disease is characterized by chronic ulcers affecting the skin and subcutaneous tissues, often exacerbated by poor hygiene conditions.

A

Ulcerative Dermatitis of Sheep

104
Q

Common causative fungi include:
Microsporum gypseum, Keratinomyces allejoi (horses), Scopulariopsis brevicaulis (cattle).

A

Dermatohytosis in Cattle (Dermatomycoses Ringworm)

105
Q

Also known as warble flies, are obligate parasites that cause myiasis in cattle primarily in the Northern Hemisphere. The larvae of these botflies migrate within the host’s body and form subdermal warbles, leading to economic losses and increased susceptibility to other diseases

A

Cattle Grubs (Hypoderma lineatum and Hypoderma bovis)

106
Q

Cattle exhibit __________, a behavior where they run with their tails raised to avoid female heel flies

A

gadding

107
Q

appear as firm, raised nodules along the
back of cattle, typically from the tailhead to the shoulders.

A

Warbles

108
Q

an abnormal gait or locomotion characterized by limping or not bearing full weight on a
leg, usually associated with localized
pain in the musculoskeletal system.

A

Lameness

109
Q

an abnormal gait characterized by lack of coordination of muscular action, usually because of a lesion of the central or peripheral nervous system.

A

Ataxia

110
Q

inability to maintain a normal posture and gait, usually because of a lesion of muscle or generalized weakness as a result of an abnormal systemic state (e.g., shock), a metabolic abnormality (e.g., hypocalcemia or hypokalemia), or starvation.

A

Weakness (paresis)

111
Q

Disease of lambs of unknown etiology
characterized by carpus valgus, and less
commonly carpus varus*, resulting in a
lateral displacement of the carpus and
medial displacement of the hooves,
although phosphorus deficiency has been
suggested.

A

Bentleg (Epiphysitis; Windswept; Bowie)

112
Q

Occurence of bentleg

A

• Only sucking lambs are affected.
• Forelimbs are commonly affected; More often in males than in females.
• In some cases, young does (extremely heavy milkers or carrying twins/triplets.

113
Q

known as “bow-leggedness”, this is when the limb deviates inward.

A

Carpus varus

114
Q

manifested clinically as polysynovitis-arthritis in adult goats and less commonly as leukoencephalomyelitis (progressive weakness, ataxia, proprioceptive deficits) in kid

A

Caprine Arthritis & Encephalitis

115
Q

seen sporadically in goats of all breeds throughout the world, usually with unexplained etiology.

A

Contracted Tendons in Kids

116
Q

rare condition of Agnlonubians in US, Canada, Australia and New Zealand

A

Beta-mannoisidosis

117
Q

refers to neurologic signs in neonatal and juvenile goats and lambs with Cu deficiency.

A

Copper Deficiency
(Swayback, Enzootic Ataxia)

118
Q

most reliable method in diagnosing copper deficiency

A

Liver biopsy or collection at necropsy

119
Q
  • Common in sheep; susceptible in goats.
  • Dichelobacter nodosus and Fusobacterium necrophorum
A

Footrot

120
Q

occurs when moist conditions underfoot, or trauma from pastures or frost, produce maceration of the interdigital skin, allowing invasion by Fusobacterium necrophorum, a
ubiquitous organism in feces and soil.

A

Foot Scald

121
Q

Prolonged wet conditions allow colonization by F.necrophorum resulting in a local dermatitis called

A

“ovine interdigital dermatitis” or “foot scald.”

122
Q

an infection of one or more
joints that is usually due to
hematogenous transmission of
bacteria to the synovial
structures of young animals.

A

Joint-ill
(Septic Arthritis)

123
Q

occurs worldwide; however, the
incidence is lower than that in dairy cattle and horses. Predisposing causes include overeating or sudden access to concentrates, high-grain and low-roughage diets, or high-protein diets.

A

Laminitis (Founder)

124
Q

occurs in response to endotoxin
release during ruminal acidosis or toxic conditions.

A

Acute laminitis

125
Q

produced by overfeeding over a longer period

A

Subacute and subdinical laminitis

126
Q

develops where an acute or
subacute laminitis is not recognised or satisfactorily treated because horn formation is disturbed.

A

Chronic laminitis

127
Q
  • onset of a tender foot or feet
  • prolonged recumbency or walking on knees
  • shifting of weight distribution when standing
  • Teeth grinding
  • other signs: pain, pyrexia, and a fall in milk yield
  • coronet of the affected foot feels hot, but the toe cold.
A

Acute laminitis

128
Q
  • subacute laminitis minor gait abnormalities
  • subclinical condition no gait changes are present and the feet do not feel hot.
  • Haemorrhage of the wall, heel and particularly the sole is evident on routine foot trimming as a fine reddish discoloration which, unlike
    bruising, is generally not painful
A

Subacute and subclinical laminitis

129
Q

produces very hard feet with thick ‘platform soles’.

A

Chronic laminitis

130
Q

Types of Trauma

A
  • Fractures
  • Tendon Injuries
  • Injection-Related Injuries
  • Mastitis-Related Lameness
131
Q

It is caused by a deficiency of selenium and/or vitamin E; can lead to muscle degeneration, weakness, and even death.

A

White Muscle Disease

132
Q

describes the non-inflammatory degeneration of skeletal muscle that is characterized clinically by muscle weakness and pathologically by hyaline degeneration of the muscle fibers. The serum activities of some muscle enzymes are elevated, and ___________ is a common accompaniment.

A

myopathy; myoglobinuria

133
Q

Microscopically, ___________________ accumulate under the sarcolemma or centrally in the muscle fibers. The inheritance pattern of one affected and three normal offspring suggests that this condition may result from inheritance of a simple recessive gene.

A

brown lipofuscin pigment granules

134
Q

Accumulation of abnormal concentrations of glycogen in muscle, either within lysosomes or within myocytes.

A

Glycogen Storage Disease
(Glycogenosis)

135
Q

In dairy cattle with ____________, the skeletal muscles and myocardium are yellow-brown to bronze.

A

brown atrophy

136
Q

found in various breeds of horses and as a result of a mutation in the gene encoding the enzyme glycogen synthase

A

Polysaccharide storage myopathy (glycogen storage disease type
I)

137
Q

glycogen storage disease type II

A

Glucosidase Deficiency

138
Q

glycogen storage disease type V

A

Glycogen Phosphorylase Deficiency

139
Q

a condition characterized by prominent fatty replacement of skeletal muscles, has been known from a long time ago to mainly involve meat animals, such as pig, sheep, and cattle.

A

Muscular Steatosis

140
Q
A
141
Q

defined as a syndrome of persistent joint flexure or contracture present at birth and may involve one or multiple limbs (forelimbs and/or hindlimbs).

A

Congenital arthrogryposis (“crooked joint”)

142
Q

These terms have been introduced to describe cases in which the rigidity may be due to lack of extensibility of muscles, tendons, ligaments, or other tissues around the joint, or to deformity of articular surfaces, or to fusion between bones at the articular surface.

A

“arthrogryposis multiplex congenita” and
“congenital articular rigidity”

143
Q

• Affected calves are born alive, but are blind and unable to stand.
• Their limbs are mobile and their joints are normal.
• Degenerative changes are widespread in the skeletal musculature, including the external ocular muscles and tongue.
• Muscles are pale, soft, and sometimes spongy.
• Hypertrophy, hyaline degeneration, and atrophy of muscle fibers are the characteristic histologic changes

A

Myopathy Associated with Congenital Hydrocephalus

144
Q

Progressive myopathies that can be heritable and some resemble various types of muscular dystrophy in people.

• Affected muscles have a variety of degenerative and atrophic changes.

A

Dystrophy-like Myopathies

145
Q

Defined as a Se/vitamin E-responsive disease.
May be present at birth, but usually occurs in animals 2-8 while they are running with their dams on pasture.

A

Nutritional Myopathy of Calves

146
Q

Clinical form of nutritional myopathy of calves which results in death, often within a few
hours after onset, predominates in calves.

A

cardiac form

147
Q

Clinical form of nutritional myopathy of calves which develops more slowly, is more often seen in lambs.

A

skeletal muscle form

148
Q

a nutritional deficiency that causes muscle
weakness and stiffness in young lambs.

A

Stiff Lamb Disease (White Muscle Disease; Nutritional Muscular Dystrophy)

149
Q

Occurs in young, rapidly growing calves, lambs, goat kids, and foals born to dams in selenium-deficient areas with unsupplemented diets.

A

Enzootic Muscular Dystrophy

150
Q

Commonly added to ruminant feeds for growth promotion and coccidiostat properties.

A

Ionophore

151
Q

________________in cattle include:
sudden death, reduced feed intake or feed refusal (24 to 36 hours after consuming a high dose), recumbency, collapse, muscle tremors, muscle weakness, ataxia, respiratory distress (dyspnoea), diarrhoea, salivation, and abdominal pain.

A

Acute ionophore toxicity

152
Q

frequently gives rise to syndromes characterized by muscular spasm and weakness, incoordination of gait, and inability to stand.

A

Plant Intoxication

153
Q

A rare inflammatory condition in cattle and sheep that causes green lesions in the muscles of clinically healthy animals.

A

Eosinophilic Myositis in Cattle
and Sheep

154
Q

most implicated pathogen of Eosinophilic Myositis in Cattle and Sheep is _______________, a
protozoan parasite with a complex life cycle involving cattle as the intermediate host and dogs as the definitive host.

A

Sarcocystis cruzi

155
Q
  • Caused by an Orbivirus with 24 serotypes and is transmitted by biting midges of the genus Culicoides.

*Abortion, mummification, stillbirth, and the birth of live offspring with CNS malformations occurred in cattle and sheep.

  • Diagnosis: identification of precolostral antibodies and PCR
A

Bluetongue

156
Q
  • Most commonly diagnosed virus in bovine abortion cases
  • Infection before insemination or during the first 40 days of pregnancy results in infertility or embryonic death
  • Fetal infection during the period of organogenesis in 40 and 125 days of pregnancy
  • Diagnosis: Isolation, immunologic staining, PCR assay, or detection of precolostral antibodies
  • Prevention: Removal of persistently infected cattle and herd vaccination
A

BOVINE VIRAL DIARRHEA

157
Q

Causes abortions in the second half of gestation (usually ~7 months), and ~80% of unvaccinated cows in later gestation will abort if exposed to Brucella abortus.

Organisms enter via mucous membranes and invade the udder, lymph nodes, and uterus, causing a placentitis, which may be acute or chronic.

Abortion or stillbirth occurs 2 weeks to 5 months after initial infection.

A

Brucellosis

158
Q

causes venereal disease that usually results in infertility or early embryonic death but occasionally causes abortion between 4 and 8 months of gestation.

A

Campylobacter fetus venerealis

159
Q

Cause of enzootic abortion of ewes, causes sporadic abortion in cattle.
Most abortions occur near the end of the last trimester, but they can occur earlier

A

CHLAMYDIOSIS

160
Q

Major cause of viral abortion worldwide, with abortion rates of 5%–60% in nonvaccinated herds

A

INFECTIOUS BOVINE RHINOTRACHEITIS

161
Q

Leptospira serovars _________________ usually cause abortions in the last trimester, 2–6 weeks after maternal infection

A

Grippotyphosa, Pomona, Canicola, and Icterohaemorrhagiae

162
Q

Cause placentitis and fetal septicemia.

Abortions are usually sporadic but may affect 10%–20% of a herd and occurs at any stage of gestation.

Fetus is retained for 2–3 days after death.

A

LISTERIOSIS

163
Q

Fungal placentitis due to Aspergillus sp.

Abortions occur from 4 months to term and are most common in winter.

A

MYCOTIC ABORTION

164
Q

Most common cause of abortion in dairy and beef cattle.

Dogs and coyotes are definitive hosts.

Most infections result in an asymptomatic congenitally infected calf.

A

NEOSPORISIS

165
Q

Causes sporadic abortion at any stage of pregnancy.

Rarely, the incidence in a herd may reach epizootic levels.

Bronchopneumonia may be evident on histopathology.

Abortion is usually sporadic, and no effective bacterin is available.

A

TRUEPERELLA PYOGENES

166
Q

Cause of abortion, fetal mummification, stillbirth, and congenital brain malformation in lambs.

The clinical syndrome, serotypes involved, and diagnosis are the same as for cattle.

A

Bluetongue

167
Q

Occurs worldwide and is an important cause of embryonic and fetal deaths, weak lambs, and congenital abnormalities.

Caused by a pestivirus closely related to bovine viral diarrhea (BVD) virus and classical swine fever (hog cholera) virus.

Abortion can occur at any stage of gestation.

A

Border Disease

168
Q

Cause of contagious epididymitis in rams. On a flock basis, it results in infertility, but it also causes late-term abortions, stillbirths, and birth of weak lambs.

Brucella abortions occur late in gestation, resulting in placentitis.

A

BRUCELLOSIS

169
Q

A mosquito-transmitted cause of infertility, abortions,stillbirths, and multiple congenital abnormalities in
sheep.

Most noticeable effects are stillborn lambs and the birth of live lambs with congenital abnormalities
affecting the CNS and musculoskeletal system.

Infection between 32 and 37 days of pregnancy

A

CACHE VALLEY VIRUS

170
Q

characterized by late-term abortions, stillbirths, and weak lambs.

Abortions occur during the last 2–3 weeks of gestation.

A

ENZOONOTIC ABORTION IN EWES

171
Q

Abortion caused by Listeria monocytogenes in ewes usually occurs in late gestation.

Aborting ewes show variable clinical signs, including fever, depression, and anorexia, and some may
succumb to septicemia.

A

LISTERIOSIS

172
Q

Most ewes are sick and febrile before aborting.

There are no specific placental lesions, and the fetus is autolyzed.

A

SALMONELLOSIS

173
Q

A major cause of abortion in small ruminants throughout the world.

Ingestion of sporulated coccidian oocytes early in gestation results in resorption or mummification

A

TOXOPLASMOSIS

174
Q

Closely related to infectious bovine
rhinotracheitis virus of cattle and causes sporadic outbreaks of late-term abortions often unassociated with other clinical signs

A

CAPRINE HERPESVIRUS 1

175
Q

Most common cause of abortion in goats in the USA.

In naive herds, up to 60% of pregnant does can abort or give birth to stillborn or weak kids.

Reproductive failure is usually the only sign of C abortus infection.

Abortions can occur at any stage of pregnancy.

A

CHLAMYDIOSIS

176
Q

Increasingly recognized as an important cause of caprine abortion.

Occasional outbreaks also occur in sheep. Late-term abortions, stillbirths, and weak lambs are the
common presentations.

Up to 50% of the flock may be involved.

A

COXIELLA BURNETII INFECTION

177
Q

Common pathogen in goats and causes sporadic abortions.

There are no specific fetal lesions, and the fetus is often autolyzed.

Does usually show no signs before abortion but may develop severe metritis after abortion.

A

LISTERIOSIS

178
Q

Cause by Campylobacter fetus venerealis or C fetus fetus

A

BOVINE GENITAL CAMPYLOBACTERIOSIS

179
Q

Caused primarily by Mycoplasma agalactiae and affects sheep and goats.

The most common clinical signs are mastitis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis, although these are rarely observed in the same animal.

A

CONTAGIOUS AGALACTIA IN SMALL RUMINANTS

180
Q

commonly considered to be associated with negative energy balance and stress factors in high-milk-production dairy cows.

A

Cystic ovary disease or syndrome

181
Q

____________ incidence increases with parity. The incidence in first-lactation cows is 40-80% lower than in the general cow population.

A

CYSTIC OVARIAN DISEASE IN COW

182
Q

Increased sexual behavior occurs mainly in high-producing dairy cows that are 4–6 yr old and have had 1–3 calves.

These cows usually mount other cows excessively, act like bulls, and have a significant decrease in milk production.

Associated with follicular cysts, and treatment with luteinizing hormone or chorionic gonadotropin is useful

A

NYMPHOMANIA

183
Q

bacterial infection and refers to the inflammation of the uterus that may occur during or after birthing, coitus or while carrying out artificial insemination.

A

METRITIS

184
Q

refers to inflammation of the endometrium

A

ENDOMETRITIS

185
Q

Characterized by purulent or mucopurulent discharge detected more than three weeks postpartum, often without systemic illness.

A

Clinical Endometritis

186
Q

Lacks overt clinical signs but may still impact fertility

A

Subclinical Endometritis

187
Q

accumulation of large amounts of purulent or mucopurulent exudate in the uterus. It is generally a sequel to endometritis.

A

PYOMETRA

188
Q

generally exceeds normal gestation by between 3 weeks and 3 months.

A

PROLONGED GESTATION

189
Q

also known as retained foetal membrane or retained cleansing. It refers to the failure of the placenta to be expelled from the uterus within a normal timeframe after calving.

A

RETAINED PLACENTA

190
Q

a venereal disease that typically leads to subfertility. The diseases is caused by Tritrichomonas foetus.

A

TRICHOMONIASIS in cattle

191
Q

a viral disease seen on an irregular basis in dairy cows and buffaloes with a high incidence in temperate parts of the world characterized by the development of erosive, ulcerative, self-limiting lesions on the udder and teats.

A

BOVINE ULCERATIVE MAMMILLITIS

192
Q

defined as any teat that is in excess of the normal number of teats.

A

SUPERNUMERARY TEATS or extra teats

193
Q

refers to the failure or absence of milk production.

A

AGALACTIAE

194
Q

occurs when there is an inability to release milk from the udder despite adequate milk production

A

FAILURE OF MILK LETDOWN

195
Q

a severe skin condition characterized by tissue necrosis and ulceration.

A

NECROTIC DERMATITIS

196
Q

refers to swelling of the udder due to fluid accumulation

A

UDDER EDEMA

197
Q

involves tearing of the suspensory ligaments that support the udder, it occurs due to degeneration of the ligament.

A

RUPTURE OF SUSPENSORY LIGAMENTS

198
Q

refers to hives or raised welts on the skin of the udder due to allergic reactions or irritants.

A

URTICARIA

199
Q
  • an inherited autosomal recessive
    neurodegenerative disease.
  • Caused by a single base substitution (c.608G>A) in the KIF1C gene.
  • The mutation leads to abnormal or absent KIF1C protein.
  • Disrupts the development of the myelin sheath, which insulates axons in the brain and spinal
A

Progressive Ataxia of Charolais Cattle

200
Q

Onset: Typically 18 months, ranging from ______________________.

A

6 months to 3–5 years

201
Q
  • A genetic autosomal recessive disorder, suspected to involve a mutation in the PNPLA8 gene.
  • Often associated with vitamin E deficiency, which may exacerbate nerve damage
A

Progressive Degenerative
Myeloencephalopathy (PDME)

202
Q

Signs typically appear between
_________________________

A

5–8 months of age

203
Q

The condition worsens, leading to paraparesis (partial hindlimb paralysis), and the animal becomes unable to rise by __________________.

A

18–36 months

204
Q

To establish a clinical diagnosis, four basic criteria are required for Progressive Degenerative
Myeloencephalopathy (PDME)

A
  1. Onset of bilateral pelvic limb ataxia and dysmetria (uncoordinated movement) at 5-8
    months of age.
  2. Deficient proprioceptive responses and ataxia in all four limbs, progressing to paraparesis.
  3. Normal spinal reflexes and cranial nerve function with no significant muscle atrophy.
  4. A familial relationship, indicating a genetic link.
205
Q
  • Chronic mechanical stress on the spine, often
    linked to:
  • Heavy workloads (e.g., draft animals).
  • Prolonged periods of carrying heavy loads.
  • Age-related degeneration of intervertebral discs, leading to instability and osteophyte format
A

Spondylosis Deforman

206
Q

Primary Causes:
* Thiamine-associated deficiency or sulfur toxicosis

A

Polioencephalomalacia in Ruminants (Cerebrocortical Necrosis)

207
Q

a herpes virus infection principally of pigs, which can be transmitted to most other mammalian species including cattle.

A

Pseudorabies (Aujeszky’s disease)

208
Q

Caused by various tick species, leading to ascending flaccid paralysis.

A

Tick Paralysis

209
Q

Genetic or chromosomal abnormalities; often a result of chimerism or mosaicism. Abnormal differentiation of gonads during embryogenesis, resulting in the development of both ovarian and testicular tissue.

A

True Hermaphrodite

210
Q

Genetic mutations (e.g., SRY-negative in XY individuals or XX individuals); autosomal recessive inheritance in some breeds like Miniature Schnauzers. Inappropriate expression of male or female differentiation pathways, leading to gonads of one sex and external genitalia resembling the opposite sex

A

Pseudohermaphroditism (Sex Reversal Syndrome)

211
Q

Vascular anastomosis between twin fetuses, allowing anti-Müllerian hormone from the male to affect the female twin. Male hormone exposure during development suppresses female reproductive tract formation, leading to sterility and masculinization.

A

Freemartinism

212
Q

Linked to polled (hornless) genetics; XX SRY-negative goats are affected. Mutations associated with the polled trait disrupt normal sexual differentiation, resulting in intersex phenotypes.

A

Polled Intersex Syndrome (Goats)

213
Q

Genetic predisposition, environmental factors, or developmental anomalies affecting testicular descent. Failure of the testes to descend into the scrotum due to disrupted hormonal or anatomical factors.

A

Cryptorchidism

214
Q

Chromosomal abnormalities (e.g., XXY males) or familial predisposition in some species. Failure of normal testicular development, resulting in reduced or absent spermatogenesis.

A

Testicular Hypoplasia

215
Q

Weak or absent preputial retractor muscle, often linked to polled genetics or Brahman crosses. Prolonged or recurrent prolapse of the prepuce, leading to inflammation and secondary infections.

A

Preputial Prolapse

216
Q

Congenital failure of urethral groove closure; may be sporadic or familial. Urethral opening forms abnormally along the penis or perineum.

A

Hypospadias

217
Q

Congenital developmental failure of the paramesonephric duct. Incomplete development of ducts leads to malformation or obstruction in the uterus, cervix, or vagina. Fluid accumulation occurs due to obstruction.

A

Segmental Aplasia of the Paramesonephric Ducts

218
Q

Involves aplasia of one uterine horn; affected females may still
carry pregnancies to term.

A

Uterus Unicornis

219
Q

Commonly reported in white heifer disease; may cause fluid accumulation.

A

Persistence of the Hymen

220
Q

Rare; results in sterility or reduced fertility.

A

Cervical Aplasia

221
Q

Failure of the paramesonephric ducts to fuse during development. Formation of tissue bands or separate cervical canals (uterus
didelphys in severe cases).

A

Double External Os of the Cervix

222
Q

Developmental anomaly, often congenital. Narrowing of the vaginal canal or underdevelopment of
vestibulovaginal structures.

A

Vaginal Stricture or Vestibulovaginal Hypoplasia

223
Q

Persistence of embryonic structures in the vaginal floor. Development of cystic structures beneath the vaginal mucosa.

A

Gartner’s Duct Cysts

224
Q

Autosomal recessive genetic defect. Incomplete formation of vulvar structures, ranging from partial
hypoplasia to complete fusion.

A

Vulvar Atresia or Hypoplasia (Atresia Vulvi)

225
Q

Autosomal recessive connective tissue disorder. Stenosis of the anal or vestibulovaginal sphincter, often accompanied by milk vein stenosis.

A

Rectovaginal Constriction in Jersey Cattle

Flashcards (11 decks)

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