RPM and Masters Flashcards

1
Q

Why nurture? To ____, minimize lost leads, create and maintain prospect engagement, measure the readiness of your prospects, complete contact profile, and demonstrate thought leadership.

A

Increase leads

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2
Q

RPM is a strategy for managing a company’s _____ that enables predictable, rapid and profitable revenue growth.

A

interactions with buyers through the buying cycle

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3
Q

RPM is a strategy for managing a company’s interactions with with buyers through the buying cycle that….

A

enables predictable, rapid, and profitable revenue growth.

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4
Q

RPM Journey involves five steps: Sales Pipeline, Demand Generation, Lead Management, One View of the Truth, and….

A

Revenue Discovery

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5
Q

Effective Lead Nurturing falls between which two steps of the RPM Journey?

A

Demand Generation and Lead Management

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6
Q

RPM Journey involves five steps: _____, Demand Generation, Lead Management, One View of the Truth, and Revenue Discovery

A

Sales Pipeline

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7
Q

RPM Journey involves five steps: Sales Pipeline, _____, Lead Management, One View of the Truth, and Revenue Discovery

A

Demand Generation

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8
Q

RPM Journey involves five steps: Sales Pipeline, Demand Generation, _____, One View of the Truth, and Revenue Discovery

A

Lead Management

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9
Q

RPM Journey involves five steps: Sales Pipeline, Demand Generation, Lead Management, _____, and Revenue Discovery

A

One View of the Truth

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10
Q

The concept of effective nurturing falls mostly in the Demand Generation phase of the RPM journey and a little in:

A

Lead Management

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11
Q

Nurturing is taking action that helps to move a buyer from…

A

Point A to Point B in the buying cycle.

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12
Q

_____ is taking action that helps to move a buyer from Point A to Point B in the buying cycle.

A

Nurturing.

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13
Q

Nurturing is a _____ process.

A

Perpetual

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14
Q

The five phases in the buying cycle are Interest, Learn, Evaluate, Justify, and ___.

A

Purchase.

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15
Q

The five phases in the buying cycle are ____, Learn, Evaluate, Justify, and Purchase.

A

Interest

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16
Q

The five phases in the buying cycle are Interest, ____, Evaluate, Justify, and Purchase.

A

Learn

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17
Q

The five phases in the buying cycle are Interest, Learn, ____, Justify, and Purchase.

A

Evaluate

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18
Q

The five phases in the buying cycle are Interest, Learn, Evaluate, ____, and Purchase.

A

Justify

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19
Q

The five phases in the buying cycle are Interest, Learn, Evaluate, Justify, and ____.

A

Purchase

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20
Q

Nurturing looks different at different points in the ….

A

Buyer’s journey.

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21
Q

One of the keys to effective nurturing is to align campaigns to the….

A

Buyer’s journey.

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22
Q

Why nurture? To increase leads, ____, create and maintain prospect engagement, measure the readiness of your prospects, complete contact profile, and demonstrate thought leadership.

A

Minimize lost leads

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23
Q

Why nurture? To increase leads, minimize lost leads, ______, measure the readiness of your prospects, complete contact profile, and demonstrate thought leadership.

A

Create and maintain prospect engagement

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24
Q

Why nurture? To increase leads, minimize lost leads, create and maintain prospect engagement, _____, complete contact profile, and demonstrate thought leadership.

A

Measure the readiness of your prospects

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25
Q

Why nurture? To increase leads, minimize lost leads, create and maintain prospect engagement, measure the readiness of your prospects, _____, and demonstrate thought leadership.

A

Complete contact profile

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26
Q

Why nurture? To increase leads, minimize lost leads, create and maintain prospect engagement, measure the readiness of your prospects, complete contact profile, and ____.

A

Demonstrate thought leadership.

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27
Q

Nurturing increases leads sent to sales by transforming leads from having questions about your product to….

A

… Having specific questions about technical specifications and pricing.

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28
Q

In increasing leads sent to sales, nurturing turns your lead into a…

A

Sales-ready lead.

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29
Q

Leads can be lost for many reasons, such as disinterest, mismatch of messaging to their needs, and…

A

Budget.

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30
Q

Leads can be lost for many reasons, such as ____, mismatch of messaging to their needs, and budget

A

Disinterest

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31
Q

Leads can be lost for many reasons, such as disinterest, ____, and budget

A

Mismatch of messaging to their needs.

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32
Q

Effective nurturing can minimize lost leads through education and…

A

Increased awareness.

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33
Q

Prospect engagement is key in keeping prospects in the funnel and…

A

Keeping your brand top-of-mind

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34
Q

Prospect engagement is key in ______ and keeping your brand top-of-mind

A

Keeping prospects in the funnel

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35
Q

If you measure the readiness of your prospects, you can:

A

Speed up or slow down the sales cycle for prospects who are more or less ready to buy.

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36
Q

Why is nurturing an overused word?

A

Because it actually works.

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37
Q

Nurturing should continually complete contact profiles, because complete profiles allow for effective…

A

Segmentation and targeting.

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38
Q

Nurturing presents an opportunity to demonstrate credibility as an expert by….

A

Educating leads

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39
Q

To demonstrate thought leadership, educate leads about 3 things:

A

Who are you? What does your organization do? How does this benefit me?

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40
Q

Eloqua Benchmark Data from spring 2011 study shows what growth in inquiries when nurturing and when not nurturing?

A

6% growth in inquiries when not nurturing, 5% growth when nurturing

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41
Q

Eloqua Benchmark Data from spring 2011 study shows what growth in LEAD generation when nurturing and when not nurturing?

A

-17% growth in leads when not nurturing, 4% growth when nurturing.

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42
Q

When developing a lead nurturing program, you should always begin with…

A

Benchmarking and metrics.

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43
Q

RPM is a continuous process of action and…

A

Analysis.

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44
Q

RPM is a continuous process of ___ and analysis.

A

Action.

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45
Q

Before beginning a lead nurturing campaign, benchmark total activated campaigns and email frequency, number of individuals in each campaign, and ____

A

Campaign engagement.

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46
Q

Before beginning a lead nurturing campaign, benchmark _____ and ______, number of individuals in each campaign, and campaign engagement.

A

Total activated campaigns and email frequency

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47
Q

Before beginning a lead nurturing campaign, benchmark total activated campaigns and email frequency, _____, and campaign engagement.

A

Number of individuals in each campaign

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48
Q

When to check key lead nurturing metrics?

A

Start by checking monthly, and then go to quarterly.

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49
Q

Part of applying Revenue Performance Management is to implement analysis at….

A

every stage before and after you take action.

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50
Q

The best way to sell a success story is to….

A

Prove how far you have come.

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51
Q

Campaign volume is defined as the total campaigns executed and _____

A

communication frequency.

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52
Q

Campaign volume is defined as the ___________ and communication frequency.

A

Total campaigns executed

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53
Q

What is a bonus metric of campaign volume?

A

% of campaigns leveraging automation.

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54
Q

Campaign Reach is defined as the total and unique number of campaign members and the ______.

A

campaign members per campaign.

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55
Q

Campaign Reach is defined as the ____ and the campaign members per campaign.

A

total and unique number of campaign members

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56
Q

What direction should the total and unique number of campaign members be moving?

A

Up.

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57
Q

What direction should the campaign members per campaign be moving?

A

Down.

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58
Q

If you saw the total number of campaign members equal to 2000 and unique members equal 1000 this shows you that on average each of the individuals is….

A

In two campaigns.

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59
Q

It is better to have ____ and _____ than to just have a few large campaigns running with more general messaging.

A

multiple smaller campaigns running and providing relevant messaging

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60
Q

A campaign could have a large number of members and still provide a relevant, personalized experience by having dynamic content, checking shared filters to route individuals down the best communication path, and using _____.

A

activity based triggers.

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61
Q

A campaign could have a large number of members and still provide a relevant, personalized experience by having ____, checking shared filters to route individuals down the best communication path, and using activity based triggers.

A

dynamic content

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62
Q

A campaign could have a large number of members and still provide a relevant, personalized experience by having dynamic content, ____, and using activity based triggers.

A

checking shared filters to route individuals down the best communication path

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63
Q

Campaign engagement metrics include all campaign activity and ____

A

Total number of campaign responders.

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64
Q

Campaign engagement metrics include _____ and total number of campaign responders.

A

All campaign activity

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65
Q

Campaign activity is….

A

any inbound activity on a campaign.

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66
Q

Campaign response is a particular activity on a campaign that is designated as _______, for example, a _____

A

showing official interest in that campaign - for example, a form submit

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67
Q

A campaign “hand raise” is a combination of activities and/or responses across multiple campaigns that are particularly relevant to….

A

demand conversion.

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68
Q

A campaign “hand raise” is __________ that are particularly relevant to demand conversion.

A

a combination of activities and/or responses across multiple campaigns

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69
Q

Hand raises are particularly important when setting up….

A

Lead scoring criteria.

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70
Q

Hand raises represent…

A

Engagement that is worthy of a better lead score.

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71
Q

What is a pre-defined pattern / combination of activities and responses that your team agrees to define as relevant to demand conversion?

A

A hand raise.

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72
Q

Total number of campaign responses = number of new leads generated. True or false?

A

False.

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73
Q

Naming conventions organize assets for easy retrieval, simplify reporting, and _____.

A

document internal knowledge.

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74
Q

Naming conventions organize assets for easy retrieval, ________, and document internal knowledge.

A

simplify reporting

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75
Q

Naming conventions _____, simplify reporting, and document internal knowledge.

A

organize assets for easy retrieval

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76
Q

In reporting, can you filter based on naming conventions?

A

Yes.

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77
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: emails, email groups, lists, forms, programs, campaigns, and _____.

A

source codes.

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78
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: ____, email groups, lists, forms, programs, campaigns, and source codes.

A

emails

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79
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: emails, ______, lists, forms, programs, campaigns, and source codes.

A

email groups

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80
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: emails, email groups, ____, forms, programs, campaigns, and source codes.

A

lists

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81
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: emails, email groups, lists, _____, programs, campaigns, and source codes.

A

forms,

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82
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: emails, email groups, lists, forms, _____, campaigns, and source codes.

A

programs

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83
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: emails, email groups, lists, forms, programs, _____, and source codes.

A

campaigns

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84
Q

Naming structures should be developed for all your assets, including: emails, email groups, lists, forms, programs, campaigns, and _____.

A

source codes.

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85
Q

When developing a naming campaign, you should first develop a ___ for all your assets.

A

naming structure

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86
Q

In conjunction with your asset naming conventions, you should establish a _____ for each asset area.

A

folder structure

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87
Q

Naming convention components include _____, asset codes, offer code, country code, fiscal code, theme code, business unit, product code, and date.

A

campaign codes

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88
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, _____, offer code, country code, fiscal code, theme code, business unit, product code, and date.

A

asset codes

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89
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, asset codes, _____, country code, fiscal code, theme code, business unit, product code, and date.

A

offer code

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90
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, asset codes, offer code, _______, fiscal code, theme code, business unit, product code, and date.

A

country code

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91
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, asset codes, offer code, country code, ____, theme code, business unit, product code, and date.

A

fiscal code

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92
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, asset codes, offer code, country code, fiscal code, _____, business unit, product code, and date.

A

theme code

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93
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, asset codes, offer code, country code, fiscal code, theme code, ______, product code, and date.

A

business unit

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94
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, asset codes, offer code, country code, fiscal code, theme code, business unit, _____, and date.

A

product code

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95
Q

Naming convention components include campaign codes, asset codes, offer code, country code, fiscal code, theme code, business unit, product code, and ____.

A

date

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96
Q

Are meta tags a good addition to your naming convention, and why?

A

Yes, because it means greater alignment between your assets and your website organization.

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97
Q

In naming conventions what is a best practice for date?

A

To use a standard structure.

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98
Q

Naming conventions help to streamline adoption of _______ and organization of assets across sales and marketing systems.

A

corporate standards

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99
Q

Naming converntions help to streamline adoption of corporate standards and _________

A

organization of assets across sales and marketing systems.

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100
Q

Eloqua’s campaign naming convention includes Campaign Name, Campaign Objective, Campaign Type, Topic, Owner, and ___

A

YearMonth

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101
Q

Eloqua’s campaign naming convention includes _____, Campaign Objective, Campaign Type, Topic, Owner, and YearMonth

A

Campaign Name

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102
Q

Eloqua’s campaign naming convention includes Campaign Name, ____ ______, Campaign Type, Topic, Owner, and YearMonth

A

Campaign Objective

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103
Q

Eloqua’s campaign naming convention includes Campaign Name, Campaign Objective, ____, Topic, Owner, and YearMonth

A

Campaign Type

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104
Q

Eloqua’s campaign naming convention includes Campaign Name, Campaign Objective, Campaign Type, ____, Owner, and YearMonth

A

Topic

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105
Q

Eloqua’s campaign naming convention includes Campaign Name, Campaign Objective, Campaign Type, Topic, ___, and YearMonth

A

Owner

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106
Q

In Eloqua’s recent asset reorganization effort, what does the top level of foldering represent?

A

Core themes or major campaigns initiatives

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107
Q

In Eloqua’s recent asset reorganization what are 4 examples of campaign goals?

A

Acquisition, acceleration, awareness, upsell.

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108
Q

Two benefits of including campaign owner or campaign type in the naming convention are: Owners can find all their assets with an easy search, and ___

A

Reports can easily filter for specific campaign types or campaign owners.

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109
Q

Two benefits of including campaign owner or campaign type in the naming convention are: ____, and reports can easily filter for specific campaign types or campaign owners.

A

Owners can find all their assets with an easy search.

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110
Q

If you think about your _____ ahead of time, your naming convention will quickly become your best friend.

A

reporting needs.

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111
Q

The power of search and filter are at your fingertips if you consistently implement a ___ company wide.

A

naming convention

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112
Q

What tool helps generate consistent names for your assets?

A

A naming convention generator.

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113
Q

What type of document is a naming convention generator and where can you find it?

A

An Excel spreadsheet, and you can find it on Topliners.

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114
Q

Three keys to success for naming conventions are: 1. _____; 2. Build around YOUR business needs; 3. Include the most important pieces at the beginning.

A

Be consistent

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115
Q

Three keys to success for naming conventions are: 1. Be consistent; 2. ______; 3. Include the most important pieces at the beginning.

A

Build around YOUR business needs

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116
Q

Three keys to success for naming conventions are: 1. Be consistent; 2. Build around YOUR business needs; 3. ______

A

Include the most important pieces at the beginning.

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117
Q

Why is it important to include the most important pieces at the beginning in your naming convention?

A

Because the full name may not always be visible on reporting or list view screens.

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118
Q

There’s no right or wrong way when implementing naming conventions, you just have to be ____

A

consistent.

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119
Q

When setting up your naming convention: 1. ____

  1. Define codes or abbreviations
  2. Decide on the order of the codes
  3. Configure generator to fit your needs
  4. Communicate, communicate, communicate
A

Choose components for naming convention

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120
Q
  1. Choose components for naming convention
  2. ______
  3. Decide on the order of the codes
  4. Configure generator to fit your needs
  5. Communicate, communicate, communicate
A

Define codes or abbreviations

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121
Q
  1. Choose components for naming convention
  2. Define codes or abbreviations
  3. _____
  4. Configure generator to fit your needs
  5. Communicate, communicate, communicate
A

Decide on the order of the codes

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122
Q
  1. Choose components for naming convention
  2. Define codes or abbreviations
  3. Decide on the order of the codes
  4. ______
  5. Communicate, communicate, communicate
A

Configure generator to fit your needs

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123
Q
  1. Choose components for naming convention
  2. Define codes or abbreviations
  3. Decide on the order of the codes
  4. Configure generator to fit your needs
  5. ______
A

Communicate, communicate, communicate

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124
Q

Asset names cannot exceed

A

100 characters

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125
Q

In Eloqua 9, if you are working with wireframe templates or themes, asset names are limited dto

A

50 characters

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126
Q

4 steps to map a campaign strategy: ____, Content Audit, Channel Audit, Campaign Map

A

Persona Journey

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127
Q

4 steps to map a campaign strategy: Persona Journey, ______, Channel Audit, Campaign Map

A

Content Audit

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128
Q

4 steps to map a campaign strategy: Persona Journey, Content Audit, ______, Campaign Map

A

Channel Audit

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129
Q

4 steps to map a campaign strategy: Persona Journey, Content Audit, Channel Audit, _______

A

Campaign Map

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130
Q

What Eloqua University class covers Persona Journey?

A

RPM: Targeting and Segmentation

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131
Q

The persona journey informs how we audit our ______ and our _____

A

content and our channels.

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132
Q

Everything we do when it comes to campaigns needs to come back to the ______

A

Buyer’s Journey

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133
Q

The persona journey asks four questions at each stage of the Buyer’s Journey: 1. _______ 2. What questions is your persona asking? 3. Key Messages and Value Propositions 4. List offers the persona is most likely to respond to

A

What is your persona’s motivation?

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134
Q

The persona journey asks four questions at each stage of the Buyer’s Journey: 1. What is your persona’s motivation? 2. ______ 3. Key Messages and Value Propositions 4. List offers the persona is most likely to respond to

A

What questions is your persona asking?

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135
Q

The persona journey asks four questions at each stage of the Buyer’s Journey: 1. What is your persona’s motivation? 2. What questions is your persona asking? 3. 4. List offers the persona is most likely to respond to

A

Key Messages and Value Propositions

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136
Q

The persona journey asks four questions at each stage of the Buyer’s Journey: 1. What is your persona’s motivation? 2. What questions is your persona asking? 3. Key Messages and Value Propositions 4. _______

A

List offers the persona is most likely to respond to

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137
Q

We use the questions we asked during the Persona Journey to inform our ____

A

content audit.

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138
Q

How much time do B2B buyers spend each day consuming content?

A

61% of B2B buyers spend an hour or more each day consuming content, according to a recent ITSMA study.

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139
Q

3 questions asked during a content audit: What content do I have that is ready to use? What content can I re-purpose? _____.

A

What content is missing?

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140
Q

3 questions asked during a content audit: What content do I have that is ready to use? _______ What content is missing?

A

What content can I re-purpose?

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141
Q

3 questions asked during a content audit: ______ What content can I re-purpose? What content is missing?

A

What content do I have that is ready to use?

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142
Q

It is best practice to align your content audit to the _______.

A

buyer’s journey.

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143
Q

Discoveries you might make by completing a content audit: (1) Uneven distribution of content across the buyer’s journey; (2) More content than you thought; (3) Old content; (4) ______.

A

Too much or too little content about certain pain points.

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144
Q

Discoveries you might make by completing a content audit: (1) ____; (2) More content than you thought; (3) Old content; (4) Too much or too little content about certain pain points.

A

Uneven distribution of content across the buyer’s journey

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145
Q

Discoveries you might make by completing a content audit: (1) Uneven distribution of content across the buyer’s journey; (2) ______; (3) Old content; (4) Too much or too little content about certain pain points.

A

More content than you thought

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146
Q

Discoveries you might make by completing a content audit: (1) Uneven distribution of content across the buyer’s journey; (2) More content than you thought; (3) _____; (4) Too much or too little content about certain pain points.

A

Old content

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147
Q

Content Audit Steps: (1) _______; (2) Align content types to buyer’s journey; (3) Brainstorm content for each phase of the journey.

A

Brainstorm content types

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148
Q

Content Audit Steps: (1) Brainstorm content types; (2) ______; (3) Brainstorm content for each phase of the journey.

A

Align content types to buyer’s journey

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149
Q

Content Audit Steps: (1) Brainstorm content types; (2) Align content types to buyer’s journey; (3) ________.

A

Brainstorm content for each phase of the journey

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150
Q

Places you have content as a company, such as your corporate blog and white papers, are:

A

Content types.

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151
Q

Content types are….

A

Places you have content as a company, such as your corporate blog and white papers

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152
Q

Company website, toll free number, customer references, industry awards, features/benefits sheets are all examples of….

A

Content types.

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153
Q

Is third-party material an example of a content type that can be used in effective nurturing?

A

Yes.

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154
Q

Search begins at the ____ stage of the buying cycle.

A

Interest

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155
Q

Solutions are identified at the ____ stage of the buying cycle.

A

Learn

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156
Q

Solutions are evaluated against needs at the ____ stage of the buying cycle.

A

Evaluate

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157
Q

A short list is assembled at the _____ stage of the buying cycle.

A

Justify

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158
Q

A selection is made at the ____ stage of the buying cycle.

A

Purchase.

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159
Q

Will some content types be relevant at more than one stage in the buyer’s journey?

A

Yes.

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160
Q

In a content audit, if a content type is important at more than one stage of the funnel, what should you do?

A

List it more than once.

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161
Q

Tip: Start with a content audit based on the buying cycle. Later you can break it down with a content audit _____.

A

specific to a segment or persona.

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162
Q

Tip: Start with a content audit _______. Later you can break it down with a content audit specific to a segment or persona.

A

based on the buying cycle.

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163
Q

During a content audit, for each stage of the buying cycle you should brainstorm: (1) ____; (2) content types; (3) specific content.

A

questions

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164
Q

During a content audit, for each stage of the buying cycle you should brainstorm: (1) questions; (2) _____; (3) specific content.

A

content types

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165
Q

During a content audit, for each stage of the buying cycle you should brainstorm: (1) questions; (2) content types; (3) ______.

A

specific content

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166
Q

During a content audit, for each phase in the buyer’s journey you identify content that matches the ____ and the ____.

A

questions and the content types.

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167
Q

It is useful to classify your content in a Content Audit according to: (1) _____; (2) Buying stage; (3) Publication date; (4) Intended persona

A

Content format

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168
Q

It is useful to classify your content in a Content Audit according to: (1) Content format; (2) ______; (3) Publication date; (4) Intended persona

A

Buying stage

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169
Q

It is useful to classify your content in a Content Audit according to: (1) Content format; (2) Buying stage; (3) ______; (4) Intended persona

A

Publication date

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170
Q

It is useful to classify your content in a Content Audit according to: (1) Content format; (2) Buying stage; (3) Publication date; (4) _____

A

Intended persona

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171
Q

Where is there a template for a content audit / inventory?

A

In the Excel Campaign Tools document with the RPM Effective Lead Nurturing course.

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172
Q

Where can you find a visual look at content types aligned to the buyer’s journey?

A

Eloqua’s Content Grid v 2

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173
Q

In a channel audit, you determine _____.

A

how the content is delivered.

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174
Q

A __________ is used to determine how the content is delivered.

A

channel audit

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175
Q

In a channel audit, you consider: (1) ________; (2) are there other channels that might be a good investment? (3) how do the channels align to the buyer’s journey?

A

what channels you currently use

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176
Q

In a channel audit, you consider: (1) what channels you currently use; (2) _________ (3) how do the channels align to the buyer’s journey?

A

are there other channels that might be a good investment?

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177
Q

In a channel audit, you consider: (1) what channels you currently use; (2) are there other channels that might be a good investment? (3) _________

A

how do the channels align to the buyer’s journey?

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178
Q

Search, Newsletter, Email, Telemarketing are all examples of….

A

Channels

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179
Q

Website, Blog, Tradeshows, Speaker Engagements are all examples of….

A

Channels

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180
Q

Advertising, Social are examples of….

A

Channels

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181
Q

_____ can be a particularly important channel in the top of the buyer’s journey.

A

Search

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182
Q

At the ______ stage, the contact is not sure who you are and is not savvy about where to find information.

A

Search

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183
Q

You might say that Search and Justify go hand in hand because…

A

many people start searching for detailed comparisons and testimonials at the Justify page.

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184
Q

The key with Sales calls is…

A

to make sure they don’t come too early in the journey.

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185
Q

You want the Sales call to be seen as ______ and not as something to avoid.

A

“just in time.”

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186
Q

Email is a great channel at….

A

every phase of the buyer’s journey.

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187
Q

For every stage of the buying cycle, a “big picture” content audit includes (1)_____; (2) content types; (3) experience channels.

A

questions

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188
Q

For every stage of the buying cycle, a “big picture” content audit includes (1) questions; (2) ______; (3) experience channels.

A

content types

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189
Q

For every stage of the buying cycle, a “big picture” content audit includes (1) questions; (2) content types; (3) ______

A

experience channels.

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190
Q

Use your _____ to help you define and document which of your current content speaks to your prospects, leads, and customers based on where they are in their journey.

A

Personas

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191
Q

If you know the _____, the _____ and the _______ ahead of time, mapping out campaigns that make sense and does not overlap becomes a much easier task.

A

the persona, the content and the channel

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192
Q

A ______ can be used to consistently welcome new people into your database.

A

Welcome Campaign

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193
Q

A Welcome Campaign is used to….

A

consistently welcome new people into your database.

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194
Q

A _______ can be used to improve new customer satisfaction

A

New Customer Onboarding campaign

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195
Q

A New Customer Onboarding campaign is used to….

A

improve new customer satisfiaction.

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196
Q

A Campaign Map is used to….

A

Plan nurture campaigns according to the phase of the buyer’s journey.

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197
Q

A ________ is used to plan nurture campaigns according to the phase of the buyer’s journey.

A

campaign map

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198
Q

The three rows on a Campaign Map are:

A

Stage, Campaign, Goal.

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199
Q

There will be individuals who skip over campaigns because _________ or because they are fast tracked to sales.

A

they are not relevant

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200
Q

There will be individuals who skip over campaigns because they are not relevant or because _________

A

they are fast tracked to sales.

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201
Q

To make the Campaign Map grid even more robust, add a fourth row to include bullet points for…..

A

Campaign messaging.

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202
Q

To create a campaign map, you: (1) ________; (2) Align to buyer’s journey; (3) Fill in touches, duration and capture goal for each campaign; (4) Locate the highest priority gap(s) in your campaign map; (5) Set a quarterly goal for new campaign activations; (6) Outline this quarter’s campaigns.

A

List current, active campaigns

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203
Q

To create a campaign map, you: (1) List current, active campaigns; (2) ________; (3) Fill in touches, duration and capture goal for each campaign; (4) Locate the highest priority gap(s) in your campaign map; (5) Set a quarterly goal for new campaign activations; (6) Outline this quarter’s campaigns.

A

Align to buyer’s journey

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204
Q

To create a campaign map, you: (1) List current, active campaigns; (2) Align to buyer’s journey; (3) _________; (4) Locate the highest priority gap(s) in your campaign map; (5) Set a quarterly goal for new campaign activations; (6) Outline this quarter’s campaigns.

A

Fill in touches, duration and capture goal for each campaign

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205
Q

To create a campaign map, you: (1) List current, active campaigns; (2) Align to buyer’s journey; (3) Fill in touches, duration and capture goal for each campaign; (4) ________; (5) Set a quarterly goal for new campaign activations; (6) Outline this quarter’s campaigns.

A

Locate the highest priority gap(s) in your campaign map

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206
Q

To create a campaign map, you: (1) List current, active campaigns; (2) Align to buyer’s journey; (3) Fill in touches, duration and capture goal for each campaign; (4) Locate the highest priority gap(s) in your campaign map; (5) ________; (6) Outline this quarter’s campaigns.

A

Set a quarterly goal for new campaign activations

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207
Q

To create a campaign map, you: (1) List current, active campaigns; (2) Align to buyer’s journey; (3) Fill in touches, duration and capture goal for each campaign; (4) Locate the highest priority gap(s) in your campaign map; (5) Set a quarterly goal for new campaign activations; (6) ________.

A

Outline this quarter’s campaigns

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208
Q

Enterprise-size clients will end up having multiple campaign maps, usually by _____ or by ______.

A

by segment or by persona.

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209
Q

Is the buyer’s journey one-way?

A

No. Leads are rejected, or opportunities stall or become lost and need to come back to marketing for nurturing.

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210
Q

What are the two ways of recycling leads?

A

Active Recycle and Passive Recycle

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211
Q

A lead is actively recycled when….

A

A sales person actively rejects a lead.

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212
Q

A lead is passively recycled when….

A

The lead becomes inactive.

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213
Q

Does a campaign map need to have paths for both active and passive recycles?

A

Yes.

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214
Q

In recycling leads, what is it important to make sure of?

A

That the leads are not being pushed back into campaigns they have already been through.

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215
Q

For active recycles it is a best practice to require Sales to give you….

A

a reason or reason code for why they are rejecting the lead.

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216
Q

To help a rejected lead become sales ready again, you need to address ______

A

the concerns or obstacles that are currently slowing the lead down.

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217
Q

The recycle process involves 4 steps: (1) communicate with Sales; (2) ______; (3) based on reason codes, draw the paths for active and passive recycles; (4) regularly check the recycle campaigns for engagement level and lead score of the recycled leads.

A

establish a list of reason codes;

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218
Q

The recycle process involves 4 steps: (1) ______; (2) establish a list of reason codes; (3) based on reason codes, draw the paths for active and passive recycles; (4) regularly check the recycle campaigns for engagement level and lead score of the recycled leads.

A

communicate with Sales

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219
Q

The recycle process involves 4 steps: (1) communicate with Sales; (2) establish a list of reason codes; (3) ______; (4) regularly check the recycle campaigns for engagement level and lead score of the recycled leads.

A

based on reason codes, draw the paths for active and passive recycles

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220
Q

The recycle process involves 4 steps: (1) communicate with Sales; (2) establish a list of reason codes; (3) based on reason codes, draw the paths for active and passive recycles; (4) _______.

A

regularly check the recycle campaigns for engagement level and lead score of the recycled leads.

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221
Q

You should regularly check lead recycle campaigns for ______ and ______ of the recycled leads.

A

Engagement level and lead score.

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222
Q

Managing recycled leads is covered in the Eloqua University _____ class.

A

RPM: Lead Quality

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223
Q

If the number of active lead recycles suddenly goes up, 4 things you can do are: (1) _____; (2) See if you are passing too many leads; (3) See if the leads are not qualified; (4) Remove obstacles

A

Talk to Sales!

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224
Q

If the number of active lead recycles suddenly goes up, 4 things you can do are: (1) Talk to Sales!; (2) ______; (3) See if the leads are not qualified; (4) Remove obstacles

A

See if you are passing too many leads

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225
Q

If the number of active lead recycles suddenly goes up, 4 things you can do are: (1) Talk to Sales!; (2) See if you are passing too many leads; (3) ________; (4) Remove obstacles

A

See if the leads are not qualified

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226
Q

If the number of active lead recycles suddenly goes up, 4 things you can do are: (1) Talk to Sales!; (2) See if you are passing too many leads; (3) See if the leads are not qualified; (4) ________.

A

Remove obstacles

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227
Q

A consistent reason code used for active recycles may show you…

A

…An obstacle that needs to be addressed with an automated nurture program.

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228
Q

Two additions you can make to your Campaign Map based on Buying Cycle are: (1) ______; (2) Awareness Campaigns such as newsletters.

A

Campaigns and processes for recycled leads

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229
Q

Two additions you can make to your Campaign Map based on Buying Cycle are: (1) Campaigns and processes for recycled leads; (2) ________.

A

Awareness Campaigns such as newsletters.

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230
Q

When setting up campaigns and processes for recycled leads, it is important to remember that….

A

active and passive recycles are different and you will need different processes for each.

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231
Q

A monthly or quarterly newsletter may exist…

A

in parallel to your other nurture campaigns.

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232
Q

If there is any chance that your someone can be in both your nurture campaigns and a newsletter campaign….

A

then your newsletter campaign should have content that is different than your nurture campaigns.

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233
Q

The big picture campaign strategy includes (1) _____, (2) content audit, (3) channel audit, (4) campaign map.

A

persona journey

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234
Q

The big picture campaign strategy includes (1) persona journey, (2) _____, (3) channel audit, (4) campaign map.

A

content audit

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235
Q

The big picture campaign strategy includes (1) persona journey, (2) content audit, (3) ____, (4) campaign map.

A

channel audit

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236
Q

The big picture campaign strategy includes (1) persona journey, (2) content audit, (3) channel audit, (4) ______.

A

campaign map

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237
Q

A campaign tactical plan includes: (1) ______; (2) Execution Checklist; (3) Map Campaign Flow; (4) Automation Opportunities.

A

Campaign Planning Guide

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238
Q

A campaign tactical plan includes: (1) Campaign Planning Guide; (2) ______; (3) Map Campaign Flow; (4) Automation Opportunities.

A

Execution Checklist

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239
Q

A campaign tactical plan includes: (1) Campaign Planning Guide; (2) Execution Checklist; (3) _______; (4) Automation Opportunities.

A

Map Campaign Flow

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240
Q

A campaign tactical plan includes: (1) Campaign Planning Guide; (2) Execution Checklist; (3) Map Campaign Flow; (4) ______.

A

Automation Opportunities

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241
Q

The five elements of a tactical campaign plan are: (1) campaign goal; (2) target audience; (3) relevant message; (4) compelling offer; (5) _____.

A

integrated tactics.

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242
Q

The five elements of a tactical campaign plan are: (1) campaign goal; (2) target audience; (3) relevant message; (4) _______; (5) integrated tactics.

A

compelling offer

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243
Q

The five elements of a tactical campaign plan are: (1) campaign goal; (2) target audience; (3) ______; (4) compelling offer; (5) integrated tactics.

A

relevant message

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244
Q

The five elements of a tactical campaign plan are: (1) campaign goal; (2) ______; (3) relevant message; (4) compelling offer; (5) integrated tactics.

A

target audience

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245
Q

The five elements of a tactical campaign plan are: (1) _______; (2) target audience; (3) relevant message; (4) compelling offer; (5) integrated tactics.

A

campaign goal

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246
Q

Two questions to ask about integrated campaign tactics are: (1) ________?; (2) Have we matched the channel to the persona who aligns with your target audience?

A

What is the channel for our message and content?

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247
Q

Two questions to ask about integrated campaign tactics are: (1) What is the channel for our message and content? (2) ________?

A

Have we matched the channel to the persona who aligns with your target audience?

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248
Q

A Tactical Campaign Plan defines…

A

each integrated element of your campaign.

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249
Q

In creating a Tactical Campaign Plan, it’s important to define the goals, budget, risks, and ___ as early as possible in the planning process.

A

assumptions

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250
Q

In creating a Tactical Campaign Plan, it’s important to define the ___, budget, risks, and assumptions as early as possible in the planning process.

A

goals

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251
Q

In creating a Tactical Campaign Plan, it’s important to define the goals, ___, risks, and assumptions as early as possible in the planning process.

A

budget

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252
Q

In creating a Tactical Campaign Plan, it’s important to define the goals, budget, ___, and assumptions as early as possible in the planning process.

A

risks

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253
Q

In creating a Tactical Campaign Plan, when is it important to define the goals, budget, risks, and assumptions?

A

As early as possible in the planning process.

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254
Q

When does setting campaign goals happen?

A

When you are creating your campaign map.

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255
Q

What resource does Eloqua offer for tactical campaign planning?

A

A Campaign Planning Guide Template.

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256
Q

What are the 3 things in the first section of the Campaign Planning Guide Template?

A

The campaign description, campaign goals, and target tactical results.

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257
Q

What is a good goal for a welcome campaign?

A

Collect enough information so we can segment for future nurturing.

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258
Q

The communication effectiveness pyramid has four stages: (1) ______, (2) segment; (3) one to one; (4) right time right message.

A

batch and blast

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259
Q

The communication effectiveness pyramid has four stages: (1) batch and blast, (2)______; (3) one to one; (4) right time right message.

A

segment

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260
Q

The communication effectiveness pyramid has four stages: (1) batch and blast, (2) segment; (3) _______; (4) right time right message.

A

one to one

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261
Q

The communication effectiveness pyramid has four stages: (1) batch and blast, (2) segment; (3) one to one; (4) _______.

A

right time right message.

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262
Q

If you have built personas and are using segments, you fall into the ______ level of the communication effectiveness pyramid.

A

segment

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263
Q

Are there times when it is not appropriate to aim for right-time, right-message communication?

A

Yes. There are times when you need to broadcast out to a large group.

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264
Q

Is there a section for target audience in the Campaign Planning Guide?

A

Yes.

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265
Q

What is it a good idea to do in the Target Audience section of your Campaign Planning Guide?

A

Pre-fill with your most commonly used segments for ease of use.

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266
Q

What are three categories of segments?

A

Region, Industry, Persona

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267
Q

Three types of buyer persona are: ______, Influencer, Technical Buyer.

A

Executive Buyer

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268
Q

Three types of buyer persona are: Executive Buyer, _____, Technical Buyer.

A

Influencer

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269
Q

Three types of buyer persona are: Executive Buyer, Influencer, ______.

A

Technical Buyer

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270
Q

Five ways a message can be relevant are: (1) Interest; (2) Responsibilities; (3) Pain Points; (4) Vertical; (5) ________

A

Phase in Buyer’s Journey

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271
Q

Five ways a message can be relevant are: (1) _____; (2) Responsibilities; (3) Pain Points; (4) Vertical; (5) Phase in Buyer’s Journey

A

Interest

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272
Q

Five ways a message can be relevant are: (1) Interest; (2) _____; (3) Pain Points; (4) Vertical; (5) Phase in Buyer’s Journey

A

Responsibilities

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273
Q

Five ways a message can be relevant are: (1) Interest; (2) Responsibilities; (3) ______; (4) Vertical; (5) Phase in Buyer’s Journey

A

Pain Points

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274
Q

Five ways a message can be relevant are: (1) Interest; (2) Responsibilities; (3) Pain Points; (4) _____; (5) Phase in Buyer’s Journey

A

Vertical

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275
Q

Part of providing a relevant campaign message is spreading the message out over the _________ with the right _____

A

the right number of touches with the right timing between.

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276
Q

The Eloqua Benchmark study found that the most effective campaigns have an average of ….

A

4 touches.

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277
Q

Eloqua found that what percentage of companies checked for frequency before sending emails?

A

Fewer than 15%.

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278
Q

Eloqua found that fewer than 15 percent of companies checked for frequency before….

A

Sending emails.

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279
Q

The most effective B2B campaigns had ____ days between touches and averaged ___ days in length.

A

10 days between touches, averaging 40 days in length.

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280
Q

The most effective B2C campaigns had ____ days between touches, more frequent in _____ half of the campaign.

A

3-8 days between touches, more frequent in front half of the campaign.

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281
Q

Five offer goals are: (1) ______; (2) have a good perceived value; (3) be practical; (4) be appropriately aligned to the customer; (5) have a clear connection to the brand.

A

fulfill a perceived need

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282
Q

Five offer goals are: (1) fulfill a perceived need; (2) ______ (3) be practical; (4) be appropriately aligned to the customer; (5) have a clear connection to the brand.

A

have a good perceived value;

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283
Q

Five offer goals are: (1) fulfill a perceived need; (2) have a good perceived value; (3) _____; (4) be appropriately aligned to the customer; (5) have a clear connection to the brand.

A

be practical

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284
Q

Five offer goals are: (1) fulfill a perceived need; (2) have a good perceived value; (3) be practical; (4) ______; (5) have a clear connection to the brand.

A

be appropriately aligned to the customer

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285
Q

Five offer goals are: (1) fulfill a perceived need; (2) have a good perceived value; (3) be practical; (4) be appropriately aligned to the customer; (5) _____

A

have a clear connection to the brand.

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286
Q

In almost every campaign you want the lead to….

A

do something.

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287
Q

The subtext of a campaign action is: Give us ______ so we can sell more effectively!

A

more information about you

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288
Q

The subtext of a campaign action is: Give us more information about you so we can ______!

A

sell more effectively

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289
Q

The Content Assets section of your campaign plan focuses on the ____ and ___.

A

message and content.

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290
Q

At the Tactical Campaign Plan stage, if you are not sure what content to use, look back to your ______

A

Content Audit.

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291
Q

The four columns under Content Assets in your Tactical Campaign Plan are _____, Asset Type, New or Existing, and Location.

A

Asset Name

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292
Q

The four columns under Content Assets in your Tactical Campaign Plan are Asset Name, _____, New or Existing, and Location.

A

Asset Type

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293
Q

The four columns under Content Assets in your Tactical Campaign Plan are Asset Name, Asset Type, _____, and Location.

A

New or Existing

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294
Q

The four columns under Content Assets in your Tactical Campaign Plan are Asset Name, Asset Type, New or Existing, and ____.

A

Location.

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295
Q

Another way to describe integrated tactics is….

A

Channel variety.

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296
Q

You can increase the effectiveness of your campaign by using channels that are appropriate for the _____ AND for the message AND for the target audience.

A

stage in the buyer’s journey

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297
Q

You can increase the effectiveness of your campaign by using channels that are appropriate for the stage in the buyer’s journey AND for the ____ AND for the target audience.

A

message

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298
Q

You can increase the effectiveness of your campaign by using channels that are appropriate for the stage in the buyer’s journey AND for the message AND for the _____.

A

target audience.

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299
Q

If I am at the tradeshow and trying to find the session I signed up for, a _____ is helpful.

A

text with the room and floor

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300
Q

Adding voicemail and email from a teleprospecting rep did what to response rates to marketing emails?

A

Improved them by 17%.

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301
Q

Do teleprospecting reps make cold calls or follow up scored leads?

A

Follow up on scored leads.

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302
Q

Define outbound communications.

A

Marketing reaching out to communicate with a contact.

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303
Q

Define inbound communication.

A

Potential buyers finding you on their own.

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304
Q

What was one of the most effective channels to communicate with executives about upcoming trade shows?

A

Direct mail.

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305
Q

Many companies are taking a wait-and-see attitude about which new social player?

A

Pinterest.

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306
Q

______ are what rule Pinterest.

A

Visuals.

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307
Q

For B2B brands, _____ represent the kind of high-profile visual content that rules on Pinterest.

A

Infographics.

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308
Q

Do infographics on Pinterest have to be your own?

A

No.

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309
Q

____ are a highly effective way of communicating data in a clear and concise manner.

A

Charts.

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310
Q

Six steps in identifying your campaign tactics in the campaign planning guide: (1) Identify Inbound campaign channels; (2) ______; (3) Determine the right mix; (4) Determine the message for each channel; (5) Measure effectiveness of each channel; (6) Optimize based on metrics

A

Identify Outbound campaign channels

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311
Q

Six steps in identifying your campaign tactics in the campaign planning guide: (1) _____; (2) Identify Outbound campaign channels; (3) Determine the right mix; (4) Determine the message for each channel; (5) Measure effectiveness of each channel; (6) Optimize based on metrics

A

Identify Inbound campaign channels

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312
Q

Six steps in identifying your campaign tactics in the campaign planning guide: (1) Identify Inbound campaign channels; (2) Identify Outbound campaign channels; (3) ______; (4) Determine the message for each channel; (5) Measure effectiveness of each channel; (6) Optimize based on metrics

A

Determine the right mix

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313
Q

Six steps in identifying your campaign tactics in the campaign planning guide: (1) Identify Inbound campaign channels; (2) Identify Outbound campaign channels; (3) Determine the right mix; (4) ______; (5) Measure effectiveness of each channel; (6) Optimize based on metrics

A

Determine the message for each channel

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314
Q

Six steps in identifying your campaign tactics in the campaign planning guide: (1) Identify Inbound campaign channels; (2) Identify Outbound campaign channels; (3) Determine the right mix; (4) Determine the message for each channel; (5) ; (6) Optimize based on metrics

A

Measure effectiveness of each channel

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315
Q

Six steps in identifying your campaign tactics in the campaign planning guide: (1) Identify Inbound campaign channels; (2) Identify Outbound campaign channels; (3) Determine the right mix; (4) Determine the message for each channel; (5) Measure effectiveness of each channel; (6) _____.

A

Optimize based on metrics.

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316
Q

Three goals of using a variety of channels in your campaign are: (1) matching channel to buyer’s journey (2) matching content to _____ (3) matching channel to target audience

A

appropriate channel

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317
Q

Three goals of using a variety of channels in your campaign are: (1) matching channel to _____ (2) matching content to appropriate channel (3) matching channel to target audience

A

buyer’s journey

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318
Q

Three goals of using a variety of channels in your campaign are: (1) matching channel to buyer’s journey (2) matching content to appropriate channel (3) matching channel to ______.

A

target audience.

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319
Q

Four steps to assess one of your existing campaigns are: (1) ______ (2) rate each of the five areas; (3) choose one area for improvement; (4) benchmark before and after.

A

choose a campaign to assess;

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320
Q

Four steps to assess one of your existing campaigns are: (1) choose a campaign to assess; (2) _______ (3) choose one area for improvement; (4) benchmark before and after.

A

rate each of the five areas;

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321
Q

Four steps to assess one of your existing campaigns are: (1) choose a campaign to assess; (2) rate each of the five areas; (3) _____; (4) benchmark before and after.

A

choose one area for improvement

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322
Q

Four steps to assess one of your existing campaigns are: (1) choose a campaign to assess; (2) rate each of the five areas; (3) choose one area for improvement; (4) ____

A

benchmark before and after.

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323
Q

The five areas of a successful campaign are:

A

Goal, Audience, Message, Offer, Tactics.

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324
Q

The resources to assess in your reality check are: (1) ____, (2) process, (3) technology, (4) content, (5) offers, (6) communication channels.

A

people

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325
Q

The resources to assess in your reality check are: (1) people, (2) ____, (3) technology, (4) content, (5) offers, (6) communication channels.

A

process

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326
Q

The resources to assess in your reality check are: (1) people, (2) process, (3) _____, (4) content, (5) offers, (6) communication channels.

A

technology

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327
Q

The resources to assess in your reality check are: (1) people, (2) process, (3) technology, (4) ____, (5) offers, (6) communication channels.

A

content

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328
Q

The resources to assess in your reality check are: (1) people, (2) process, (3) technology, (4) content, (5) ____, (6) communication channels.

A

offers

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329
Q

The resources to assess in your reality check are: (1) people, (2) process, (3) technology, (4) content, (5) offers, (6) ______.

A

communication channels

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330
Q

The first step in successful campaign execution is governance and internal standards, such as getting _____ and _____ for campaigns.

A

Approval and signoff for campaigns.

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331
Q

The second step in successful campaign execution is to identify _____ involved.

A

Stakeholders and key people, including partners.

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332
Q

The third step in campaign execution is to gain ______

A

approvals.

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333
Q

How do you request approval or submit feedback if a campaign is not working?

A

Through a communication plan.

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334
Q

A training plan can cover things like….

A

How you use the naming convention and how you use the naming generator.

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335
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) ____; (2) stakeholders; (3) approvals; (4) communication plan; (5) training plan; (6) checklists; (7) process to execute; (8) testing; (9) launch

A

governance

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336
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2)____; (3) approvals; (4) communication plan; (5) training plan; (6) checklists; (7) process to execute; (8) testing; (9) launch

A

stakeholders

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337
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2) stakeholders; (3) ____; (4) communication plan; (5) training plan; (6) checklists; (7) process to execute; (8) testing; (9) launch

A

approvals

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338
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2) stakeholders; (3) approvals; (4) _____; (5) training plan; (6) checklists; (7) process to execute; (8) testing; (9) launch

A

communication plan

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339
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2) stakeholders; (3) approvals; (4) communication plan; (5) ____; (6) checklists; (7) process to execute; (8) testing; (9) launch

A

training plan

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340
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2) stakeholders; (3) approvals; (4) communication plan; (5) training plan; (6) _____; (7) process to execute; (8) testing; (9) launch

A

checklists

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341
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2) stakeholders; (3) approvals; (4) communication plan; (5) training plan; (6) checklists; (7) _____; (8) testing; (9) launch

A

process to execute

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342
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2) stakeholders; (3) approvals; (4) communication plan; (5) training plan; (6) checklists; (7) process to execute; (8) ____; (9) launch

A

testing

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343
Q

Nine steps for successful campaign execution are: (1) governance; (2) stakeholders; (3) approvals; (4) communication plan; (5) training plan; (6) checklists; (7) process to execute; (8) testing; (9) ____

A

launch

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344
Q

To ensure your campaign is executed flawlessly every time, use a _____

A

checklist.

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345
Q

A checklist documents critical items that must be…

A

checked EVERY TIME prior to a campaign launch.

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346
Q

If you work for a large enterprise organization you might need to have ____ and ____ sign off before you launch a campaign.

A

branding and legal

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347
Q

A campaign checklist is VERY _____

A

tactical.

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348
Q

As you brainstorm for your checklist, think about: (1) _____; (2) check for relevance; (3) confirm timing; (4) comply with governance; (5) align with internal standards; (6) gain necessary approvals; (7) test

A

match content and strategy to audience

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349
Q

As you brainstorm for your checklist, think about: (1) match content and strategy to audience; (2) _____; (3) confirm timing; (4) comply with governance; (5) align with internal standards; (6) gain necessary approvals; (7) test

A

check for relevance

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350
Q

As you brainstorm for your checklist, think about: (1) match content and strategy to audience; (2) check for relevance; (3) _____; (4) comply with governance; (5) align with internal standards; (6) gain necessary approvals; (7) test

A

confirm timing

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351
Q

As you brainstorm for your checklist, think about: (1) match content and strategy to audience; (2) check for relevance; (3) confirm timing; (4) ______; (5) align with internal standards; (6) gain necessary approvals; (7) test

A

comply with governance

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352
Q

As you brainstorm for your checklist, think about: (1) match content and strategy to audience; (2) check for relevance; (3) confirm timing; (4) comply with governance; (5) _____; (6) gain necessary approvals; (7) test

A

align with internal standards

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353
Q

As you brainstorm for your checklist, think about: (1) match content and strategy to audience; (2) check for relevance; (3) confirm timing; (4) comply with governance; (5) align with internal standards; (6) ____; (7) test

A

gain necessary approvals

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354
Q

As you brainstorm for your checklist, think about: (1) match content and strategy to audience; (2) check for relevance; (3) confirm timing; (4) comply with governance; (5) align with internal standards; (6) gain necessary approvals; (7) ____

A

test.

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355
Q

5 welcome campaign tips: (1) _____; (2) restate value proposition; (3) set yourself up for future communication; (4) include calls to action / special offers; (5) automate

A

send within 24 hours of introduction;

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356
Q

5 welcome campaign tips: (1) send within 24 hours of introduction; (2) _____; (3) set yourself up for future communication; (4) include calls to action / special offers; (5) automate

A

restate value proposition

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357
Q

5 welcome campaign tips: (1) send within 24 hours of introduction; (2) restate value proposition; (3) ______; (4) include calls to action / special offers; (5) automate

A

set yourself up for future communication

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358
Q

5 welcome campaign tips: (1) send within 24 hours of introduction; (2) restate value proposition; (3) set yourself up for future communication; (4) ______; (5) automate

A

include calls to action / special offers

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359
Q

5 welcome campaign tips: (1) send within 24 hours of introduction; (2) restate value proposition; (3) set yourself up for future communication; (4) include calls to action / special offers; (5) ____

A

automate

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360
Q

When should a welcome campaign begin?

A

Within 24 hours of introduction.

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361
Q

To build a best in class Welcome Campaign, take the E10 class called….

A

Targeted Email Communications.

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362
Q

One of the best places to start your nurturing efforts is a ….

A

Welcome campaign.

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363
Q

Steps in automating: (1) _____; (2) determine if automation will improve; (3) prioritize; (4) automate; (5) benchmark before and after

A

locate tasks that are currently manual

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364
Q

Steps in automating: (1) locate tasks that are currently manual; (2) _____; (3) prioritize; (4) automate; (5) benchmark before and after

A

determine if automation will improve efficiency and efficacy

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365
Q

Steps in automating: (1) locate tasks that are currently manual; (2) determine if automation will improve; (3) ____; (4) automate; (5) benchmark before and after

A

prioritize

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366
Q

Steps in automating: (1) locate tasks that are currently manual; (2) determine if automation will improve; (3) prioritize; (4) ____; (5) benchmark before and after

A

automate

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367
Q

Steps in automating: (1) locate tasks that are currently manual; (2) determine if automation will improve; (3) prioritize; (4) automate; (5) ____

A

benchmark before and after

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368
Q

Does every manual task need to be automated?

A

No.

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369
Q

4 reasons to automate nurture campaigns: (1) _____; (2) efficiency; (3) behavior-based nurturing; (4) increase effectiveness

A

Consistent timing

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370
Q

4 reasons to automate nurture campaigns: (1) Consistent timing; (2) _____; (3) behavior-based nurturing; (4) increase effectiveness

A

efficiency

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371
Q

4 reasons to automate nurture campaigns: (1) Consistent timing; (2) efficiency; (3) ______; (4) increase effectiveness

A

behavior-based nurturing;

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372
Q

4 reasons to automate nurture campaigns: (1) Consistent timing; (2) efficiency; (3) behavior-based nurturing; (4) _____

A

increase effectiveness

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373
Q

If your goal is to communicate within 24 hours of a person being added to the database, then ….

A

you can never go on vacation unless you use automation

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374
Q

In an Allstate case study, open rate for triggered emails was ____ than batch and blast emails.

A

84% greater.

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375
Q

In an Allstate case study, click-through rate for triggered emails…..

A

outperformed batch email by 32%

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376
Q

Some possible triggers for nurturing: (1) _____; (2) visit to website; (3) white paper download; (4) product trial download; (5) abandoned shopping cart; (6) event attendance

A

purchase

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377
Q

Some possible triggers for nurturing: (1) purchase; (2) ______; (3) white paper download; (4) product trial download; (5) abandoned shopping cart; (6) event attendance

A

visit to website

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378
Q

Some possible triggers for nurturing: (1) purchase; (2) visit to website; (3) _______; (4) product trial download; (5) abandoned shopping cart; (6) event attendance

A

white paper download

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379
Q

Some possible triggers for nurturing: (1) purchase; (2) visit to website; (3) white paper download; (4) ______; (5) abandoned shopping cart; (6) event attendance

A

product trial download;

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380
Q

Some possible triggers for nurturing: (1) purchase; (2) visit to website; (3) white paper download; (4) product trial download; (5) _______; (6) event attendance

A

abandoned shopping cart

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381
Q

Some possible triggers for nurturing: (1) purchase; (2) visit to website; (3) white paper download; (4) product trial download; (5) abandoned shopping cart; (6) _______

A

event attendance

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382
Q

What will help you decide where to route individuals so that they have a coherent, relevant experience?

A

Automation.

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383
Q

If someone at the Prospect stage raises their hand and is interested, we need to determine if….

A

….they are qualified or not.

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384
Q

In nurturing to determine SAL vs. SQO, if prospect did not convert in anticipated timeframe you would want to….

A

Trigger a “Why Now” nurture campaign.

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385
Q

Automatic feeds for a campaign can come from 2 sources….

A

filters for activity or automatic feeds from a different campaign

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386
Q

When you are looking at automating campaign flow, make sure that there are not any leads left behind AND ….

A

that there are not any leads who are being bombarded by way too many communication

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387
Q

In a Metagenics case, how did they solve the hold-up of people not submitting forms with eSignatures?

A

Sent reminders to those who had not completed the form.

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388
Q

With the use of automation, triggers, and reminders, what did Metagenics see happen to their eSignature form completion rate?

A

Rose from 24% to 59%.

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389
Q

What did Metagenics do well? ____, made revisions in phases, analyzed results at each stage of revisions, set up crossroads to react to trigger actions.

A

Documented baseline

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390
Q

What did Metagenics do well? Documented baseline, _____, analyzed results at each stage of revisions, set up crossroads to react to trigger actions.

A

made revisions in phases

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391
Q

What did Metagenics do well? Documented baseline, made revisions in phases, _____, set up crossroads to react to trigger actions.

A

analyzed results at each stage of revisions

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392
Q

What did Metagenics do well? Documented baseline, made revisions in phases, analyzed results at each stage of revisions, _____.

A

set up crossroads to react to trigger actions

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393
Q

When should you analyze your automation efforts?

A

After each revision.

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394
Q

What does RPI stand for?

A

Revenue Performance Indicator

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395
Q

The RPI that shows the percentage of leads who will eventually purchase is….

A

Conversion

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396
Q

Conversion can be broken down by (1) Lead Stage, (2) Segment and/or Audience; (3) Referral Source; (4) Channel; (5) Content and Messaging; (6) Type of Offer

A

Lead stage

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397
Q

Conversion can be broken down by (1) Lead Stage, (2) _____; (3) Referral Source; (4) Channel; (5) Content and Messaging; (6) Type of Offer

A

Segment and/or Audience

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398
Q

Conversion can be broken down by (1) Lead Stage, (2) Segment and/or Audience; (3) Referral Source; (4) _____; (5) Content and Messaging; (6) Type of Offer

A

Channel

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399
Q

Conversion can be broken down by (1) Lead Stage, (2) Segment and/or Audience; (3) Referral Source; (4) Channel; (5) ______; (6) Type of Offer

A

Content and Messaging

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400
Q

Conversion can be broken down by (1) Lead Stage, (2) Segment and/or Audience; (3) Referral Source; (4) Channel; (5) Content and Messaging; (6) ______

A

Type of Offer

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401
Q

Conversion can be broken down by (1) Lead Stage, (2) Segment and/or Audience; (3) _____; (4) Channel; (5) Content and Messaging; (6) Type of offer

A

Referral Source

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402
Q

Conversion by _____ is important for determining where to invest and focus your spend and your energy

A

Referral Source

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403
Q

Conversion by _____ shows you if you have the tone, content and wording that is most effective or if there is room for improvement.

A

content and messaging

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404
Q

Conversion by _____ is critical for deciding which types of events/assets are the most productive for your team.

A

type of offer

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405
Q

The RPI that measures the length of time it will take to realize revenue from a prospect is….

A

Velocity

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406
Q

To optimize lead flow through your funnel, start with measuring conversion and then move to _____

A

velocity.

407
Q

It is impossible to determine Return on a campaign unless every campaign has what attributed to it?

A

Investment (and revenue)

408
Q

No return can be calculated without a consistent way for ___ to be associated with every single campaign

A

cost

409
Q

______ gives you visibility into what revenue is attributed back to your campaigns

A

Closed-Loop Reporting

410
Q

What are two types of ROI that businesses measure?

A

Sourced ROI and Influenced ROI.

411
Q

Sourced ROI measures which campaigns….

A

“caused” revenue generation.

412
Q

Influenced ROI is ___-term ROI

A

long-term ROI

413
Q

Influenced ROI or long-term ROI is often criticized as a….

A

silo-in-the-making

414
Q

Closed-Loop Reporting Metrics include: (1) _____; (2) revenue attributed; (3) revenue influenced

A

opportunities attributed

415
Q

Closed-Loop Reporting Metrics include: (1) # opportunities attributed; (2) ______; (3) revenue influenced

A

revenue attributed

416
Q

Closed-Loop Reporting Metrics include: (1) # opportunities attributed; (2) revenue attributed; (3) ________

A

revenue influenced

417
Q

Cost metrics measure cost per: (1) name; (2) qualified lead; (3) opportunity; (4) win; (5) ____

A

closed $

418
Q

Cost metrics measure cost per: (1) ____; (2) qualified lead; (3) opportunity; (4) win; (5) closed $

A

name

419
Q

Cost metrics measure cost per: (1) name; (2) _____; (3) opportunity; (4) win; (5) closed $

A

qualified lead

420
Q

Cost metrics measure cost per: (1) name; (2) qualified lead; (3) _____; (4) win; (5) closed $

A

opportunity

421
Q

Cost metrics measure cost per: (1) name; (2) qualified lead; (3) opportunity; (4) ___; (5) closed $

A

win

422
Q

You can get to traditional ROI/cost metrics only after you…

A

…determine your revenue attribution.

423
Q

If an Opportunity is created at the Account level….

A

…it cannot be attributed back to the individual marketing efforts.

424
Q

To force Sales users to create Opportunities at the Contact level, some companies…

A

…choose to hide the Account tab.

425
Q

The Return RPI = the total revenue attributed, divided by….

A

…the total campaign cost.

426
Q

The Return RPI can be calculated both for…

A

all Campaigns and each Campaign.

427
Q

The Return RPI shows the cost to bring in the next…

A

dollar of revenue.

428
Q

Engagement metrics measure how ____ your marketing efforts are.

A

Sticky

429
Q

As you benchmark and look for trends, it can be helpful to compare ____ or _____.

A

segments or regions.

430
Q

To break down Metrics, (1) _______; (2) identify relevant metrics to help complete the story; (3) propose a possible explanation; (4) document how to prove or disprove.

A

phrase the problem in the form of a question

431
Q

To break down Metrics, (1) phrase the problem in the form of a question; (2) _______; (3) propose a possible explanation; (4) document how to prove or disprove.

A

identify relevant metrics to help complete the story

432
Q

To break down Metrics, (1) phrase the problem in the form of a question; (2) identify relevant metrics to help complete the story; (3) _______; (4) document how to prove or disprove.

A

propose a possible explanation

433
Q

To break down Metrics, (1) phrase the problem in the form of a question; (2) identify relevant metrics to help complete the story; (3) propose a possible explanation; (4) ______.

A

document how to prove or disprove.

434
Q

In the Acme Marketing case, the solution was proposed to cut all Events because Events as a category had a high cost per win. What happened?

A

The marketing manager looked into the metrics for individual Events and only cut the ones that were not performing well.

435
Q

Some possible explanations for a high bounceback rate in a certain segment could be ____, low data quality procedures, form or tradeshow data with bad email addresses.

A

purchased lists

436
Q

Some possible explanations for a high bounceback rate in a certain segment could be purchased lists, ________, form or tradeshow data with bad email addresses.

A

low data quality procedures

437
Q

Some possible explanations for a high bounceback rate in a certain segment could be purchased lists, low data quality procedures, _______

A

form or tradeshow data with bad email addresses.

438
Q

If your cost per opportunity for a campaign was running higher than your average, what would be the best next step?

A

Develop a hypothesis, test, and optimize.

439
Q

The concept of Targeting and Segmentation falls in the ______ phase of the RPM journey.

A

Demand Generation.

440
Q

What is a simple definition of Targeting?

A

Finding your key audience.

441
Q

In Targeting and Segmentation, you should benchmark the following things now: ________, Campaign Engagement, and Deliverability Rates.

A

Contact Field Completeness

442
Q

In Targeting and Segmentation, you should benchmark the following things now: Contact Field Completeness, ________, and Deliverability Rates.

A

Campaign Engagement

443
Q

In Targeting and Segmentation, you should benchmark the following things now: Contact Field Completeness, Campaign Engagement, and ________.

A

Deliverability Rates.

444
Q

How often should you check benchmarked data for RPM Targeting and Segmentation?

A

Monthly at first, and then reduce the frequency to quarterly.

445
Q

To benchmark Contact Field Completeness, select…

A

the 5 to 10 fields that are most important to your business and your ability to target.

446
Q

Campaign Engagement metrics include ________, Click-to-Open rates, and Click Through rates.

A

form submits

447
Q

Campaign Engagement metrics include form submits, ________, and Click Through rates.

A

Click-to-Open rates

448
Q

Campaign Engagement metrics include form submits, Click-to-Open rates, and ________.

A

Click Through rates.

449
Q

As data quality improves, _______ rates increase.

A

Deliverability

450
Q

High bounceback rates cause Internet providers to decrease your ________.

A

sender score.

451
Q

In Eloqua’s Spring 2011 Benchmarking report, a campaign sent to 1 million people saw a ___% open rate, while a campaign sent to less than 100 individuals saw a ___% open rate.

A

The larger campaign saw a 3% open rate, and the smaller one saw a 19% open rate.

452
Q

In Eloqua’s Spring 2011 Benchmarking report, a campaign sent to 1 million people saw a ___% click-to-open rate, while a campaign sent to less than 100 individuals saw a ___% click-to-open rate.

A

The larger campaign saw a 16% click-to-open rate, and the smaller one saw a 17% click-to-open rate.

453
Q

In Eloqua’s Spring 2011 Benchmarking report, a campaign sent to 1 million people saw a ___% click-through rate, while a campaign sent to less than 100 individuals saw a ___% click-through rate.

A

The larger campaign saw a 3.5% click through rate, and the smaller one saw a 3.5% click through rate.

454
Q

Higher campaign effectiveness is achieved when you deliver content to…

A

a relevant segment.

455
Q

According to the Data Warehousing Institute, how much does poor data quality cost U.S. businesses?

A

More than $600 billion annually.

456
Q

Poor data quality leads to: (1) __________, (2) lack of marketing and sales alignment, (3) lack of customer analysis, (4) lost trust, (5) bad reporting.

A

lost productivity

457
Q

Poor data quality leads to: (1) lost productivity, (2) _________, (3) lack of customer analysis, (4) lost trust, (5) bad reporting.

A

lack of marketing and sales alignment

458
Q

Poor data quality leads to: (1) lost productivity, (2) lack of marketing and sales alignment, (3) _______, (4) lost trust, (5) bad reporting.

A

lack of customer analysis

459
Q

Poor data quality leads to: (1) lost productivity, (2) lack of marketing and sales alignment, (3) lack of customer analysis, (4) _____, (5) bad reporting.

A

lost trust

460
Q

Poor data quality leads to: (1) lost productivity, (2) lack of marketing and sales alignment, (3) lack of customer analysis, (4) lost trust, (5) _____.

A

bad reporting.

461
Q

The five steps to data quality management are: (1) _______; (2) analyze existing data; (3) validate, standardize, and enrich; (4) automate; (5) optmize.

A

commit to data quality

462
Q

The five steps to data quality management are: (1) commit to data quality; (2) ________; (3) validate, standardize, and enrich; (4) automate; (5) optmize.

A

analyze existing data

463
Q

The five steps to data quality management are: (1) commit to data quality; (2) analyze existing data; (3) ____, ____ and ____; (4) automate; (5) optmize.

A

validate, standardize, and enrich

464
Q

The five steps to data quality management are: (1) commit to data quality; (2) analyze existing data; (3) validate, standardize, and enrich; (4) ______; (5) optmize.

A

automate

465
Q

The five steps to data quality management are: (1) commit to data quality; (2) analyze existing data; (3) validate, standardize, and enrich; (4) automate; (5) ____.

A

optimize

466
Q

According to Sirius Decisions, an organization with a strong commitment to data quality can produce ________ than a company with only average data quality procedures can.

A

70% more revenue

467
Q

To commit to data quality, (1) ___________; (2) define and prioritize your goals; (3) define metrics of success and benchmark current data health; (4) create a plan.

A

identify key stakeholders

468
Q

To commit to data quality, (1) identify key stakeholders; (2) _________; (3) define metrics of success and benchmark current data health; (4) create a plan.

A

define and prioritize your goals

469
Q

To commit to data quality, (1) identify key stakeholders; (2) define and prioritize your goals; (3) _________; (4) create a plan.

A

define metrics of success and benchmark current data health

470
Q

To commit to data quality, (1) identify key stakeholders; (2) define and prioritize your goals; (3) define metrics of success and benchmark current data health; (4) _______

A

create a plan.

471
Q

Data cleansing is not a solo task, particular if you have…

A

… integrated systems such as Eloqua and CRM.

472
Q

In one case study, a company created a cross-functional team focused on improving Data Quality, called a….

A

Data Quality Council.

473
Q

In the data quality improvement drive, the company drove 8-week _____ to improve data.

A

sprint projects

474
Q

An agenda for a data quality stakeholder meeting includes: (1) ________; (2) define reports to measure success; (3) select tools and tactics; (4) create communication plan; (5) provide rewards and disincentives.

A

identify & prioritize goals;

475
Q

An agenda for a data quality stakeholder meeting includes: (1) identify & prioritize goals; (2) _______; (3) select tools and tactics; (4) create communication plan; (5) provide rewards and disincentives.

A

define reports to measure success

476
Q

An agenda for a data quality stakeholder meeting includes: (1) identify & prioritize goals; (2) define reports to measure success; (3) _______; (4) create communication plan; (5) provide rewards and disincentives.

A

select tools and tactics

477
Q

An agenda for a data quality stakeholder meeting includes: (1) identify & prioritize goals; (2) define reports to measure success; (3) select tools and tactics; (4) _______; (5) provide rewards and disincentives.

A

create communication plan

478
Q

An agenda for a data quality stakeholder meeting includes: (1) identify & prioritize goals; (2) define reports to measure success; (3) select tools and tactics; (4) create communication plan; (5) ________.

A

provide rewards and disincentives

479
Q

Analyzing existing data involves analyzing: (1) _____; (2) data weaknesses; (3) data usage.

A

data sources

480
Q

Analyzing existing data involves analyzing: (1) data sources; (2) _______; (3) data usage.

A

data weaknesses

481
Q

Analyzing existing data involves analyzing: (1) data sources; (2) data weaknesses; (3) _______.

A

data usage.

482
Q

According to Sirius Decisions, a data strategy that solves conflicts _______ can lead to a 25% increase in converting inquiries to marketing-qualified leads.

A

at the source

483
Q

According to Sirius Decisions, a data strategy that solves conflicts at the source can lead to a ___% _____ in converting inquires to marketing-qualified leads.

A

25% increase

484
Q

According to Sirius Decisions, a data strategy that solves conflicts at the source can lead to a 25% increase in converting inquires to _______.

A

marketing-qualified leads.

485
Q

6 data sources include: (1) ____, (2) client support, (3) CRM, (4) form data, (5) sales reps, (6) purchasing system

A

events

486
Q

6 data sources include: (1) events, (2) ______, (3) CRM, (4) form data, (5) sales reps, (6) purchasing system

A

client support

487
Q

6 data sources include: (1) events, (2) client support, (3) ___, (4) form data, (5) sales reps, (6) purchasing system

A

CRM

488
Q

6 data sources include: (1) events, (2) client support, (3) CRM, (4) ______, (5) sales reps, (6) purchasing system

A

form data

489
Q

6 data sources include: (1) events, (2) client support, (3) CRM, (4) form data, (5) ________, (6) purchasing system

A

sales reps

490
Q

6 data sources include: (1) events, (2) client support, (3) CRM, (4) form data, (5) sales reps, (6) ______

A

purchasing system

491
Q

Three types of data sources are: (1) _____, (2) other systems, (3) non-controlled sources

A

continual sources

492
Q

Three types of data sources are: (1) continual sources, (2) ______, (3) non-controlled sources

A

other systems

493
Q

Three types of data sources are: (1) continual sources, (2) other systems, (3) ______

A

non-controlled sources

494
Q

Give 3 examples of a continual source of data for Eloqua.

A

Web forms, trial downloaders, and webinar registrants.

495
Q

Give one example of another system connected to Eloqua that acts as a data source.

A

CRM

496
Q

Give three examples of a non-controlled data source for Eloqua

A

Business cards, trade show lists, third party systems like Ticketmaster.

497
Q

Rate your data source quality for (1) _______, (2) accuracy, (3) validity, (4) degree of consistency, (5) duplication, (6) age

A

completeness

498
Q

Rate your data source quality for (1) completeness, (2) ______, (3) validity, (4) degree of consistency, (5) duplication, (6) age

A

accuracy

499
Q

Rate your data source quality for (1) completeness, (2) accuracy, (3) ______, (4) degree of consistency, (5) duplication, (6) age

A

validity

500
Q

Rate your data source quality for (1) completeness, (2) accuracy, (3) validity, (4) _______, (5) duplication, (6) age

A

degree of consistency

501
Q

Rate your data source quality for (1) completeness, (2) accuracy, (3) validity, (4) degree of consistency, (5) duplication, (6) ___

A

age

502
Q

Rate your data source quality for (1) completeness, (2) accuracy, (3) validity, (4) degree of consistency, (5) _____, (6) age

A

duplication

503
Q

Accuracy refers to whether the data is ____; validity refers to whether the data is ____.

A

Accuracy refers to whether the data is true (e.g. a job title is current); validity refers to whether the data is valid (e.g. a real phone number).

504
Q

After reviewing your data sources, select a high impact data source and ____

A

set goals to control the data quality that comes in.

505
Q

Prioritize your goals: (1) fix high visibility / high usage information; (2) fix business specific information; (3) remove duplicate fields; (4) ____.

A

remove irrelevant fields

506
Q

Prioritize your goals: (1) ________; (2) fix business specific information; (3) remove duplicate fields; (4) remove irrelevant fields.

A

fix high visibility / high usage information

507
Q

Prioritize your goals: (1) fix high visibility / high usage information; (2) _______; (3) remove duplicate fields; (4) remove irrelevant fields.

A

fix business specific information

508
Q

Prioritize your goals: (1) fix high visibility / high usage information; (2) fix business specific information; (3) _________; (4) remove irrelevant fields.

A

remove duplicate fields

509
Q

Examples of business-specific information include _____ and _______.

A

Opportunity types and funnel stages.

510
Q

An example of a duplicate field would be capturing company size in an Account or Company field as well as in a field on the ________.

A

Contact record.

511
Q

The three categories of tools for tracking data quality are: (1) ________, (2) Standardize and Cleanse, (3) Enrich.

A

Validate and Verify

512
Q

The three categories of tools for tracking data quality are: (1) Validate and Verify, (2) _______, (3) Enrich.

A

Standardize and Cleanse

513
Q

The three categories of tools for tracking data quality are: (1) Validate and Verify, (2) Standardize and Cleanse, (3) ____.

A

Enrich.

514
Q

What did Eloqua find out about the Job Titles submitted in forms?

A

Almost 14% were fake.

515
Q

What is true of faulty email addresses?

A

20% of them simply have a typo.

516
Q

To prevent junk data from getting into your system, evaluate 2 things about a form:

A

Whether a form is necessary at all, or whether it can be modified to reduce junk information.

517
Q

If content is gated extremely early in the buying process, you may not have ________.

A

earned a visitor’s trust yet.

518
Q

Consider removing some of the gates from in front of the content placed in the initial stages of the buyer’s journey, to reduce _____.

A

junk data.

519
Q

How many job titles did Eloqua have in its system before standardization?

A

More than 15,000

520
Q

Can you effectively target based on Job Title when that field is not standardize?

A

No.

521
Q

Before you standardize, you must have…

A

agreed-upon standards.

522
Q

Standardizing job titles already started during your…

A

SmartStart.

523
Q

To standardize job titles, even if you were not the person that went through the SmartStart for your company, you can refer to a document called

A

CRM or SFDC Integration Field Mapping Spreadsheet.

524
Q

The CRM or SFDC Integration Field Mapping Spreadsheet lists your ______ and the _______ they are mapped to in Eloqua. It also lists the _____.

A

CRM fields and the Contact Fields they are mapped to in Eloqua. It also lists the field type.

525
Q

If you choose to standardize and change some fields from being Text to Picklists, you need to update the…

A

field type.

526
Q

To update your CRM or SFDC Integration Mapping Spreadsheet with additional data quality information, add tabs for…

A

Acceptable Values and Formatting Notes.

527
Q

In data standardization, it should be a priority to standardize fields you need for ____ and _____.

A

targeting and scoring.

528
Q

Why enrich your data?

A

Because shorter forms create the opportunity for precise targeting.

529
Q

What should you avoid when using enriched data?

A

Creepy!

530
Q

Could you enrich your data by appending purchase history, Klout Score, census data?

A

Yes.

531
Q

A manual approach to data cleansing can be burdensome. Why not….

A

automate?

532
Q

A good step to automating data cleansing is to update your workflow by adding _____ instead of text boxes, and ____ to your forms.

A

picklists instead of text boxes, and validation to your forms.

533
Q

You can set up a one-time wash of your existing data via the ______ or by contracting a _______

A

Contact Washing Machine, or by contracting a third-party cleansing service.

534
Q

Eloqua partners such as DandB, Hoovers, and ReachForce can helo to….

A

….periodically import and automatically update contact records.

535
Q

The final step in data cleansing is….

A

integration.

536
Q

Data cleansing integration enables ______ to take place in the background.

A

continual cleansing

537
Q

An integrated Contact Washing Machine within Eloqua’s _______ continually cleanses and normalizes Contacts.

A

Program Builder

538
Q

Integrated third party cleansing uses ________ .

A

cloud connectors.

539
Q

Integrated third party enrichment ________ data.

A

appends

540
Q

Within the AppCloud you can find __________, which scans your data for First Name, Full Name, Email Address, and Phone Number in search of suspect data.

A

Eloqua Name Analyzer

541
Q

You can find the Eloqua Name Analyzer and Eloqua Data Editors in the _________.

A

AppCloud.

542
Q

______________ eliminate the need to manipulate data in the spreadsheet prior to upload.

A

Eloqua Data Editors

543
Q

When enriching your data, (1) understand what data provides additional value, (2) add missing data from third party sources, (3) ______.

A

add intelligence from other internal sources.

544
Q

When enriching your data, (1) understand what data provides additional value, (2) ______, (3) add intelligence from other internal sources.

A

add missing data from third party sources

545
Q

When enriching your data, (1) ______, (2) add missing data from third party sources, (3) add intelligence from other internal sources.

A

understand what data provides additional value

546
Q

According to Gartner, data quality _____ rapidly.

A

decays.

547
Q

According to Gartner, enterprises should follow a methodology that includes regular measurement of data quality with goals for improvement and deployment of process improvements and technology. In other words, we…

A

Optimize.

548
Q

How many job titles did Eloqua used to have in its database?

A

15,000

549
Q

Did Eloqua choose to overwrite the Job Title the individual had given htem?

A

No, they created a second field called Normalized Job Title to store the standard value.

550
Q

For data quality, you should continually monitor ______, Contact Field Completeness, and Contact Field Value.

A

database growth

551
Q

For data quality, you should continually monitor database growth, ______, and Contact Field Value.

A

Contact Field Completeness

552
Q

For data quality, you should continually monitor database growth, Contact Field Completeness, and _____.

A

Contact Field Value

553
Q

_____ reports reveal spikes and dips in Contact growth, and also show Reach.

A

Contact Growth

554
Q

The database size minus unsubscribes and hard bouncebacks is known as…

A

Reach

555
Q

The ______ report shows how complete the fields in your database are.

A

Contact Field Completeness

556
Q

The Contact Field Value report can be used to measure the _______ of your data.

A

consistency

557
Q

To set a standardization or enrichment goal, (1) _______; (2) See if it is complete, current, consistent, and correct; (3) choose the best tool to improve this field; (4) benchmark before and after.

A

choose a field that is key for your targeting efforts

558
Q

To set a standardization or enrichment goal, (1) choose a field that is key for your targeting efforts, (2) __________; (3) choose the best tool to improve this field; (4) benchmark before and after.

A

See if it is complete, current, consistent, and correct

559
Q

To set a standardization or enrichment goal, (1) choose a field that is key for your targeting efforts; (2) See if it is complete, current, consistent, and correct; (3) __________; (4) benchmark before and after.

A

choose the best tool to improve this field

560
Q

To set a standardization or enrichment goal, (1) choose a field that is key for your targeting efforts, (2) See if it is complete, current, consistent, and correct; (3) choose the best tool to improve this field; (4) _________.

A

benchmark before and after

561
Q

What are the two main ways of finding your target audience?

A

(1) Allow your Contacts to self-target; (2) Marketing targets

562
Q

To self-target, (1) ____, (2) use a Preference Center, (3) respect the preferences.

A

use subscription management

563
Q

To self-target, (1) use subscription management, (2) ________, (3) respect the preferences.

A

use a Preference Center

564
Q

To self-target, (1) use subscription management, (2) use a Preference Center, (3) _______.

A

respect the preferences

565
Q

To do targeting from within Marketing, (1) _______, (2) identify key segments, (3) match target audience to message.

A

create persona

566
Q

To do targeting from within Marketing, (1) create persona, (2) ________, (3) match target audience to message.

A

identify key segments

567
Q

To do targeting from within Marketing, (1) create persona, (2) identify key segments, (3) _________.

A

match target audience to message

568
Q

According to Andreas S. Weigend from Amazon, the future of marketing is based on (1) how we enhance the ___________ and (2) providing more detailed messaging by asking the subscriber for more detailed information.

A

digital experience of a subscriber

569
Q

According to Andreas S. Weigend from Amazon, the future of marketing is based on (1) how we enhance the digital experience of a subscriber and (2) providing more detailed messaging by ____________.

A

asking the subscriber for more detailed information

570
Q

If you ask for information…

A

you need to use that information.

571
Q

Besides asking outright, how does Amazon learn about our preferences?

A

Through our online behavior.

572
Q

According to a Forrester survey, how many people felt the marketing emails they received were relevant to their wants and needs?

A

92% felt that the email marketing they received was not relevant to their wants and needs.

573
Q

According to a Forrester survey, how many people felt companies should let them decide how they would like to be contacted?

A

93%

574
Q

Forrester measured 4 positive impacts in capturing and using customer preference: (1) _____, (2) higher customer retention; (3) better campaign results; (4) higher customer satisfaction.

A

improved ROI

575
Q

Forrester measured 4 positive impacts in capturing and using customer preference: (1) improved ROI, (2) ________; (3) better campaign results; (4) higher customer satisfaction.

A

higher customer retention

576
Q

Forrester measured 4 positive impacts in capturing and using customer preference: (1) improved ROI, (2) higher customer retention; (3) _______; (4) higher customer satisfaction.

A

better campaign results

577
Q

Forrester measured 4 positive impacts in capturing and using customer preference: (1) improved ROI, (2) higher customer retention; (3) better campaign results; (4) _____.

A

higher customer satisfaction

578
Q

________ records customer preferences about the type of communication, such as newsletters or product alerts.

A

Subscription data

579
Q

_________ helps customize the message to the user and improves relevance.

A

Preference data

580
Q

Preference data is collected __________ and __________

A

explicitly through forms and surveys, and implicitly by watching behavior.

581
Q

Contacts should be given the opportunity to update their own _____ information.

A

contact detail

582
Q

Allowing contacts to update their _______ can maintain a high degree of data quality.

A

profile data

583
Q

________ give contacts the ability to define and control the types of email communications they receive.

A

Subscription Centers

584
Q

When a visitor visits your Subscription Center, it is best practice to ______

A

inform them of their current subscription status.

585
Q

In a Subscription Center, provide _____ of content options, including ______ and _______

A

clear descriptions including topics and frequency.

586
Q

When describing the content options offered in a subscription center, include ____ and frequency.

A

topics

587
Q

When describing the content options offered in a subscription center, include topics and _____.

A

frequency.

588
Q

If a user clicks Subscribe or Unsubscribe…

A

they should be immediately taken to the Subscription Center.

589
Q

It is illegal to have a visitor _____ in order to unsubscribe.

A

click more than once.

590
Q

Is it legal to force visitors to enter additional information beyond email address, in order to unsubscribe?

A

No.

591
Q

Three methods of targeting your messages - increasing in complexity - are , Behavioral Cues, and Full Service Preference Center.

A

Subscription Center

592
Q

Three methods of targeting your messages - increasing in complexity - are Subscription Center, _______, and Full Service Preference Center.

A

Behavioral Cues

593
Q

Three methods of targeting your messages - increasing in complexity - are Subscription Center, Behavioral Cues, and _____.

A

Full Service Preference Center.

594
Q

Behavioral Cues use ________ to target messaging.

A

digital body language.

595
Q

What percentage of Eloqua customers currently have a full-blown Preference Center?

A

Less than 10%

596
Q

Message customization options include _____, topics, business challenge, product or brand, region.

A

language

597
Q

Message customization options include language, ____, business challenge, product or brand, region.

A

topics

598
Q

Message customization options include language, topics, _______, product or brand, region.

A

business challenge

599
Q

Message customization options include language, topics, business challenge, ______, region.

A

product or brand

600
Q

Message customization options include language, topics, business challenge, product or brand,____.

A

region

601
Q

Is a Preference Center the same as, or different from, a Subscription Center?

A

Different.

602
Q

Your Preference Center can be much shorter if you use inferred ___________.

A

interest based o the user’s behavior.

603
Q

When deciding on what preferences to offer, think of how your ____ is categorized. Why?

A

website - because consistency helps clarity.

604
Q

Should you combine expressed interest from a Preference Center with interest implicit from online behavior?

A

Yes.

605
Q

When planning a preference center, the first step is to define…

A

User Needs

606
Q

When defining User Needs for a preference center, you need to define what data ______.

A

you want users to be able to self-manage.

607
Q

To define User Needs for a preference center think about (1) will existing data be displayed? (2) _________? (3) which fields can they modify? (4) access via email or website?

A

how do users modify?

608
Q

To define User Needs for a preference center think about (1) will existing data be displayed? (2) how do users modify? (3) ________? (4) access via email or website?

A

which fields can they modify?

609
Q

To define User Needs for a preference center think about (1) will existing data be displayed? (2) how do users modify? (3) which fields can they modify? (4) ____?

A

access via email or website?

610
Q

To define a Preference Center’s architecture and data flow, consider (1) do you have the right infrastructure? (2) should data immediately synch with other systems or do you need to quarantine, cleanse, and validate the data first? (3) ____?

A

who internally can modify user records, and when?

611
Q

To define a Preference Center’s architecture and data flow, consider (1) do you have the right ____? (2) should data immediately synch with other systems or do you need to quarantine, cleanse, and validate the data first? (3) who internally can modify user records, and when?

A

infrastructure

612
Q

To define a Preference Center’s architecture and data flow, consider (1) do you have the right infrastructure? (2) should data immediately synch with other systems or ….? (3) who internally can modify user records, and when?

A

do you need to quarantine, cleanse, and validate the data first?

613
Q

Industries that use Preference Centers the most are Think Tanks, _____, Entertainment and Sports Franchises, and Hospitality clients.

A

Election Campaigns,

614
Q

Industries that use Preference Centers the most are Think Tanks, Election Campaigns, _____, and Hospitality clients.

A

Entertainment and Sports Franchises

615
Q

Industries that use Preference Centers the most are Think Tanks, Election Campaigns, Entertainment and Sports Franchises, and _______.

A

Hospitality clients

616
Q

Industries that use Preference Centers the most are ______, Election Campaigns, Entertainment and Sports Franchises, and Hospitality clients.

A

Think Tanks

617
Q

The two guiding principles of preference center respect are (a) ______; (b) if you provide choice you must honor it.

A

only build what you can support

618
Q

The two guiding principles of preference center respect are (a) only build what you can support; (b) _____.

A

if you provide choice you must honor it

619
Q

In Standard and Poor’s case study, asking for contact updates resulted in their subscription lists growing by ____

A

30%.

620
Q

In the Standard and Poor’s study, ____ updated their profiles after the first request, and of these, ___% were senior management.

A

15.5% updated their profiles after the first request, and of these, 8% were senior management.

621
Q

If you set up a Preference Center, you need to…

A

Inform visitors on how to access it.

622
Q

A Preference Center can (1) _____, (2) improve message effectiveness, (3) increase customer loyalty.

A

decrease global unsubscription

623
Q

A Preference Center can (1) decrease global unsubscription, (2) _____, (3) increase customer loyalty.

A

improve message effectiveness

624
Q

A Preference Center can (1) decrease global unsubscription, (2) improve message effectiveness, (3) _____.

A

increase customer loyalty

625
Q

Subscription Centers create options beyond ____

A

global unsubscribe.

626
Q

Subscription Centers clarify descriptions of each ________.

A

subscription option.

627
Q

Subscription Centers communicate _____.

A

current subscription status.

628
Q

If applicable, and you are truly ready to respond to more data than a Subscription Center can provide, start a ______.

A

Preference Center.

629
Q

RPM Metrics for preference and subscription management are (1) _______; (2) subscription rate; (3) complain rate; (4) sender score; (5) deliverability rate.

A

unsubscription rate

630
Q

RPM Metrics for preference and subscription management are (1) unsubscription rate; (2) _____; (3) complain rate; (4) sender score; (5) deliverability rate.

A

subscription rate

631
Q

RPM Metrics for preference and subscription management are (1) unsubscription rate; (2) subscription rate; (3) _______; (4) sender score; (5) deliverability rate.

A

complain rate

632
Q

RPM Metrics for preference and subscription management are (1) unsubscription rate; (2) subscription rate; (3) complain rate; (4) ______; (5) deliverability rate.

A

sender score

633
Q

RPM Metrics for preference and subscription management are (1) unsubscription rate; (2) subscription rate; (3) complain rate; (4) sender score; (5) ____.

A

deliverability rate

634
Q

A _____ is a fictional character created to represent your ideal buyer or buyers.

A

Persona

635
Q

You may have multiple ____ for different buyer types

A

personas

636
Q

Personas are used to help inform how you _______ your database.

A

segment

637
Q

Where can you find a refresher on Personas?

A

In Topliners, search for the Persona recordings.

638
Q

An example to help you understand Personas is colleague vs….

A

CEO

639
Q

The first step in building a persona is to recognize that there are different types of ____.

A

buyers.

640
Q

Stephen E. Heiman’s book, ______, provides some principles to work with in defining personas.

A

The New Strategic Selling

641
Q

Heiman defines five buyer types: (1) Economic Buyer, (2) _____, (3) Technical Buyer, (4) Coach aka Champion, (5) Influencer

A

User Buyer

642
Q

Heiman defines five buyer types: (1) Economic Buyer, (2) User Buyer, (3) ____, (4) Coach aka Champion, (5) Influencer

A

Technical Buyer

643
Q

Heiman defines five buyer types: (1) _______, (2) User Buyer, (3) Technical Buyer, (4) Coach aka Champion, (5) Influencer

A

Economic Buyer

644
Q

Heiman defines five buyer types: (1) Economic Buyer, (2) User Buyer, (3) Technical Buyer, (4) ___ aka____, (5) Influencer

A

Coach aka Champion

645
Q

Heiman defines five buyer types: (1) Economic Buyer, (2) User Buyer, (3) Technical Buyer, (4) Coach aka Champion, (5) _____

A

Influencer

646
Q

The _____ buyer type is especially prevalent in long B2B cycles.

A

Influencer

647
Q

Not all buyer types …

A

enter the buyer’s journey at the same time.

648
Q

Some personas need less content and communication because…

A

…their journey is shorter.

649
Q

With a shorter buyer’s journey, you need to find creative ways to…

A

get them up to speed quickly and painlessly.

650
Q

Which buyer type asks questions about system security and integration?

A

Technical Buyer.

651
Q

Which buyer type signs the contract and the check?

A

Economic Buyer

652
Q

Which buyer type uses your solution day-to-day?

A

User Buyer.

653
Q

To start defining a persona, (1) ________, (2) make your persona sound like a real person, (3) call out key attributes to understand what makes them tick.

A

give your persona a name

654
Q

To start defining a persona, (1) give your persona a name, (2) _______, (3) call out key attributes to understand what makes them tick.

A

make your persona sound like a real person

655
Q

To start defining a persona, (1) give your persona a name, (2) make your persona sound like a real person, (3) _________.

A

call out key attributes to understand what makes them tick

656
Q

When building a persona, don’t forget to reference…

A

The persona template that was provided during class.

657
Q

The persona template is also available from…

A

Topliners.

658
Q

To define the persona, the first step is to assign the persona a ____, job title, and buyer type.

A

name

659
Q

To define the persona, the first step is to assign the persona a name, ____, and buyer type.

A

job title

660
Q

To define the persona, the first step is to assign the persona a name, job title, and _____.

A

buyer type

661
Q

Personal Attributes are a sidebar that is a snapshot of your…

A

Ideal Customer Profile.

662
Q

What does ICP stand for?

A

Ideal Customer Profile

663
Q

Are stereotypes bad, in persona definition? Why or why not?

A

No. When used with clarity they can help you make decisions.

664
Q

Stereotype information can be used as a guide on how to…

A

Address the majority of a group.

665
Q

Firmographic attributes include _____, verticals, and company size.

A

common titles

666
Q

Firmographic attributes include common titles, _____, and company size.

A

verticals

667
Q

Firmographic attributes include common titles, verticals, and _____.

A

company size

668
Q

If you find it difficult to choose one Job Title, start by…

A

Listing out all the common Job Titles.

669
Q

In persona definition, understanding job responsibilities can help you understand their ______, responsibilities, and short term goals.

A

day-to-day needs

670
Q

In persona definition, understanding job responsibilities can help you understand their day-to-day needs, ____, and short term goals.

A

responsibilities

671
Q

In persona definition, understanding job responsibilities can help you understand their day-to-day needs, responsibilities, and ____.

A

short term goals

672
Q

You should make sure to match your persona’s responsibilities to…

A

Your products or solutions.

673
Q

Pain points answer what question?

A

What messages will resonate?

674
Q

Key Drivers and Motivators answer: (1) ______? (2) What messaging and tone will resonate?

A

Why would this person be motivated to make a change or buy a product or service

675
Q

Key Drivers and Motivators answer: (1) Why would this person be motivated to make a change or buy a product or service? (2) _____?

A

What messaging and tone will resonate?

676
Q

A ______ is where a persona goes for validation when in the buying cycle.

A

validator

677
Q

The ______ is probably the last thing you will construct in your persona.

A

Profile Overview

678
Q

The _____ is a narrative or summary.

A

Profile Overview

679
Q

5 steps to building Personas: (1) Research Ideal Customers; (2) __; (3) Brainstorm and Create the Persona; (4) Map the Journey; (5) Apply RPM

A

Gather the Team;

680
Q

5 steps to building Personas: (1) _____; (2) Gather the Team; (3) Brainstorm and Create the Persona; (4) Map the Journey; (5) Apply RPM

A

Research Ideal Customers

681
Q

5 steps to building Personas: (1) Research Ideal Customers; (2) Gather the Team; (3) _______; (4) Map the Journey; (5) Apply RPM

A

Brainstorm and Create the Persona

682
Q

5 steps to building Personas: (1) Research Ideal Customers; (2) Gather the Team; (3) Brainstorm and Create the Persona; (4) ______; (5) Apply RPM

A

Map the Journey

683
Q

5 steps to building Personas: (1) Research Ideal Customers; (2) Gather the Team; (3) Brainstorm and Create the Persona; (4) Map the Journey; (5) ____

A

Apply RPM

684
Q

If you are having trouble figuring out who your best customers are, talk to ____!

A

finance

685
Q

The first step in researching your ideal customer is to list your _______.

A

best customers.

686
Q

You get your best customers where ____, ____, and _____ meet.

A

where Value, Revenue, and Profitability meet.

687
Q

To create personas, your team should include representatives from your _______, and the ______.

A

client-facing team, and the rock stars.

688
Q

To start a team brainstorm about persona, begin with a _______.

A

list of questions.

689
Q

When creating personas, you should start with ________.

A

the most important persona to your business.

690
Q

The stages of the buying process are (1) ____, (2) prospect, (3) qualified lead, (4) sales accepted lead, (5) sales qualified opportunity, (6) customer.

A

suspect

691
Q

The stages of the buying process are: (1) suspect, (2) ___, (3) qualified lead, (4) sales accepted lead, (5) sales qualified opportunity, (6) customer.

A

prospect

692
Q

The stages of the buying process are: (1) suspect, (2) prospect, (3) _____, (4) sales accepted lead, (5) sales qualified opportunity, (6) customer.

A

qualified lead

693
Q

The stages of the buying process are: (1) suspect, (2) prospect, (3) qualified lead, (4) ____, (5) sales qualified opportunity, (6) customer.

A

sales accepted lead

694
Q

The stages of the buying process are: (1) suspect, (2) prospect, (3) qualified lead, (4) sales accepted lead, (5) ____, (6) customer.

A

sales qualified opportunity

695
Q

The stages of the buying process are: (1) suspect, (2) prospect, (3) qualified lead, (4) sales accepted lead, (5) sales qualified opportunity, (6) _____.

A

customer.

696
Q

The “________” chart maps the questions a Persona has across the buying cycle.

A

Persona’s Journey

697
Q

What type of campaign would address, for example, an Economic Buyer type who only participates in the Justify and Purchase phases of a buyer’s journey?

A

A Quick Ramp-up Campaign

698
Q

Personas should be used as a tool to guide your ____

A

marketing decisions.

699
Q

Personas can shape your __, campaigns, collateral development, media mix strategy, and training.

A

data segments

700
Q

Personas can shape your data segments, _______, collateral development, media mix strategy, and training.

A

campaigns

701
Q

Personas can shape your data segments, campaigns, _______, media mix strategy, and training.

A

collateral development

702
Q

Personas can shape your data segments, campaigns, collateral development, ______, and training.

A

media mix strategy

703
Q

Personas can shape your data segments, campaigns, collateral development, media mix strategy, and ______.

A

training

704
Q

An Eloqua customer improved their email marketing campaign response by up to ____ by leveraging personas.

A

up to 300%

705
Q

Personas help you focus on the ___.

A

user.

706
Q

You should _____ of your database by persona.

A

monitor the health

707
Q

To stay accurate, your personas require ___

A

updating.

708
Q

Test the ___, not the persona.

A

strategy

709
Q

Persona development checklist: (1) _______, (2) identify key buyer types, (3) gather your team, (4) brainstorm for your most important persona, (5) map your persona’s buying journey, (6) monitor and tweak your personas

A

research ideal customer

710
Q

Persona development checklist: (1) research ideal customer, (2) _______, (3) gather your team, (4) brainstorm for your most important persona, (5) map your persona’s buying journey, (6) monitor and tweak your personas

A

identify key buyer types

711
Q

Persona development checklist: (1) research ideal customer, (2) identify key buyer types, (3) gather your team, (4) ______, (5) map your persona’s buying journey, (6) monitor and tweak your personas

A

brainstorm for your most important persona,

712
Q

Persona development checklist: (1) research ideal customer, (2) identify key buyer types, (3) gather your team, (4) brainstorm for your most important persona, (5) _________, (6) monitor and tweak your personas

A

map your persona’s buying journey

713
Q

Persona development checklist: (1) research ideal customer, (2) identify key buyer types, (3) gather your team, (4) brainstorm for your most important persona, (5) map your persona’s buying journey, (6) ____

A

monitor and tweak your personas

714
Q

To start targeting, the three main action steps are (1) ______, (2) create segments, (3) benchmark.

A

define segments

715
Q

To start targeting, the three main action steps are (1) define segments, (2) _____, (3) benchmark.

A

create segments

716
Q

To start targeting, the three main action steps are (1) define segments, (2) create segments, (3) __.

A

benchmark

717
Q

A Campaign is a specific set of ____ used in communicating a go-to-market message with the objective of moving an individual from one stage to the next in an evaluation process.

A

assets

718
Q

A Campaign is a specific set of assets used in communicating a _____ with the objective of moving an individual from one stage to the next in an evaluation process.

A

go-to-market message

719
Q

A Campaign is a specific set of assets used in communicating a go-to-market message with the objective of ________.

A

moving an individual from one stage to the next in an evaluation process.

720
Q

_______ are how you communicate with your target audience.

A

Campaigns

721
Q

____ are individual pieces in a campaign.

A

Assets

722
Q

____ is the incentive for an individual to respond to a Campaign.

A

Offer

723
Q

A lot of how you define a campaign reflects _____.

A

your own business and reporting needs.

724
Q

It is best practice to be _____ with how you define a campaign.

A

consistent

725
Q

Closed loop reporting enables the Marketing team to…

A

claim the revenue that they sourced or influenced.

726
Q

To show ROI, you must input…

A

Investment.

727
Q

To calculate campaign cost, you need a ____ for each type of campaign.

A

cost structure

728
Q

____ is a portion of your database you plan to target in a marketing communication.

A

Segment

729
Q

The two most obvious audience types are ____ and ____.

A

customers and prospects.

730
Q

What is one example of a business specific audience?

A

Sports franchise: single ticket buyers vs season ticket buyers. Nonprofit: donors, volunteers, members. Healthcare: doctors, patients.

731
Q

Is a persona a segment?

A

No, but a persona helps you configure your segment.

732
Q

Segments need to get more ____ than personas.

A

granular

733
Q

5 types of Campaign Objectives: (1) _____, (2) lead generation, (3) on-boarding/adoption, (4) renewal, (5) up-sell/cross-sell

A

contact acquisition

734
Q

5 types of Campaign Objectives: (1) contact acquisition, (2) _____, (3) on-boarding/adoption, (4) renewal, (5) up-sell/cross-sell

A

lead generation

735
Q

5 types of Campaign Objectives: (1) contact acquisition, (2) lead generation, (3) ______, (4) renewal, (5) up-sell/cross-sell

A

on-boarding/adoption

736
Q

5 types of Campaign Objectives: (1) contact acquisition, (2) lead generation, (3) on-boarding/adoption, (4) _____, (5) up-sell/cross-sell

A

renewal

737
Q

5 types of Campaign Objectives: (1) contact acquisition, (2) lead generation, (3) on-boarding/adoption, (4) renewal, (5) _____.

A

up-sell/cross-sell

738
Q

One way you do not overload visitors with a long form or ask them the same questions repeatedly is to leverage ______.

A

Progressive Profiling.

739
Q

What do most consumers do when they want off your list?

A

68% Unsubscribe.

740
Q

What do 42% of consumers do when they want off your email list?

A

Ignore or delete the email.

741
Q

What do 7% of consumers do when they want off your email list?

A

Set up a filter.

742
Q

People who ignore or delete your email or set up a filter are still in your database, but they are _____ or ______.

A

emotionally unsubscribed.

743
Q

_____ are individuals who have not engaged with your organization over the course of a Sales cycle.

A

Inactive Contacts

744
Q

Inactive Contacts are

A

individuals who have not engaged with your organization over the course of a Sales cycle.

745
Q

What kind of campaign should you consider conducting for inactive leads?

A

A re-engagement campaign.

746
Q

True Story: National Instruments targeted inactive Contacts with an email from Sales that contained a ____ and got a 25% lift in engagement.

A

personalized signature.

747
Q

National Instruments’ re-engagement campaign, containing a personalized signature from Sales, resulted in….

A

a 25% lift in engagement.

748
Q

____ is the RPI that locates the total marketable Contacts.

A

Reach.

749
Q

Reach is everyone in your database who is not _________

A

globally unsubscribed or a hard bouncebacks.

750
Q

As a general rule of thumb you want your Reach to trend…

A

positively.

751
Q

Reach becomes more valuable when you start to measure Reach by (1) ____, (2) Inactive Contacts, (3) Segment, (4) Lead Score, (5) Communication Channel

A

Active Contacts

752
Q

Reach becomes more valuable when you start to measure Reach by (1) Active Contacts, (2) ______, (3) Segment, (4) Lead Score, (5) Communication Channel

A

Inactive Contacts

753
Q

Reach becomes more valuable when you start to measure Reach by (1) Active Contacts, (2) Inactive Contacts, (3) _______, (4) Lead Score, (5) Communication Channel

A

Segment

754
Q

Reach becomes more valuable when you start to measure Reach by (1) Active Contacts, (2) Inactive Contacts, (3) Segment, (4) ____, (5) Communication Channel

A

Lead Score

755
Q

Reach becomes more valuable when you start to measure Reach by (1) Active Contacts, (2) Inactive Contacts, (3) Segment, (4) Lead Score, (5) __________.

A

Communication Channel

756
Q

Where along the RPM journey does the concept of lead quality fall?

A

Lead Management

757
Q

In the Aberdeen 2012 RPM report, how did they define the best-in-class companies?

A

The top 20% aggregate performers.

758
Q

According to Aberdeen, ___ of the best-in-class companies have processes and resources to manage lead quality?

A

70%

759
Q

According to Aberdeen, ___ of best-in-class companies have defined, standardized, and documented lead management processes.

A

67%

760
Q

According to Aberdeen, ___ of best-in-class companies have a dedicated resource responsible for optimizing lead management.

A

69%

761
Q

According to Aberdeen, ___ of best-in-class companies have the ability to measure the close rate of marketing-generated leads via CRM integration.

A

65%

762
Q

According to Aberdeen, the best-in-class companies achieved _____ year-over-year rise in marketing contribution to company revenue compared to ____ for industry average and ____ for Laggards.

A

18%, 6% for industry average, no increase for Laggards.

763
Q

Aberdeen’s 2012 RPM report showed that ________ is the foundation of RPM.

A

Marketing Process Management

764
Q

Some companies have just two groups - ____ bucket and _____ bucket

A

a Leads bucket and an Opportunities bucket

765
Q

The Eloqua Integrated Marketing and Sales Funnel has 6 stages: (1) ____ (2) prospect (3) marketing qualified lead (4) sales accepted lead (5) sales qualified opportunity (6) $$

A

suspect

766
Q

The Eloqua Integrated Marketing and Sales Funnel has 6 stages: (1) suspect (2) _____ (3) marketing qualified lead (4) sales accepted lead (5) sales qualified opportunity (6) $$

A

prospect

767
Q

The Eloqua Integrated Marketing and Sales Funnel has 6 stages: (1) suspect (2) prospect (3) _____ (4) sales accepted lead (5) sales qualified opportunity (6) $$

A

marketing qualified lead

768
Q

The Eloqua Integrated Marketing and Sales Funnel has 6 stages: (1) suspect (2) prospect (3) marketing qualified lead (4) _______ (5) sales qualified opportunity (6) $$

A

sales accepted lead

769
Q

The Eloqua Integrated Marketing and Sales Funnel has 6 stages: (1) suspect (2) prospect (3) marketing qualified lead (4) sales accepted lead (5) ____ (6) $$

A

sales qualified opportunity

770
Q

The Eloqua Integrated Marketing and Sales Funnel has 6 stages: (1) suspect (2) prospect (3) marketing qualified lead (4) sales accepted lead (5) sales qualified opportunity (6) __

A

$$

771
Q

An integrated funnel looks at the entire ____ including both ___ and ____.

A

An integrated funnel looks at the entire pipeline including both Marketing and Sales.

772
Q

One of the key differentiations the funnel allows for is between ____ and _____.

A

responder and qualified buyer.

773
Q

The Eloqua funnel can be joined up with the ________.

A

buyer’s journey.

774
Q

At the ____ stage of the buyer’s journey and the ____ stage of the funnel, marketing needs to continue to nurture until the buyer becomes sales-ready.

A

Learn / Prospect

775
Q

At the Interest / Suspect stage of journey / funnel, Marketing is trying to determine the potential buyer’s level of ________

A

qualification and interest.

776
Q

When someone is Evaluating, they are at the ______ stage of the funnel.

A

marketing qualiafied lead.

777
Q

When someone is at the Justify stage of the buyer’s journey they are at the _____ stage of the funnel.

A

Sales Accepted Lead

778
Q

Whether you use the Eloqua integrated funnel or your own, it is critical to create an integrated sales and marketing funnel and ____ each of the stages.

A

define

779
Q

You need to define both the _________ and the ________.

A

Internal marketing and sales funnel stages; and the buyer’s journey.

780
Q

The Lead Quality class focuses on the funnel from the ____ phase onwards.

A

Prospect

781
Q

If you optimize qualification and conversion rates at the top of the funnel, revenue increases at the bottom of the funnel because of the _____

A

trickle-down effect.

782
Q

Why would sales accept the concept of an integrated funnel?

A

Because the leads are higher quality.

783
Q

If you educate sales on lead management, they will know they can ______ leads that are not optimized.

A

reject

784
Q

In lead quality, benchmark at the beginning: (1) _______, (2) # of new prospects, (3) # qualified leads, (4) lead score distribution

A

Form submissions

785
Q

In lead quality, benchmark at the beginning: (1) Form submissions, (2) ________, (3) # qualified leads, (4) lead score distribution

A

of new prospects

786
Q

In lead quality, benchmark at the beginning: (1) Form submissions, (2) # of new prospects, (3) ______, (4) lead score distribution

A

qualified leads

787
Q

In lead quality, benchmark at the beginning: (1) Form submissions, (2) # of new prospects, (3) # qualified leads, (4) _______

A

lead score distribution

788
Q

What is a bonus metric to benchmark at the beginning of lead quality efforts?

A

Conversion

789
Q

What is a simple way to see a quick snapshot of Campaign Engagement?

A

Form submits.

790
Q

To show the net new individuals who have showed some interest, benchmark the number of _____

A

new prospects in your database.

791
Q

If certain lead scores have a balloon of leads while other scores have none, what conclusion can you draw?

A

That your lead scoring model may need adjustmnet.

792
Q

Companies that standardize lead management across sales and marketing report ___ lead conversion rate.

A

107% better lead conversion rate

793
Q

Companies that standardize lead management across sales and marketing report ___ deal size average.

A

40% greater deal size average

794
Q

Companies that standardize lead management across sales and marketing report ___ team attainment of quota.

A

20% higher team attainment of quota.

795
Q

Companies that standardize lead management across sales and marketing report _____ forecast accuracy.

A

17% better forecast accuracy.

796
Q

Setting up a funnel can be broken down into 4 steps: (1) _______, (2) document funnel stage definitions, (3) define roles and responsibilities, (4) document assignment rules

A

identify stakeholders

797
Q

Setting up a funnel can be broken down into 4 steps: (1) identify stakeholders, (2) _________, (3) define roles and responsibilities, (4) document assignment rules

A

document funnel stage definitions

798
Q

Setting up a funnel can be broken down into 4 steps: (1) identify stakeholders, (2) document funnel stage definitions, (3) ________, (4) document assignment rules

A

define roles and responsibilities

799
Q

Setting up a funnel can be broken down into 4 steps: (1) identify stakeholders, (2) document funnel stage definitions, (3) define roles and responsibilities, (4) ____

A

document assignment rules

800
Q

Who should be a stakeholder as you define the integrated marketing and sales funnel?

A

“The best and the brightest”

801
Q

Four tips for documenting funnel stage definitions: (1) ______, (2) define WHAT, (3) define WHO, (4) define HOW LONG

A

be specific

802
Q

Four tips for documenting funnel stage definitions: (1) be specific, (2) _______, (3) define WHO, (4) define HOW LONG

A

define WHAT

803
Q

Four tips for documenting funnel stage definitions: (1) be specific, (2) define WHAT, (3) _______, (4) define HOW LONG

A

define WHO is responsible for each stage in teh funnel

804
Q

Four tips for documenting funnel stage definitions: (1) be specific, (2) define WHAT, (3) define WHO, (4) __

A

define HOW LONG the responsible party has to respond.

805
Q

In funnel management, defining how long the responsible party has to respond is essentially setting up ______.

A

expirations.

806
Q

Funnel stage requirements should be defined by _______

A

business requirements.

807
Q

The definition of a Marketing Qualified Lead should be define by marketing: true or false? Why?

A

False. All stakeholders should agree on definitions of funnel stages

808
Q

Defining Roles and Responsibilities in funnel management is an extension of your _____

A

stage definitions.

809
Q

An example breakdown of roles and responsibilities for funnel management is in the ______

A

Template that comes with the RPM Lead Quality class.

810
Q

A Service Level Agreement defines (1)____, (2) how long, (3) exceptions.

A

who

811
Q

A Service Level Agreement defines (1) who, (2) ___, (3) exceptions.

A

how long

812
Q

A Service Level Agreement defines (1) who, (2) how long, (3) ____.

A

how exceptions will be managed.

813
Q

In order to be able to pull aging reports on SLA compliance, two things must be in place: (1) a date stamp applied __________; (2) aging reports

A

a date stamp applied when a lead is passed to your CRM

814
Q

In order to be able to pull aging reports on SLA compliance, two things must be in place: (1) a date stamp applied when a lead is passed to your CRM; (2) ______

A

aging reports

815
Q

SLA aging reports will probably need to be built by your __

A

CRM Admin.

816
Q

Leads will be passed back to marketing for a variety of reasons: (1) ________, (2) Stalled opportunity, (3) Lost sale to competitor.

A

not BANT qualified

817
Q

Leads will be passed back to marketing for a variety of reasons: (1) not BANT qualified, (2) _______, (3) Lost sale to competitor.

A

Stalled opportunity

818
Q

Leads will be passed back to marketing for a variety of reasons: (1) not BANT qualified, (2) Stalled opportunity, (3)__.

A

Lost sale to competitor.

819
Q

A backward SLA specifies what ________ will do with ____ leads.

A

What marketing will do with actively recycled leads.

820
Q

If a lead gets passed back because a sale was lost to a competitor, lead nurturing should provide messaging on ____

A

product differentiators.

821
Q

The keys to successful lead assignment include: (1) _______; (2) determine how automation can trigger assignment.

A

align with Sales

822
Q

The keys to successful lead assignment include: (1) align with Sales; (2) ________.

A

determine how automation can trigger assignment

823
Q

Assignment rules are often a ___ function.

A

sales ops.

824
Q

The most important thing for lead assignment is to use ___.

A

automation.

825
Q

True story: One marketing director had all stakeholders sign final copies of SLAs. Then she kept this in her ___ which she brought to every meeting.

A

Binder of Truth

826
Q

What guides you through defining the funnel stages?

A

The funnel stage definition template, available on Topliners.

827
Q

Funnel stage metrics to keep your eye on include (1) funnel stage conversion, (2) SLA compliance, (3) # rejected leads, (4) # _____.

A

expired leads

828
Q

Funnel stage metrics to keep your eye on include (1) funnel stage conversion, (2) SLA compliance, (3) __________, (4) # expired leads.

A

rejected leads

829
Q

Funnel stage metrics to keep your eye on include (1) funnel stage conversion, (2) _______, (3) # rejected leads, (4) # expired leads.

A

SLA compliance

830
Q

Funnel stage metrics to keep your eye on include (1) ________, (2) SLA compliance, (3) # rejected leads, (4) # expired leads.

A

funnel stage conversion

831
Q

According to the Global Alignment Benchmark Study, organizations with high sales and marketing alignment grow ___.

A

5x faster

832
Q

According to the Global Alignment Benchmark Study, organizations with high sales and marketing alignment close ___.

A

38% more proposals

833
Q

According to the Global Alignment Benchmark Study, organizations with high sales and marketing alignment lose ___.

A

36% fewer customers

834
Q

A process flow is a visual that shows ____________

A

all the possible paths one can take.

835
Q

5 steps for breaking down lead process flow: (1) ________, (2) current state, (3) audit systems, (4) future state, (5) manage change

A

core team

836
Q

5 steps for breaking down lead process flow: (1) core team, (2) _____, (3) audit systems, (4) future state, (5) manage change

A

current state

837
Q

5 steps for breaking down lead process flow: (1) core team, (2) current state, (3) ____, (4) future state, (5) manage change

A

audit systems

838
Q

5 steps for breaking down lead process flow: (1) core team, (2) current state, (3) audit systems, (4) _______, (5) manage change

A

future state

839
Q

5 steps for breaking down lead process flow: (1) core team, (2) current state, (3) audit systems, (4) future state, (5) _____

A

manage change

840
Q

The core team to define process flow should include: (1) ______, (2) internal facilitator, (3) best and brightest, (4) maverick, (5) data governance, (6) IT

A

project lead

841
Q

The core team to define process flow should include: (1) project lead, (2) ________, (3) best and brightest, (4) maverick, (5) data governance, (6) IT

A

internal facilitator

842
Q

The core team to define process flow should include: (1) project lead, (2) internal facilitator, (3) _______, (4) maverick, (5) data governance, (6) IT

A

best and brightest

843
Q

The core team to define process flow should include: (1) project lead, (2) internal facilitator, (3) best and brightest, (4) _____, (5) data governance, (6) IT

A

maverick

844
Q

The core team to define process flow should include: (1) project lead, (2) internal facilitator, (3) best and brightest, (4) maverick, (5) _______, (6) IT

A

data governance

845
Q

The core team to define process flow should include: (1) project lead, (2) internal facilitator, (3) best and brightest, (4) maverick, (5) data governance, (6) __

A

IT

846
Q

If you don’t have processes in place, your current lead flow may be _____

A

incredibly simple.

847
Q

To define lead process flow, Eloqua provides a ___

A

lead process flow template.

848
Q

Questions to help document current lead process flow: (1) _________ (2) Where is it happening? (3) When is it happening? (4) Who is doing it?

A

What is happening?

849
Q

Questions to help document current lead process flow: (1) What is happening? (2) _________ (3) When is it happening? (4) Who is doing it?

A

Where is it happening?

850
Q

Questions to help document current lead process flow: (1) What is happening? (2) Where is it happening? (3) ____ (4) Who is doing it?

A

When is it happening?

851
Q

Questions to help document current lead process flow: (1) What is happening? (2) Where is it happening? (3) When is it happening? (4) ___________

A

Who is doing it?

852
Q

To assess the current state of lead flow, ask if the process is capable of meeting ______

A

business targets

853
Q

To assess the current state of lead flow, ask where the process can be __

A

simplified.

854
Q

To assess the current state of lead flow, ask where ____

A

is the most time spent.

855
Q

To assess the current state of lead flow, ask where automation can ______

A

accelerate the process positively.

856
Q

To assess the current state of lead flow, ask what level of effort is required to _____

A

modify process.

857
Q

To assess the current state of lead flow, ask ____

A

how we can enforce and standardize.

858
Q

After assessing the lead flow’s current state, audit _____ to enhance process and data management.

A

systems integration options

859
Q

Many companies have __ that are not mapped to business requirements.

A

System objects

860
Q

Systems that should be audited to look at systems integration options include CRM, Eloqua, _____, Purchase system, Reporting.

A

Accounting database

861
Q

Systems that should be audited to look at systems integration options include CRM, Eloqua, Accounting database, _______, Reporting.

A

Purchase system

862
Q

Systems that should be audited to look at systems integration options include CRM, Eloqua, Accounting database, Purchase system, _____.

A

Reporting

863
Q

True Story: One company completed a system audit and found they had ______ different contact forms serving the same function.

A

500

864
Q

Before building the future state, many companies choose to document current state and _____ for a quarter or two.

A

watch benchmarks

865
Q

4 key areas of change management address (1) _______ (2) What’s going to happen to me? (3) Who decided? (4) How did we make this decision?

A

What was wrong with the old way?

866
Q

4 key areas of change management address (1) What was wrong with the old way? (2) __________ (3) Who decided? (4) How did we make this decision?

A

What’s going to happen to me?

867
Q

4 key areas of change management address (1) What was wrong with the old way? (2) What’s going to happen to me? (3) ______ (4) How did we make this decision?

A

Who decided?

868
Q

4 key areas of change management address (1) What was wrong with the old way? (2) What’s going to happen to me? (3) Who decided? (4) ___

A

How did we make this decision?

869
Q

Manage change in the Lead Process Flow with: (1) _______, (2) access to process flow diagram, (3) on demand training, (4) live Q&A sessions, (6) execution checklists, (7) feedback loops.

A

regular communication bullets

870
Q

Manage change in the Lead Process Flow with: (1) regular communication bullets, (2) ______, (3) on demand training, (4) live Q&A sessions, (6) execution checklists, (7) feedback loops.

A

access to process flow diagram

871
Q

Manage change in the Lead Process Flow with: (1) regular communication bullets, (2) access to process flow diagram, (3) ______, (4) live Q&A sessions, (6) execution checklists, (7) feedback loops.

A

on demand training

872
Q

Manage change in the Lead Process Flow with: (1) regular communication bullets, (2) access to process flow diagram, (3) on demand training, (4) _____, (6) execution checklists, (7) feedback loops.

A

live Q&A sessions

873
Q

Manage change in the Lead Process Flow with: (1) regular communication bullets, (2) access to process flow diagram, (3) on demand training, (4) live Q&A sessions, (6) _______, (7) feedback loops.

A

execution checklists

874
Q

Manage change in the Lead Process Flow with: (1) regular communication bullets, (2) access to process flow diagram, (3) on demand training, (4) live Q&A sessions, (6) execution checklists, (7) _______.

A

feedback loops

875
Q

In defining a lead flow, access to the ______ is particularly important for people who have roles affected by the changes.

A

Process Flow Diagram

876
Q

According to the Aberdeen Group, companies that get lead scoring right have a _______ lead qualification rate.

A

192% higher

877
Q

__ is the predictive ranking of one inbound response versus another.

A

Scoring.

878
Q

What kind of scoring program is objective?

A

An automated scoring program.

879
Q

A lead score should always reflect a ____

A

point in time.

880
Q

Is a lead score cumulative?

A

No.

881
Q

When a lead is re-scored, you must:

A

reset the score to zero.

882
Q

To build a lead scoring model: (1) ____ (2) Profile Score; (3) Engagement Score; (4) Map Scores to Actions; (5) build it

A

Stakeholders and assumptions;

883
Q

To build a lead scoring model: (1) Stakeholders and assumptions; (2) _______ (3) Engagement Score; (4) Map Scores to Actions; (5) build it

A

Profile Score;

884
Q

To build a lead scoring model: (1) Stakeholders and assumptions; (2) Profile Score; (3) ___ (4) Map Scores to Actions; (5) build it

A

Engagement Score;

885
Q

To build a lead scoring model: (1) Stakeholders and assumptions; (2) Profile Score; (3) Engagement Score; (4) ____(5) build it

A

Map Scores to Actions;

886
Q

To build a lead scoring model: (1) Stakeholders and assumptions; (2) Profile Score; (3) Engagement Score; (4) Map Scores to Actions; (5) _

A

build it

887
Q

The stakeholders who build the lead scoring model need to be _____

A

a good cross section of marketing and sales

888
Q

When will contacts be scored? What criteria will always exclude individuals from scoring? These assumptions need to be defined _______

A

only if you are using Eloqua 9, not if you are using Eloqua 10.

889
Q

To define profile criteria for lead scoring: (1) _______, (2) Choose 3-5 categories; (3) Rank categories by assigning weights; (4) Provide response values and response weights.

A

Review Personas

890
Q

To define profile criteria for lead scoring: (1) Review Personas, (2) ________; (3) Rank categories by assigning weights; (4) Provide response values and response weights.

A

Choose 3-5 categories

891
Q

To define profile criteria for lead scoring: (1) Review Personas, (2) Choose 3-5 categories; (3) ________; (4) Provide response values and response weights.

A

Rank categories by assigning weights

892
Q

To define profile criteria for lead scoring: (1) Review Personas, (2) Choose 3-5 categories; (3) Rank categories by assigning weights; (4) Provide _______.

A

response values and response weights

893
Q

In setting up lead scoring, your _____ should help crystallize the most important profile features you want to score on.

A

Persona

894
Q

Example categories for profile scoring: (1) ______, (2) Job Role, (3) Industry, (4) Lead Source

A

Interest / need

895
Q

Example categories for profile scoring: (1) Interest / need, (2) ______, (3) Industry, (4) Lead Source

A

Job Role

896
Q

Example categories for profile scoring: (1) Interest / need, (2) Job Role, (3) ______, (4) Lead Source

A

Industry

897
Q

Example categories for profile scoring: (1) Interest / need, (2) Job Role, (3) Industry, (4) _______

A

Lead Source

898
Q

The best practice for number of profile scoring categories is

A

no more than 5.

899
Q

Each lead scoring category should have ______ tiers or levels of response values.

A

a maximum of 3

900
Q

What is the best way to test your lead scoring model?

A

Use personas to see what score different personas would get.

901
Q

3 things to beware of in setting up lead scoring: (1) __________, (2) scoring on open text fields, (3) scoring BANT questions from a form.

A

Too many scoring categories

902
Q

3 things to beware of in setting up lead scoring: (1) Too many scoring categories, (2) _________ (3) scoring BANT questions from a form.

A

scoring on open text fields,

903
Q

3 things to beware of in setting up lead scoring: (1) Too many scoring categories, (2) scoring on open text fields, (3) _________.

A

scoring BANT questions from a form.

904
Q

In defining engagement score, recency and frequency define a ________

A

rolling window of relevance.

905
Q

In setting up Engagement Score, choose the ___ most important categories.

A

3-5

906
Q

For engagement scoring, should you look at email opens or email click throughs?

A

Click throughs.

907
Q

In setting up engagement score, what do the tiers represent?

A

Timeframe.

908
Q

In setting up lead scoring, what should your Response Weights add up to?

A

100

909
Q

In lead scoring, you break down the 100 percentage points into ranges that…

A

align with the scores of 1, 2, 3, or 4.

910
Q

You should test lead scoring ranges to make sure that what you think of as a __________ lead does get a 1 and a ___ lead gets a 4.

A

very engaged lead gets a 1 and a disengaged lead gets a 4.

911
Q

You should map each lead score to a particular _________ for marketing or sales.

A

action

912
Q

In the lead process flow template, where do you map lead scores to actions?

A

Under the Scoring-Actions tab.

913
Q

The Scoring-Actions tab in the lead process flow template lists out…

A

every single lead score.

914
Q

Certain lead scores are eligible to be passed to sales and others are held back inside of Eloqua until they are “sales ready.” This concept is known as a

A

threshold.

915
Q

A threshold requires a high level of ___ on the part of sales

A

trust.

916
Q

To launch a pilot lead flow, (1) _________, (2) pilot with sales stakeholders, (3) train and launch with a subset of sales.

A

integrate with CRM

917
Q

To launch a pilot lead flow, (1) integrate with CRM, (2) ________, (3) train and launch with a subset of sales.

A

pilot with sales stakeholders

918
Q

To launch a pilot lead flow, (1) integrate with CRM, (2) pilot with sales stakeholders, (3) __________.

A

train and launch with a subset of sales

919
Q

To ensure the full attention of Sales, coordinate pilots and launch times at the _________.

A

beginning of the fiscal quarter.

920
Q

Lead Scoring key points: (1) involve ________, (2) use personas to define scoring criteria, (3) 5 categories / 3 tiers, (4) multiple scores can have same follow-up action, (5) be mindful of sales cycle.

A

marketing and sales

921
Q

Lead Scoring key points: (1) involve marketing and sales, (2) use _________ to define scoring criteria, (3) 5 categories / 3 tiers, (4) multiple scores can have same follow-up action, (5) be mindful of sales cycle.

A

personas

922
Q

Lead Scoring key points: (1) involve marketing and sales, (2) use personas to define scoring criteria, (3) __ categories / __ tiers, (4) multiple scores can have same follow-up action, (5) be mindful of sales cycle.

A

5 categories / 3 tiers

923
Q

Lead Scoring key points: (1) involve marketing and sales, (2) use personas to define scoring criteria, (3) 5 categories / 3 tiers, (4) multiple scores can have _______, (5) be mindful of sales cycle.

A

same follow-up action

924
Q

Lead Scoring key points: (1) involve marketing and sales, (2) use personas to define scoring criteria, (3) 5 categories / 3 tiers, (4) multiple scores can have same follow-up action, (5) be mindful of ______.

A

sales cycle

925
Q

Many companies end up never getting a single A1 lead because their model is too _____

A

stringent.

926
Q

Audit your lead scoring program every

A

3-6 months

927
Q

First lead scoring metrics to check: (1) ______ of A leads (2) Conversion rate of B leads from MQL to SAL; (3) sales acceptance rate; (4) days in sales cycle; (5) revenue per deal.

A

Close rate

928
Q

First lead scoring metrics to check: (1) Close rate of A leads (2) Conversion rate of B leads _______; (3) sales acceptance rate; (4) days in sales cycle; (5) revenue per deal.

A

from MQL to SAL

929
Q

First lead scoring metrics to check: (1) Close rate of A leads (2) Conversion rate of B leads from MQL to SAL; (3) sales ________ rate; (4) days in sales cycle; (5) revenue per deal.

A

acceptance

930
Q

First lead scoring metrics to check: (1) Close rate of A leads (2) Conversion rate of B leads from MQL to SAL; (3) sales acceptance rate; (4) days in _________; (5) revenue per deal.

A

sales cycle

931
Q

First lead scoring metrics to check: (1) Close rate of A leads (2) Conversion rate of B leads from MQL to SAL; (3) sales acceptance rate; (4) days in sales cycle; (5) _______ per deal.

A

revenue

932
Q

True Story: Lead scoring combined with Data Append AppCloud gave a software company a _____ increase in pipeline and ____ increase in opportunity while sending _____ leads to sales.

A

12% increase in pipeline and 36% increase in opportunity while sending 20% less leads to sales.

933
Q

In an Aberdeen RPM white paper, ____ of marketing respondents cited budgetary pressure as the top pressure.

A

44% of marketing respondents cited budgetary pressure as the top pressure.

934
Q

In an Aberdeen RPM white paper, ____ cited ability to validate as the top pressure.

A

27%

935
Q

In an Aberdeen RPM white paper, ____ cited awareness of company and products as the top pressure.

A

25%

936
Q

In an Aberdeen RPM white paper, _____ cited revenue growth as the top pressure

A

25%

937
Q

In an Aberdeen RPM white paper, ____ cited ability to differentiate as the top pressure.

A

20%

938
Q

The #1 RPI for Lead Management is _____

A

conversion

939
Q

______ is one dimension to slice Conversion metrics.

A

Referral source

940
Q

Leads must ______ if there is no movement.

A

expire from the stage they are in.

941
Q

_____ indicates the rate of movement of leads through your revenue cycle.

A

velocity

942
Q

of individuals x % probability to close =

A

number of likely to close deals

943
Q

Likely to close deals X average selling price =

A

value

944
Q

A funnel’s value can be measured along dimensions such as (1) ____, (2) Product, (3) Segment

A

Region

945
Q

A funnel’s value can be measured along dimensions such as (1) Region, (2) _____, (3) Segment

A

Product

946
Q

A funnel’s value can be measured along dimensions such as (1) Region, (2) Product, (3)_____

A

Segment

947
Q

Return tells you…

A

what your cost of revenue is.

948
Q

The ______ is calculated by dividing the revenue for deals that closed in a given time period divided by the cost of campaigns that directly influenced that revenue.

A

Return RPI

949
Q

Data on revenue is captured by your…

A

Finance team

950
Q

In business, ____ is oxygen.

A

revenue

951
Q

To stimulate growth, ___ of CEO’s feel that the key is getting closer to the customer to build long-term, profitable relationships.

A

88%

952
Q

___ of marketing feel their lack of skills is impacting revenue in some way.

A

75%

953
Q

In the ______ stage of the RPM journey, sales uses a CRM to configure accounts and opportunities, route leads, analyze and optimize, etc.

A

Sales Pipeline.

954
Q

In the _____ stage of the RPM journey, marketing uses business processes for data management, automates campaigns, and starts to achieve right time, right message marketing.

A

Demand Generation

955
Q

In the _____ stage of the RPM journey, marketing and sales work together to optimize quality and lead flow, setting up lead scoring and implementing SLAs.

A

Lead Management

956
Q

In the ______ stage of the RPM journey, the alignment between Marketing and Sales solidifies, and they look at a single set of reports to make joint decisions.

A

One View of the Truth

957
Q

In the _____ stage of the RPM journey, the EVP of Sales and the CMO align to predict and forecast future revenue opportunities.

A

Revenue Discovery

958
Q

Marketing automation comes onto the scene in the ____ and ____ phase of the RMP Journey.

A

Demand Generation and Lead Management

959
Q

The building blocks of RPM are _______, integrated funnel, and the buyer’s journey.

A

marketing & sales alignment

960
Q

The building blocks of RPM are marketing & sales alignment, ____, and the buyer’s journey.

A

integrated funnel

961
Q

The building blocks of RPM are marketing & sales alignment, integrated funnel, and the _______.

A

buyer’s journey

962
Q

The visual representation of the buying cycle is called the

A

integrated marketing and sales funnel.

963
Q

A _____ is an individual who is just hearing about your brand.

A

suspect

964
Q

A _____ is an individual whose interest level has been validated.

A

prospect

965
Q

A sales-ready lead is a

A

marketing-qualified lead.

966
Q

When sales has accepted ownership of a lead they are a

A

sales-accepted lead.

967
Q

After sales validates a lead they are a

A

sales qualified opportunity.

968
Q

The marketing and sales funnel is an internal way of looking at the ___

A

buyer’s journey.

969
Q

When you’re thinking about communicating should you think about the marketing and sales funnel or the buyer’s journey?

A

The buyer’s journey.

970
Q

With RPM, we can do (1) _____, (2) effective nurturing, (3) measure and improve lead quality, (4) access revenue metrics.

A

targeting & segmentation

971
Q

With RPM, we can do (1) targeting & segmentation, (2) _____, (3) measure and improve lead quality, (4) access revenue metrics.

A

effective nurturing

972
Q

With RPM, we can do (1) targeting & segmentation, (2) effective nurturing, (3) ____, (4) access revenue metrics.

A

measure and improve lead quality

973
Q

With RPM, we can do (1) targeting & segmentation, (2) _____, (3) measure and improve lead quality, (4) _____.

A

access revenue metrics

974
Q

One-to-one communication is ____-driven.

A

behavior-driven.

975
Q

Batch and blast email is ___-driven.

A

product-driven.

976
Q

Segment email is ____-driven

A

customer-driven.

977
Q

Marketing Sherpa tells us that segmented lists yielded ___ CTR compared to un-segmented lists of the same size which yielded only ___CTR.

A

Segmented - 11.7% CTR, unsegmented, 0.6% CTR.

978
Q

The biggest assumption of targeting is that your data is ______

A

complete, consistent, and current.

979
Q

By itself, data cleansing will increase monthly inquiries ____ times and monthly leads ___ times.

A

increase monthly inquiries 7.3 times and monthly leads 4.7 times.

980
Q

If data cleansing is combined with lead scoring, monthly inquiries increase ___ times and monthly leads ___ times.

A

monthly inquiries increase 8.0 times and monthly leads increase 11.6 times.

981
Q

Contact Management will have an effect on which metrics?

A

Almost all.

982
Q

According to Sirus Decisions, ____ of prospects that are disqualified by Sales still buy from you or a competitor within the next 24 months.

A

80%

983
Q

True Story - Markie winner 2011 whose batch and blast campaigns were yielding low-quality leads improved their results with 9 nurture campaigns targeted on the ____ and the recipient’s ____

A

targeted on the buying cycle and the recipient’s job role.

984
Q

True Story - Markie winner from 2011 implemented lead nurturing and saw up to a ___% open rate and a ___% click-through rate.

A

up to 34% open rate and 21% click-through rate.

985
Q

True Story - Markie winner from 2011 implemented lead nurturing and saw an average of __% open rate and ___% click-through rate.

A

average of 20% open rate and 6% click-through rate.

986
Q

True Story - Markie winner from 2011 saw a ____% increase in new user adoption after implementing lead nurturing.

A

6% increase in new user adoptio.

987
Q

True Story - Markie winner from 2011 implemented lead nurturing and saw ___% of pipeline influenced.

A

66% of pipeline influenced.

988
Q

True Story - Markie winner from 2011 implemented lead nurturing and saw ___% of closed-won opportunity influenced.

A

37% of closed-won opportunity influenced.

989
Q

Search and content syndication play a key role in the ____ phase of the buyer’s journey.

A

interest

990
Q

White papers and webinars can be considered part of _______ and the ____ stage of the buyer’s journey.

A

Thought Leadership; Learn

991
Q

Eloqua’s customers that nurture generate ___ more marketing qualified leads.

A

21% more

992
Q

The only way you can create a right-time, right message experience is to use ___ for your nurturing.

A

automation

993
Q

An automated _____ campaign sends out nuggets of information over an extended period of time.

A

drip

994
Q

____ is a key indicator of when is someone is ready to talk to sales.

A

Lead Scoring

995
Q

The best lead scoring programs look at both ____ and _____ information.

A

profile and engagement information.

996
Q

In lead scoring, ____ information tells us if we want to do business with this person.

A

profile information.

997
Q

In lead scoring, _____ tells us if this person wants to do business with us.

A

engagement information

998
Q

Engagement information is also known as …

A

digital body language.

999
Q

Engagement scores go from…

A

1 to 4

1000
Q

Profile scores go from…

A

A to D

1001
Q

A grid of lead scores is also called a…_________ lead scoring system.

A

co-dynamic lead scoring system.

1002
Q

Less than ____ of customers have a perfect lead score.

A

Less than 50%

1003
Q

In a study of ten B2B organizations using lead scoring, Eloqua found on average, close rates increased by…

A

10%

1004
Q

In a study of ten B2B organizations using lead scoring, Eloqua found on average, revenue per deal increased by…

A

17%

1005
Q

In a study of ten B2B organizations using lead scoring, Eloqua found on average, company revenue increased by….

A

18%

1006
Q

In a study of ten B2B organizations using lead scoring, Eloqua found on average, qualified leads…

A

decreased by 23%.

1007
Q

The RPIs are (1) ___, (2) reach, (3) conversion, (4) velocity, (5) return

A

value

1008
Q

The RPIs are (1) value, (2) ____, (3) conversion, (4) velocity, (5) return

A

reach

1009
Q

The RPIs are (1) value, (2) reach, (3) _____, (4) velocity, (5) return

A

conversion

1010
Q

The RPIs are (1) value, (2) reach, (3) conversion, (4) ____, (5) return

A

velocity

1011
Q

The RPIs are (1) value, (2) reach, (3) conversion, (4) velocity, (5) ___

A

return

1012
Q

Companies that measure RPI’s ____ the S&P 500 in growth.

A

outperform the S&P 500 in growth, 58% growth compared to 15% in growth.

1013
Q

____ is the RPI that measures the number of marketable contacts in your database.

A

Reach

1014
Q

____ is the RPI that measures the % of leads who will eventually purchase.

A

Conversion